Exam 2: E. coli - A. Lignieresii Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
Where does Enterobacteriaceae reside?
A
the GI tract of humans and animals
2
Q
Is lipid A an endotoxin or exotoxin? What type of bacteria is it found in?
A
endotoxin, in gram negative bacteria
3
Q
Is enterobacteriaceae gram positive or negative? Is it an aerobe or anaerobe?
A
gram negative, facultative anaerobe
4
Q
Why is coliform enumeration performed?
A
to evaluate fecal/sewage contamination
5
Q
What are the most common nosocomial infections? Are these obligate or opportunistic pathogens?
A
Klebsiella pneumonia, Klebsiella oxytoca, Enterobacter cloaca, Enterobacter aerogenes, Proteus mirabilis, and Citrobacter freundii. These are opportunistic pathogens.
6
Q
What is a serotype? What do O, H, F, and K represent?
A
complete antigenic formula. O-antigen, H-Flagella, F-fimbriae, K-capsule.
7
Q
Is Shigella spp. also considered and Escherichia?
A
Yes, but it is not present in animals.
8
Q
What are ExPEC E. coli strains? What do they affect?
A
Extra-intestinal pathogenic strains. They affect resp., septicaemiae, UTI, mastitis
9
Q
What are the 5 main enteric pathotypes of E. coli?
A
ETEC - enterotoxigenic, EHEC - enterohemorrhagic, VTEC/STEC - verotoxigenic/shiga-like toxic, EPEC - enteropathogenic, and RPEC - rabbit pathogenic.
10
Q
What are the 4 main types of E. coli extra intestinal pathotypes? Who do each affect?
A
APEC - avian pathogenic, NTEC (necrotoxigenic) - cattle, Mastitis causing E. coli - cattle, and MMA in pigs.
11
Q
What causes bacterial diarrhea in piglets?
A
ETEC and EPEC
12
Q
T/F: Bacterial diarrhea in fattening pigs, sows, and boar is always caused by E. coli
A
False. It is seldom caused by e. coli
13
Q
Which ETEC adhesion factor is seen in neonates->post weaning pigs and is expressed at body temp?
A
F4 (K88)
14
Q
What ETEC adhesion factor is in both pigs and bovines, and expression is temperature dependent?
A
F5 (K99)
15
Q
Which ETEC adhesion factor is mainly extrachromosomal and seen only in neonates?
A
F6 (987P)
16
Q
Which enterotoxin is seen in ETEC, EPEC, and VTEC, and is also closely related to STa?
A
EAST1
17
Q
What are the clinical signs of ETEC?
A
animals remain drinkin, have smelly feces, and are dehydrated. Older animals have white-grey diarrhea that isn’t as watery.
18
Q
What is the ideal way to prevent ETEC?
A
keep infection pressure low and maternal immunity high by vaccines, hygiene, and selecting receptor free piglets.
19
Q
Which E. coli strain causes oedema disease? In what age group?
A
VTEC, in post weaning
20
Q
What are the VTEC virulence factors?
A
adhesion (F18), exotoxin (VT2e or Stx2e), and endotoxin which causes acute mortality
21
Q
What are the clinical signs of VTEC?
A
acute mortality (some), diarrhea (some), anorexia, oedema (especially swollen eyelids), and CNS.
22
Q
What is the course of treatment for VTEC affected animals?
A
fast them to eliminate the toxin, antimicrobial therapy after susceptibility testing (because of resistance).
23
Q
T/F: You want to vaccinate and castrate piglets at the same time.
A
False. You want to keep stress levels to a minimum in order to prevent VTEC.
24
Q
Which is the most important pathogen in UTIs in pigs?
A
E. coli
25
T/F: Septicaemiae caused by E. coli us secondary to enteric infection.
True. It is rarely a primary disease.
26
What are the E. coli diseases in bovines and what age groups do they affect?
ETEC - animals less than 3 days of age, EPEC and EHEC - animals older than 1 week, Septicaemic (NTEC) - neonates, lack of colostrum.
27
Which is the most common virulence factor in ETEC in bovines?
F5
28
T/F: EHEC and EPEC are both zoonotic.
False, only EHEC is.
29
Which are the most frequent E. coli serotypes in poultry and other birds?
O1, O2, and O78
30
T/F: Salmonella is not very resistant in the environment.
False. It is very resistant, especially when protected by organic material or in a dry environment.
31
What are the 2 main Salmonella serotypes seen in bovines?
