Exam 2 / Final Flashcards
(85 cards)
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of case reports?
a. Build problem solving skills
b. Determine cause and effect
c. Develop hypotheses for research
d. Share clinical experiences
Answer is: B
Rationale:
a. This is one purpose of case reports as they help other clinicians with similar cases critically think
about the other treatments.
b. This is not a purpose of case reports and cause and effect cannot be determined because case
reports are typically retrospective and do not have a control group.
c. This is one purpose of case reports as researchers ask questions while reading reports to
develop hypotheses.
d. This is one purpose of case reports as they are written about unique cases.
A study found that the most common injury in baseball players are labral tears. The results
yielded an ICC value of .88. Which of the following is a true interpretation of the results?
a. This study has excellent reliability.
b. This study has poor reliability.
c. This study showed that 88% of its participants had a labral tear.
d. This study showed that there was a ceiling effect of 88%.
Answer: A
Rationale
a. An ICC value greater than .75 is considered to have excellent reliability. Therefore, this is the
correct answer.
b. An ICC value less than .40 is considered to have poor reliability. Therefore, this answer is
incorrect.
c. ICC has nothing to do with the percentage of participants that have labral tears. Therefore, this
answer is incorrect.
d. ICC has nothing to do with a ceiling effect. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.
The purpose of this prospective case series was to determine the MCID in Functional gate assessments
(FGA) for the older community-dwelling adults relative to patients’ and physical therapists’ estimates of
change and the extent of agreement between patients’ and physical therapists’ estimates of change.
After completing this case series, the kappa statistics score was 0.163 (weighted kappa = 0.163). The
MCID was 4 points, (SN = 0.66, SP = 0.84, LR+ = 4.07, LR- = 0.40). Interpret these findings.
a. A patient whose FGA score improved by 7 points would be considered to have a clinically
significant change.
b. Prospective case series has higher level of evidence on the clinical research design compared to
a cohort study
c. The kappa value in this series shows a moderate level of agreement
d. The LR+ shows a strong shift in probability of the patient having the disease or complaint
Answer: A
Rationale:
a. This answer is correct because it applies the found MCID (4 points) into a clinical example. The
patient in this answer had a change of 7 points which is greater than the required 4-point
change.
b. This answer is incorrect because a cohort study is higher on the hierarchy of studies compared
to the case series.
c. This answer is incorrect because kappa values do show agreement, however the level of
agreement is incorrect. The correct interpretation of the kappa value would be slight
agreement.
d. This answer is incorrect because the positive likelihood ratio was 4.07 making it have a small
shift in probability.
An elementary school health fair takes the weight of a child at the fair three times, on the same scale each time, within the hour he/she spends at the fair and gives an intraclass correlation coefficient of 0.76. This intraclass correlation coefficient indicates which of the following?
a. At minimum, 76 children needed to participate in this health fair to show any clinical meaning.
b. Not able to interpret the meaning of this value because a control group was not used.
c. The reliability of this scale measurement is good.
d. The weight of the child increased by 0.76 pounds during the three measurements.
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. Intraclass correlation coefficient does not provide any information about the number of children
who needed to participate in the health fair study to show clinical meaningfulness.
b. Intraclass correlation coefficient requires continuous data to calculate reliability, not a control
group.
c. An intraclass correlation coefficient of >0.75 is deemed good reliability.
d. Intraclass correlation coefficient does not provide insight into changes in the specific weight
variable being measured.
Study A is evaluating the correlation between drinking an energy drink or sugar water with their
corresponding blood pressure. Group I will drink one 16 fl oz can of RockStar energy drink per day.
Group II will drink one 16 fl oz glass of water with 3g of sugar per day. Group III will be the control group
and will drink one 16 fl oz glass of water per day. Blood pressure will be measured using a blood
pressure cuff and stethoscope by a licensed physician at 5pm every day for five days. A volunteer sample
of 25 individuals from the University of Minnesota Biology department is randomly assigned to one of
the three groups. The average age of participants is 24.4 with an average pre-screen blood pressure
reading of 120/80. How would you describe the validity of this study?
a. The blood pressure reading measurement does not have face validity because the measurement
tools do not measure blood pressure.
b. The strength of the internal validity is increased because the researchers use independent
variables to measure a difference in a dependent variable.
c. This study has strong external validity because it uses a convenience sample, which allows the
results to be generalized to the real world.
d. This study is not internally valid because the study design does not allow the results to be
generalizable to the real world.
