Exam 2: HAI & Antibiotics Flashcards

(97 cards)

1
Q

What are hospital acquired infections? (nosocomial)

A

infections that happen in the hospital - they were not present and not incubating at the time of admission

S2

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2
Q

____ in ____ hospital patients develop a nosocomial infection

A

1 in 31 pts

S3

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3
Q

What are sources of hospital-acquired infections?

A
  • CVL sepsis
  • UTI 13%
  • Surgical ste infection 22%
  • Hospital acquired PNA 22%
  • Vent associated PNA (long term vent)
  • C-diff 12%

S4

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4
Q

Risk factors in developing a HAI?

A
  • Patient’s immune status
  • Infection control practices
  • Prevalence of certain pathogens in community
  • Older age
  • Longer hospital stays
  • Multiple chronic illnesses
  • Mechanical ventilatory support
  • Critical care unit stays

S5

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5
Q

How is the infection transmitted?

A
  • direct contact with healthcare workers
  • Contaminated environments
  • Extraluminal migration

what the HEC

S6

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6
Q

What are examples of contaminated environments that increase susceptibility to HAI’s?

A
  • Inguinal
  • Perineal
  • Axilla

Gloves dont prevent contamination

S6

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7
Q

What H&P symptoms suggest a pre-existing infection? (common sense)

A
  • Subjective fever
  • Chills
  • Night sweats
  • Altered mental status
  • Productive cough
  • Shortness of breath
  • Rebound tenderness
  • Suprapubic pain
  • Dysuria
  • CVA tenderness (costovertebral tenderness)
  • Vital Signs (HoTN, tachypnea, low sats, tachycardia)

S7

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8
Q

Labs that you can get to look for the evidence of organ dysfunction (duh)

A

Lactic acid
Prothrombin time
BUN/Creatinine
Elevated WBC
Hypo/hyperglycemia
Cultures

S9

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9
Q

What bacteria are your skin flora?

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococci

Lecture

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10
Q

Surgical site infections typically occur within ___ days of surgery.

A

30

S11

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11
Q

What are the categories for surgical site infection?

A
  • Superficial = skin & SC
  • Deep = fascia & muscle
  • Organ/Space

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12
Q

Signs of a Surgical Site infection

A

Redness
Delayed healing
Fever
Pain
Warmth
Swelling
Drainage of pus (abscess)

S13

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13
Q

What are the three most common types of bacteria associated with surgical site infections?

A
  • Staphylococcus
  • Streptococcus
  • Pseudomonas

S14

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14
Q

How would a Clean wound be described?

A

Clean: not inflamed or contaminated and does not involve internal organs

S15

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15
Q

How would a Clean-contaminated wound be described?

A

Clean-Contaminated: no outward signs of infection but does involve internal organs

S15

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16
Q

How would a contaminated wound be described?

A

Contaminated: involves internal organ infection along with spillage of contents into surrounding tissue
i.e. ruptured appendix

S15

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17
Q

How would a dirty wound be described?

A

Dirty: known infection at the time of surgery

S15

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18
Q

What are risks factors for SSI?

A
  • > 2hr surgery
  • Comorbidities (smoker, DM, cancer, obese, immunocompromised etc)
  • Elderly
  • Emergency surgery
  • Abdominal surgery

ACEE’S

S15

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19
Q

Potentially ___% of SSI’s are preventable.

A

50%

S16

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20
Q

What is a category 1A recommendation?

A

1A = Strongly recommended; moderate to high quality of evidence

S18

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21
Q

What is a category 1B recommendation?

A

1B = Strongly recommended; low quality evidence

S18

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22
Q

What is a category 1C recommendation?

A

1C = Strong recommendation based on state/federal regulation

S18

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23
Q

What is a category II recommendation?

A

Weak recommendation

S18

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24
Q

What exclusions were there to the Guideline for Prevention of SSI’s?

A
  • SSI not a reported outcome
  • All patients w/ “dirty procedures”
  • No dental or oral health procedures
  • Procedure did not have primary closure
  • Study included wound protectors post-incision

They eliminated studies where interventions were already in place that woulld skew the results