S. typhimurium and S. dublin
32
Which Salmonella strain causes typhoid in pigs?
S. choleraesuis
33
Is the salmonella abortus equi bacteria in horses intracellular or extracellular?
Intracellular. This makes it hard to remove from the reproductive system/organs.
34
Which is the most common form of non-host specific salmonella in horses?
the acute form. This can evolve to a chronic form.
35
What percentage of dogs are carriers for Salmonella? Percentage of cats?
Dogs: 0-36%, Cats: 0-20%
36
What is the main way for cats and dogs to get Salmonella?
through feed.
37
When is the use of antibiotics for Salmonella infections in cats and dogs contraindicated? Why?
When the animals have a good general condition. This can lead to the creation of carriers.
38
Salmonella in pigeons is caused by what variation?
S. typhimurium var. Copenhagen
39
When is acute parathyphus typically seen?
during breeding.
40
Typhoid salmonella in poultry is typically caused by what strains?
S. pullorum and S. gallinarum
41
T/F: S. enteriditis causes non-typhoid salmonella in poultry
True.
42
What causes typhoid salmonella in turkeys?
S. enterica ssp. arizonae. It is only seen in younger animals.
43
T/F: S. pullorum can be transmitted vertically and horizontally.
True.
44
Which paratyphoid salmonella strain is zoonotic and spread through egg contamination?
S. enteriditis
45
What can cause equine metritis?
Kelbsiella infections
46
What animals do Klebsiella infections affect?
Non-human primates, horses, bovines.
47
T/F: Klebsiella infections cause mastitis in bovines.
True.
48
T/F: Klebsiella can be the cause of pyometra or cystitis in dogs.
True, but very rare.
49
Which Yersinia strains are zoonotic?
Y. pestis, Y. pseudotuberculosis, and Y. enterocolitica.
50
Which Yersinia strain is known to cause "black death"?
Yersinia pestis.
51
Which Yersinia spp. was responsible for the bubonic plague? How was it transmitted?
Yersinia pestis. Fleas of wild rodents.
52
When is Yersinia pestis typically seen?
Mainly in warm months, when temperatures are above 27 degrees celcius.
53
Where does Yersinia pestis replicate in fleas?
in the proventriculus.
54
How do cats obtain Yersinia pestis?
by eating infected prey.
55
What Yersinia spp. is a major pathogen in Passeriformes?
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
56
Where does Yersinia pseudotuberculosis replicate in birds and rodents?
In the blood. This leads to sepsis.
57
What bacteria causes "fat liver disease" or "rodentiosis"?
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
58
What bacteria multiplies post-mortem and causes difficulties as a contaminant in bacteriological cultures?
Proteus
59
What bacteria is seen in otitis post-treatment?
Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
60
Is Pseudomonas an aerobe or anaerobe? Where is it predominantly found?
obligate aerobe, typically found in water.
61
Is P. aeruginosa an obligate or facultative pathogen? Is it oxidase positive or negative? What about lactose?
facultative pathogen, oxidase positive, lactose negative.
62
T/F: P aeruginosa causes fleece rot in sheep
True
63
When is P. aeruginosa seen in cats and dogs?
skin infections (pyoderma), cystitis, otitis externa, and it is seen in some purulent processes (pus can be blue/green) in these cases. Also seen in eye infections.
64
P. aeruginosa causes what in rabbits?
skin infection (moist dermatitis). Can also cause pneumonia.
65
What does P. aeruginosa cause in horses?
metritis-vaginitis secondary to prolonged antimicrobial treatment, and keratitis conjunctivitis as a secondary infection following topical treatment with steroid/antibiotic mixtures.
66
Does P. aeruginosa have a high instance of aquired resistance?
Yes.
67
In what species does P. aeruginosa cause mastitis? Fleece rot?
Bovines, sheep, and goats get mastitis. Sheep get fleece rot.
68
What does P. aeruginosa cause in reptiles?
necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia, septicaemiae all usually due to poor housing.
69
Where is P. aeruginosa found in turkeys?
In their oviduct.
70
What is the most crucial step in treating P. aeruginosa infections?
take away the cause of infection.
71
Which Burkholderia species was used in WWI and is reportable?
B. mallei (glanders). Mainly an equine pathogen but infects felines, dogs, and humans.
72
How is B. mallei transmitted?
ingestion, inhalation, and through wounds.
73
Which form of glanders is typically fatal?
the acute infection.