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. Having a licensed physician use a blood pressure cuff and stethoscope is the correct way to
measure blood pressure. Thus, this measurement has face validity
b. Internal validity deals with the study’s experimental design. Since the researchers are using
independent variables to manipulate a dependent variable, the study’s internal validity is
strengthened.
c. External validity has to do with how generalizable the results are to real world. Since the study
uses a convenience sample with seemingly healthy college-aged individuals, it is has weak
external validity.
d. Internal validity does not refer to how generalizable the results are to the real world.
The following contingency table is provided in the results section of Study A:
Labrum Tear Present Labrum Tear Absent Labrum Test Pos: A = 10 (true pos) B = 30 (false pos) Labrum Test Neg: C = 20 (false neg) D = 15 (true neg)
The researchers state that the sensitivity for this Labrum test is 0.33. Is the sensitivity value correct?
Answers:
a. No, sensitivity does not have to do with contingency tables.
b. No, because the sensitivity equation is A/(A+B), which equals 0.25.
c. Yes, because sensitivity is D/(B+D), which equals 0.33.
d. Yes, because the equation for sensitivity is A/(A+C), which equals 0.33.
Answer: D
Rationale:
a. Sensitivity is calculated using contingency tables for test results.
b. A/(A+B) equals 0.25. This is not the sensitivity equation.
c. This does not use the correct equation for sensitivity. This is the equation for specificity.
d. This is uses the correct equation to calculate sensitivity.
Study Corp is researching anterior knee pain in runners. Study Corp used the Visual Analog Scale during
their research and wanted to analyze the results. The participant responses are as follows:
• Mean 1 = 3.7
• Mean 2 = 6.1
• Pooled SD = 4.2
Using the equation d = (Mean 2 – Mean 1)/Pooled SD, the effect size of Study Corp’s research study
would be considered:
a. Moderate
b. Small
c. Strong
d. Weak
Answer: A
Rationale:
a. Correct. The effect size is equal to 0.57, and effect sizes are considered “moderate” if they are
between 0.5 and 0.8.
b. Incorrect. The effect size is equal to 0.57, and effect sizes are considered “small” if they are
between 0.2 and 0.5.
c. Incorrect. The effect size is equal to 0.57, and effect sizes are considered “strong” if they are
above 0.8.
d. Incorrect. The effect size is equal to 0.57, and effect sizes are considered “weak” if they are
below 0.2.
You create a new test to measure BMI and want to see how your calculated values compare to the
values calculated by the Bod Pod. What type of validity are you referring to?
a. Concurrent
b. Content
c. Face
d. Predictive
Answer: A
Rationale:
a. Concurrent validity looks to see if a test measure correlates with a gold standard measure. In
this case, you are looking to see if your calculated values correlates with values found using
the gold standard measure (Bod Pod). The closer your value is to the gold standard value, the
higher the concurrent validity.
b. Content validity looks to see if a measure represents all constructs of the measure. For example,
an AP Physics Exam (measurement) represents all of an individual’s AP Physics knowledge
(construct).
c. Face validity looks to see if a specific measure actually measures what it is designed to measure.
For example, IQ tests are supposed to measure intelligence. It would be valid if it accurately
measured intelligence. However, if an IQ test has a picture of a tennis ball missing from a tennis
court and asks what is missing, it could be biased against the poor, who may not have seen a
tennis court. This invalidates the test because it does not actually measure intelligence in some
people.
d. Predictive validity looks to see whether a test can be used to predict a future score or outcome.
For example, tests could be administered to job applicants and after those individuals work this
job for a year, these scores could be correlated with their first-year job performance scores to
see if the test scores accurately predicted how well these individuals would perform in this job.