S19

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25
What are the recommendations for parenteral antibiotics?
1B - Administer only when indicated 1B - Time so that agent is active on tissue incision | S20
26
What are the recommendations for non-parenteral antibiotics?
1B - no antibiotic ointment on incision ***Dry incisions are better.*** | S21
27
What recommendations are there for antibiotic irrigation and prosthetic soaking in antibiotic solution?
**No recommendations** on prosthetic soaking in abx solution or abx irrigation *Dr M says you will still see abx irrigation but it wont hurt anythign* | S21
28
What are the 1A recommendation levels for glycemic control?
- Perioperative control of glucose - Target glucose < 200 mg/dL (both intraop and postop) | S22
29
What is the recommendation level for A1C targets?
No recommendation for A1C target Just acute control of BG. | S22
30
Maintaining perioperative normothermia is a ___ recommendation.
1A No rec for strategies to maintain normothermia - just use what you have to maintain temp) | S23
31
What is the 1A recommendation for oxygenation in GETA patients?
* No recommendation for increased FiO2 in normally functioning patients * Only increase the FiO2 with... * intraoperatively with GETA (i.e. not necessary in Preop with a normal pt) * Neuraxial anesthesia * Postoperatively by mask or nasal cannula * No trials r/t percentage/duration/delivery method *Recommendation is losing credibility as a way to prevent SSI's - contradictory (Dr. Schaffer's research)*. | S24
32
What are the recommendations for antiseptic prophylaxis?
1A - Intraoperative skin prep w/ alcohol-based antiseptic. 1B - Shower or bathe w/ soap/antiseptic the night before surgery. II - Consider intraoperative Iodine irrigation. * No benefit intra-peritoneally, * No benefit with iodine imbedded adhesive drapes * No benefit soaking prosthetic devices | S25
33
What is the recommendation for blood transfusion?
1B - Do not withhold necessary blood transfusions as a means to prevent SSI. | S26
34
Should systemic corticosteroids be utilized in a patient with joint arthroplasty?
Uncertain. Infection is most common indication for TKA revision however. | S27
35
What does MIC stand for?
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration
36
What is the goal for preoperative prophylaxis?
* Adequate bactericidal concentration in serum and tissues when incision is made… * MIC: Minimum inhibitory concentration within tissues * Based on evidence * Given by anesthesia | S29 ## Footnote **ancef is 15 min prior to incision - if given an hour before, must redose **most antibiotics need to be completed within 15 minutes of surgery and intiated under an hour. This is 45 minutes of "working time"
37
What are the 6 general principles of preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis?
1. Should be active against *common* SSI pathogens 2. Proven efficacy by clinical trials 3. MIC must be achieved 4. Shortest possible effective course 5. New ABX reserved for resistant infections 6. If possible, use oldest/cheapest ABX Active Ethyl Must Shortlist New Old-people | S30
38
ABX should be initiated within ____ hour of incision.
1 hour (30 min even better) | S31
39
____ and ____ can be initiated within 2 hours of incision.
Vancomycin and Fluoroquinolones (like Cipro) | S31
40
Status of abx prior to trouniquet use?
ABX must be completely infused prior to tourniquet use * may hold abx for cultures | S31
41
Re-dosing of antibiotics is permissible after what conditions?
- 2 ABX half-lives - Excessive blood loss - Following Cardiac bypass - Prolonged procedures (usually 2-4 hours in OR) Phil Follows Blood Too (2 but yea...) | S32
42
What drugs are β-lactam based?
- Penicillins - Cephalosporins - Carbapenems | S33
43
What are the 5 major common surgical antibiotics?
- β-lactams - Vancomycin - Aminoglycosides (gentamycin) - Fluoroquinolones (cipro) - Metronidazole (flagyl) | S33
44
How do Penicillin β-lactam antibiotics work?
Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis | S34
45
Resistance to Penicillin β-lactam antibiotics is based on what?
β-lactamase enzyme on outer surface of cytoplasmic membrane | S34
46
Penicillin β-lactams are the drug of choice for what pathogens?
Gram + Bacterium (Cocci) - Streptococci - Meningococci - Pneumococci + about PMS | S34
47
β-lactams are good for which HAI's? | Locations throughout body
skin, catheter, and upper respiratory infections | S34
48
What four examples of penicillin based antibiotics were given?
- Penicillin G - Methicillin - Nafcillin - Amoxicillin | S34
49
What are the common adverse reactions to penicillin β-lactams?
- Hypersensitivity (includes anaphylaxis at 0.05%) - GI upset with large doses - Vaginal Candidiasis | S35
50
Cephalosporin - β-lactams are more stable against ____.
β-lactamases (broader spectrum) | S36
51
MOA for cephalosporin-beta lactams
Beta-lactam rings bind to Penicillin-binding protein and inhibit the normal activity of the protein (can’t synthesize a bacterial cell wall) | S36