74
What is the official test to diagnose glanders in horses? What is the issue with this test?
CFT. false positives.
75
What is the best form of treatment and prevention of B. mallei?
cull positive animals, burn bedding and feed. REPORT DISEASE.
76
T/F: Burkholderia pseudomallei (melioidosis) is not a reportable disease.
False. It is reportable.
77
When are B. pseudomallei infections frequently seen? Why?
after flooding or heavy rainfalls. This bacteria is a real saprophyte.
78
What are the virulence factors of Melioidosis?
adhesins (flagella), capsule, T3SS and T4SS
79
What bacteria was very important in military dogs during the war in Vietnam?
Burkholderia pseudomallei (Melioidosis)
80
Melioidosis is known as what in horses?
pseudoglanders
81
T/F: You want to cull animals affected with Burkholderia pseudomallei (melioidosis)
False. Course of tx is abscess drainage and antimicrobial treatment following a susceptibility profile. REPORTABLE.
82
What are some virulence factors of Francisella tularensis?
capsule (anti-complement), endotoxin (LPS), and factors that promote intracellular survival in phagocytes.
83
Which subspecies of F. tularensis is found in Europe? in Central Asia? N. America?
F. tularensis subsp. holarctica, F. tularensis subsp. mediasiatica, and F. tularensis subsp. tularensis
84
T/F: F. tularensis always has a systemic phase with multi-organ failure
True.
85
What are the organs mainly affected with F. tularensis infections?
liver, spleen, and lungs.
86
Which strain of F. tularensis is more virulent?
Type A (ss. tularensis)
87
Which Taylorella sp. is non-pathogenic and seen in donkeys?
Taylorella asinigenitalis
88
T/F: Taylorella equigenitalis is an obligate pathogen who is also obligate symbiotic
True
89
This bacteria is reportable, causes contagious equine metritis, and only has immunity develop in females. It is asymptomatic in males.
Taylorella equigenitalis
90
What bacteria are BSL3?
Francisella tularensis, Burkholderia mallei, and Burkholderia pseudomallei
91
How do you diagnose T. equigenitalis in stallions?
Swab the preputium, urethra, fossa glandis, and sinus urethralis.
92
How do you diagnose T. equigenitalis in females?
swab the fossa clitoridis and sinus clitoridis.
93
T/F: there is a vaccine available for T. equigenitalis that prevents infection.
False. There is a vaccine available, but it does not prevent infection. Simply reduces severity of disease.
94
T/F Brucella abortus has distinct symptoms.
False. It is asymptomatic, spreads intracellularly in macrophages.
95
What are the target organs for Brucella abortus?
reproductive organs, articulations, tendon sheath, synovial bursa
96
T/F: Brucella abortus can cause subclinical mastitis
True
97
T/F: Brucella abortus has a cell wall, a capsule, and no flagella.
False. It has no capsule or flagella. Only a cell wall
98
What is responsible for B. abortus' preferential location?
erythritol
99
Which colonies of Brucella have increased virulence? Which are zoonotic?
Smooth colonies. B. melitensis, B. abortus, and B. suis
100
When are antibodies against Brucella abortus formed?
When it's in the organs.
101
How do you diagnose B. abortus?
SAW or SAT test.
102
Who is the reservoir for B. suis?
wild boar
103
Which biovars of B. suis are the most pathogenic for pigs?
1-3. 1 and 2 have hares as reservoirs.
104
T/F: B. suis has been weaponized and is more pathogenic than B. abortus
True
105
In what organs does B. suis localize and form abscesses?
lymph nodes, repro organs, liver, spleen, joints
106
Who does B. melitensis and B. ovis affect? Are they both zoonotic?
Sheep and goats, no. Only B. melitensis is zoonotic.
107
T/F: Brucella canis is zoonotic and considered and STD.
True
108
Where is Bordetella bronchiseptica mainly found?
in the upper respiratory tract of many animal species. Has affinity for ciliated resp. epithelium.
109
B. bronchiseptica causes pathology in what species most frequently?
dogs (kennel couch), pigs (atrophic rhinitis), rabbits, and guinea pigs
110
B. bronchiseptica has which adhesins that contribute to it's virulence?
filamentous hemagglutinin, pertactin (OMP) and fimbriae.
111
What are the diseases in pigs caused by B. bronchiseptica?
non-progressive atrophic rhinitis, pneumonic bordetellosis, progressive atrophic rhinitis
112
T/F: Kennel cough is always a self limiting disease.