A Timed Up and Go (TUG) test was conducted on 2,985 patients in various national Parkinson
foundation centers across the country. An initial TUG test was performed and measured, followed by
two weeks of physical therapy, with a second test being conducted with a MCID of 1.8 seconds. This
MCID can be interpreted as indicating what?
- A high intrarater reliability among the two tests, helping improve the validity of the study.
- The agreed upon range of measurement error allowed between two tests.
- The minimum amount of change in a patient’s score that ensures the change was not the result
of measurement error. - What the physical therapist or patient would consider as a smallest amount of change needed
to indicate improvement.
Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Intrarater reliability indicates consistency of data being measured and recorded by the same
individual over two or more trials/tests. The question asks about MCID, which is interested in
improving scores, not consistent measurements among two different tests.
2. This is talking about the Standard Error of Measurement (SEM), not MCID. SEM is simply is the
amount of error that you can consider as measurement error.
3. This answer is talking about Minimal Detectable Change (MDC), not MCID. The difference
between MDC and MCID is that MDC is the smallest amount of change that is not due to SEM,
whereas MCID is the smallest amount of change the clinician or patient consider significant
enough to suggest improvement.
4. This is the correct answer because MCID represents the smallest amount of change (or
improvement) in a measurement that a clinician or patient would consider significant enough
to indicate improvement.
In manual muscle testing, muscles are given a grade of 3 (Fair) if the patient can take the muscle/muscle
group through a full range of motion against only the resistance of gravity. In MMT, reliability has been
measured “…among examiners and in successive tests with the same examiner, the results should be
within one half of a grade (or within a plus or minus of the base grade)).” In a study, reliability for this
grade was reported as ICC= 0.43. What does this measure tell us about the reliability of this grade?
a. The reliability of the grade is poor.
b. The reliability of the grade is fair.
c. The reliability of the grade is moderate.
d. The reliability of the grade is good.
Answer: A
Rationale:
a. This is correct. Per ICC classifications, reliability is poor for < 0.50
b. This is incorrect. There is no fair category in ICC classifications.
c. This is incorrect. Per ICC classifications, reliability is moderate for 0.51-0.75
d. This is incorrect. Per ICC classifications, reliability is good for > 0.75
A 13 year-old patient comes in with ankle pain. The physical therapist utilizes the Ottawa Ankle Rule
guidelines to determine whether the patient has a fracture. The test comes out negative. Knowing the
Ottawa Ankle Rules has a high specificity but a low sensitivity, the PT can…
a. Can confidently rule in but cannot rule out the condition
b. Cannot rule in but can confidently rule out the condition
c. Cannot rule in and cannot rule out the condition
d. Unable to determine given the results
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. To confidently rule in, the test must be positive and have a high specificity.
b. To confidently rule out, the test must be negative and have a high sensitivity.
c. Since the test does not have a high sensitivity, the PT cannot rule out the condition and since
the test was not positive the PT cannot rule in the condition.
d. There can be a decision made based on the results.
There are several checklists that are used in clinical trials to help researchers follow guidelines and help
others critically appraise research. Which checklist allows quantification of the quality of a research
design?
a. CONSORT
b. PEDro
c. PRIMSA
d. STARD
Answer: B
A study examined the five time sit to stand test (5STS) as a functional outcome measure for patients
with COPD. The results showed that the test-retest and inter-observer ICCs were 0.97 and 0.99,
respectively. The 5STS scores correlated significantly with other measures of function or impairment
such as the ISW, QMVC, SGRQ, ADO and iBODE (r=−0.59, −0.38, 0.35, 0.42 and 0.46, respectively; all
p<0.001). The MCID for the 5STS was determined to be 1.7 s in this population. Which of the following is
a correct interpretation of these results?
a. For each measure correlated to the 5STS, the risk of a Type I error is less than 1%
b. The smallest detectable change in measurements (not due to error) for the 5STS is 1.7s
c. The 5STS scores are more strongly correlated with scores of the SGRQ than the ISW
d. This test is considered to have good validity because the ICC scores are above 0.75
Answer: A
Rationale:
a. The p value describes the risk for a Type I error
b. This describes an MCD not the MCID for the test
c. An r of -0.59 shows a stronger correlation than 0.35 because +/- only describe the direction of
the linear relationship, not its strength.
d. ICC scores are a measure of reliability, not validity
A treatment effect is found to have moderate strength. What is a possible effect size?
a. 0.27
b. 0.44
c. 0.52
d. 0.86
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. Effect sizes between 0.2 and 0.5 are considered “small.”
b. Effect sizes between 0.2 and 0.5 are considered “small.”
c. Effect sizes between 0.5 and 0.8 are considered “moderate.”
d. Effect sizes above 0.8 are considered “strong.”
A study examined vegetarians and their frequency of ACL tears over two years. One of the participants
had a +LR of 3.57. A +LR of 3.57 indicated which of the following?
a. Strong probability of an ACL tear.
b. Moderated probability of an ACL tear.
c. Small probability of an ACL tear.
d. Very small probability of ACL tear.
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. For the answer to be a strong probability of having an ACL tear there would need to be a
positive likelihood ratio greater than 10.
b. For the answer to be a moderated probability of having an ACL tear there would need to be a
positive likelihood ratio between 5 and 10.
c. A small probability of having an ACL tear would mean the positive likelihood ratio would need to
be between 2 and 5. 3.57 fits this requirement and is the correct answer.
d. For the answer to be a very small probability of having an ACL tear there would need to be a
positive likelihood ratio between 1 and 2.
A new study looked at the effectiveness of aquatic therapy in treatment of knee and hip osteoarthritis.
In the study, the researchers determined an ARR=0.50 and an NNT=2 for the reduction of pain in the
aquatic therapy group. Based on this data, one could expect:
a. that 50% of the population in this study falls between the corresponding range of scores
b. to reduce knee pain in 1 out of 2 patients who participate in the aquatic therapy program
c. the absolute risk of knee pain was reduced by 20% for those that participated in the aquatic
therapy session
d. the patient to improve their knee pain after completing two sessions of aquatic therapy
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. This answer deals with the confidence interval, which was not stated in the question and would
most likely be much higher than .50
b. This is the correct answer. This follows the direct meaning of the numbers needed to treat and
what can be determined from that.
c. Absolute risk deals with this answer, but it should be 50% not the 20%
d. If the tester is not sure of what NNT measures, then seeing the number 2 may lead them to
think that it deals with number of sessions needed.
A 38-year-old male comes into your clinic following a cervical injury surgery, who is looking to return to
activity. Through the interview portion of your assessment, you discover he is a professional football
player for the Indianapolis Colts. During your test and measures portion you observe the client
achieving the highest measurements possible and at times exceeding the instruments available range.
What phenomenon do you note?
A. Basement effect
B. Ceiling effect
C. Floor effect
D. Positive likelihood ratio
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. Basement effect is synonymous with floor effect; therefore, measurement is reading at the
lower limit or not being registered.
b. The ceiling effect refers to when there is a limitation of measurement where the score is at the
top or near the top of the maximum for the tool or test used for measurement.
c. The floor effect refers to when the achieved measurement would read lower than the
instrument can record or near the lower limit of the instrument.
d. The positive likelihood ratio is how much more likely a pathology is present following a positive
test.
A physical therapist measured the ROM for a patient who was treated for a knee injury. The reliability
had an ICC of 0.67. What does this reliability value show of this particular measurement?
a. Estimates of reliability for measures of continuous data are not reported as ICCs.
b. Good chance of reproducibility.
c. Moderate chance of reproducibility.
d. Poor chance of reproducibility.
Answer: C
Rationale: a. This statement is false. Estimates of reliability for measures of continuous data are typically reported as intraclass correlation coefficients (ICCs), which range from 0-1. b. ICCs above 0.75 are considered a good chance of reproducibility. c. ICCs in-between 0.51-0.75 are a considered moderate chance of reproducibility. d. ICCs below 0.50 are considered a poor chance of reproducibility.