False. It is a self limiting disease most of the time, not always.
113
How long does it take a horse to fully recover from B. bronchiseptica?
3 weeks.
114
What is bordetella in poultry known as?
B. avium, coryza
115
T/F: nearly all rabbits are carriers of bordetella
True
116
What causes bronchopneumonia in rabbits?
Bordetella + P. multocida
117
Is bordetella zoonotic?
Seldomly. Mainly in immunocompromised people
118
What antibiotics are very toxic to rabbits?
Lincosamides. 100% mortality w/ a single dose.
119
What does Moraxella bovis cause in bovines?
keratoconjunctivitis "Pink eye". Mainly in young animals.
120
What is essential for the virulence of Moraxella bovis?
fimbriae. They adhere to the host cell (eye)
121
How do you diagnose M. bovis?
Immunofluorescence, culture, PCR.
122
What is M. ovis associated with in bovines and sheep?
keratoconjunctivitis and pneumonia.
123
High virulent strains of Pasteurella multocida are seen in what animals?
bovines, birds, and rabbits
124
Type A Pasteurella multocida has what hosts?
cattle, sheep, pigs, rabbits, poultry, and domestic and wild animals
125
Snuffles is caused by what and is seen in what animal?
P. multocida and in rabbits
126
What serotypes of P. multocida in bovines is found mainly in Africa? In SE Asia?
E:2, B:2
127
P. multocida in pigs causes what?
Atrophic rhinitis (along w/ Bordetella bronchiseptica) and lung pasteurellosis
128
P. multocida in poultry is always hyperacute in which case?
In the case of cat bites
129
Where are the less virulent serotypes of P. multocida in cats and dogs found?
nose and tonsils
130
What bacteria used to be known as Pasteurella hemolytica?
Mannheimia hemolytica
131
Leukotoxin of Mannheimia hemolytica is only effective on leucocytes of which animals?
bovines and sheep
132
What is bacterial broncho-pneumonia in calves by M. haemolytica and P. multocida called?
Shipping fever
133
is the pathogenesis caused by M. haemolytica exogenic or endogenic?
It is both!
134
Bibersteinia trehalosis was formerly known as?
Pasteurella trehalosi
135
Who does Bibersteinia trehalosis affect?
Sheep 5-10 month old
136
What causes the disease known as Glasser disease?
Haemophilus parasuis
137
T/F: Haemophilus is NAD dependent
True
138
T/F: Haemophilus parasuis is only an exogenic infection.
False. It is endogenic and exogenic
139
What does Haemophilus felis cause in cats?
chronic pneumonia and conjunctivitis
140
What was Histophilus somnei formerly known as?
Haemophilus somnus
141
Where does Histophilus somnei usually colonize?
the mucosal surfaces of ruminants (urogenital)
142
T/F one of the symptoms of Histophilus somnei is sleepers disease. What is sleepers disease?
True. Caused by thrombo embolic meningo-encephalitis
143
How do you diagnose Histophilus somnei?
via bacterial culture
144
T/F here is no vaccine available for Histophilus somnei
False
145
Avibacterium paragallinarum was formerly known as what? What is the name of the disease it causes?
Haemophilus paragallinarum, Infectious coryza
146
Is infectious coryza NAD dependent?
Yes.
147
T/F Avibacterium paragallinarum is not an obligate pathogen for chickens.
False.
148
How do you diagnose Avibacterum paragallinarum?
bacterial culture
149
T/F: pericarditis can be seen with O. Rhinotracheale
True
150
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is an important disease in what?
In swine rearing
151
Which biotype of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is NAD independent?
Biotype 2
152
How is Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae spread?
From pig to pig via direct contact or aerosol, or through the stable via ventilation, regrouping of pigs, and through the farmer.
153
What is necessary for Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae to replicate?
Fe
154
How do you diagnose Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae?
Clinical signs, autopsy, bacterial culture.
155
T/F: A suis is pathogenic only in pigs
False. It is also pathogenic for mice
156
Who is mostly acutely affected by A. suis?
Young animals.
157
Which subspecies of Actinobacillus equuli is a reservoir in only the horse?
subsp. haemolyticus
158
What causes sleepy foal disease?
A. equuli
159
Where does A. lingieresii infect?
infection of weak tissues, connective tissue proliferation.
160
When is treatment most effective in A. lignieresii?
in the initial phase. Must be fast!