A baseball player comes in to your clinic and presents signs and symptoms of a rotator cuff tear. You
decide to use a disablement framework as a basis for this case and you chose the ICF model. Which of
the following would be a possible participation limitation?
a. Lack of a support group at home
b. MRI confirmed tear in the right supraspinatus tendon
c. Pitching in a baseball game
d. Reaching for an item in an overhead cabinet
Answer: C
Rationale:
a. This answer represents an environmental factor. These are factors that can affect one’s home,
work and attitudinal environment.
b. This answer represents the impaired body functions and structures. This section includes altered
physiologic and anatomic structures/ functions.
c. This is the correct answer. Participation limitations include performance of activities in a social
setting such as a sporting event.
d. This answer represents an activity limitation, which are similar to functional limitations.
Following the Center for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM). What study design is considered to be level 3
evidence?
a. Case series
b. Case control studies
c. Expert opinion and disease-oriented evidence
d. Prospective cohort studies
Answer: B
*** 1a = Systematic reviews of RCT's 1b = RCT's 2a = Systematic review of a Cohort study 2b = Cohort study 3 = Case-control study 4 = Case report / case series 5 = Expert opinion
During a study conducted upon collegiate soccer players, the positive likelihood ratio of a new screening
technique for medial menisci tears was determined to be 11.3. The negative likelihood ratio is 0.08.
What is the most accurate statement concerning this new technique?
e. It is highly indicative that the target condition exists when a positive test occurs.
f. It is a poor indicator that the target condition exists when a positive test occurs, due to its low
negative likelihood ratio.
g. It is a poor measurement because when the patient tests negative for the condition, it is often
an erroneous result and the person has been misinformed.
h. It is difficult to say because the details of the incidence of the condition were not disclosed.
Answers: e
Rationale: Option A is most correct because a positive likelihood ratio of over >10 means that a positive
test is strongly correlated with an increased probability that the target condition exists. Option B is
incorrect because the negative likelihood ratio applies to a situation in which the examination findings
are negative. Option C is incorrect because a low negative likelihood ratio (<0.1) means that a negative
finding can correctly rule out that the condition is present. Option D is incorrect because while
prevalence is important for determining likelihood ratios, incidence is not.
A soccer player has received a left hamstring strain during practice for the second time this year. Due to
the injury he will not be playing in the team’s championship game in two weeks. This is an example of
which of the following:
a. Injury Rate
b. Injury Risk
c. Prevalence of injury
d. Time loss injury
Answer: D
A Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) Curve examines the tradeoff between sensitivity and
specificity when you select different cutoff values for a specific test. If the area under the ROC curve has
an area of 1.00, what can be inferred from the test?
a. The test has one false positive and zero false negatives
b. The test has zero false positives and zero false negatives
c. The test is classified as good since the area under the curve is 1.00
d. The test is no better at identifying true positives than flipping a coin
Answer: B
Rationale:
a. If there was one false positive the area under the curve would not be 1.00
b. The area under the ROC curve is 1.00 and thus implies the test has a specificity and
sensitivity of 100%, meaning that there should be zero false positives and zero false
negatives
c. The test should be classified as excellent (.90-1.00), classification as good would mean the area
under the curve is between .80-.90
d. If the ROC curve had an area under the curve of 0.5 or less there would be no predictive value,
thus meaning the test is no better at identifying true positives than flipping a coin
A physical therapist wants to test a patients Lumbar Spine ROM and pain. He narrows down his test of
measurement to two movements; sidebending or rotation. Both movement can test the ROM and pain of
the lumbar spine. He knows that sidebending has a kappa statistic of .60 and rotation has a kappa statistic
of 0.17. These kappa statistics indicate which of the following?
a. Sidebending has a higher percent agreement than rotation.
b. The kappa statistic of sidebending is substantial and the kappa statistic of rotation is fair.
c. There is a 60% chance that sidebending will be a type 1 error.
d. There is a 17% disagreement for rotation and 60 % disagreement for sidebending to check lumbar
spine ROM and pain.
Answers: A
Rationale:
a. Sidebending has a higher kappa statistic than rotation, therefore making it have a higher
percent agreement.
b. The kappa statistic for substantial is .61-.80 and the kappa statistic for fair is .21-.40.
c. Kappa statistic does not calculate p-values and does not indicate chance of type 1 error.
d. Kappa statistic does not calculate disagreement rate.