52
Cephalosporin β-lactam antibiotics are the drug of choice for what?
- Surgical prophylaxis - PCN allergy patients (except true anaphylaxis) | S36 ## Footnote can give a test dose of ancef because 99.9% of the time these reactions aren't anaphylactic
53
Cefazolin is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____ and ____ and best at treating?
* 1st generation * Ancef, Kefzol * Does not penetrate BBB, Most gram + (staph and streptococci), **Cellulitis, abscesses, URI, UTI** | S37
54
Cefuroxime is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____ and ____ and best at treating?
* 2nd generation * ceffin, Zinacef * Better gram – coverage **H-influenzae pneumonia, UTI, otitis media** | S37
55
Cefoxitin is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____ and ____.
* 2nd generation * Metoxin | S37
56
Cefotetan is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____ and ____ .
* 2nd generation * Cefotan | S37
57
Cefotaxime is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____ and ____ and best at treating?
* 3rd generation * Claforan * Some cross BBB, Better gram – than before; treats resistance **Meningitis** | S37
58
Ceftriaxone is generation ____ with trade name ____ and best at treating?
* 3rd generation * Rocephin * Gonorrhea | S37
59
Ceftazidime is generation ____ with trade name(s) ____.
* 3rd generation * Fortaz | S37
60
Cefepime is generation ____ with trade name ____ and best at treating?
* 4th generation * Maxipime * Most resistant to hydrolysis by beta lactamases, Usually reserved for multi-resistant organisms Penetrates BBB well | S37
61
What cephalosporins do not penetrate the blood brain barrier?
Generation 1: Cefazolin Generation 2: Cefuroxime, Cefoxitin, Cefotetan Zol, Rox, Fox, Tetan | S37
62
What generation of cephalosporins penetrate the blood brain barrier well (the best)?
Generation 4: Cefepime (Maxipime) *Most resistant to β-lactamase*. *Reserved for multi-resistant organisms*. | S37
63
Adverse reactions to cephalosporins
Hypersensativity is uncommon * rashes * fever * nephritis * anaphylaxis * potential production deficit of Vit K (be aware with clotting disorders) | S38
64
What drugs should be used if true anaphylaxis to penicillin exists?
Vancomycin or clindamycin | S38
65
What drugs are a common cause of colitis?
3rd generation cephalosporins | S38
66
Carbapenem β-lactams have good activity against ____ and ____.
Gram - rods (Pseudomonas Aeruginosa) and enterobacter | S39
67
What β-lactam drug class has the broadest spectrum of activity and can inhibit the β-lactamase enzyme? MOA?
Carbapenems * inhibit the beta-lactamase enzyme and binds to penicillin-binding protein | S39
68
What type of infections are carbapenems saved for?
Intra-abdominal, resistant UTIs, and pneumonia *most penetrate BBB* | S39
69
What examples of carbapenems were given?
- Ertapenem (Invanz) - Meropenem (Merrem) - Imipenem (Primaxin)
70
IM formulations of carbapenems contain ____.
Lidocaine *Consider LA allergies prior to IM administration*. | S40
71
Carbapenems can decrease what medication by up to 90%? What can this precipitate?
Valproic Acid (Depakote); and can precipitate seizures | S40
72
How does vancomycin work?
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis | S41
73
Vancomycin is active against ____ bacteria but is too large to penetrate ____ bacteria.
Active against gram + too large for gram - bacteria *Vanco only works if the bacteria is actively dividing* | S41
74
Vancomycin is most useful against what infections?
Blood stream MRSA MRSA endocarditis | S41
75
What are the most common adverse reactions to vancomycin?
- Phlebitis at site - Chills, fever - Nephrotoxicity - "Red man" syndrome from quick administration | S42
76
How do Aminoglycosides work?
Inhibition of ribosomal proteins and cause mRNA misreading | S43
77
Aminoglycosides have a ____ post-antibiotic effect.
prolonged (long 1/2 life) | S43
78
Aminoglycosides are ____ w/ β lactams or vancomycin.
Synergistic *Especially useful for enterococcal endocarditis*. | S43 ## Footnote Gentamycin example
79
What are the adverse reactions associated with gentamycin?
- Ototoxicity - Nephrotoxicity: (more than 5 days, elderly, renal insufficiency, high doses and with loop diuretics) - Curare-like affect | S44
80
Explain the curare-like effect of gentamycin (aminoglycoside).
Gentamycin can interfere with ACh receptors and potentiate effects of NMB drugs. (seen more with depolarizing NMB) | S45
81
What is the treatment for curare-like effects from gentamycin?
Ca⁺⁺ | Lecture
82
How do fluoroquinolones work?
Inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis | S45
83
Fluoroquinolones are best used for what type of bacteria? used on?
Gram - organisms: - UTI - Bacterial diarrhea - Bone/joint infections | S45
84
What examples are there of fluoroquinolones?
- Ciprofloxacin - Levofloxacin | S45
85
What are the adverse reactions for fluoroquinolones?
- N/V/D - QT interval prolongation - Cartilage damage / Tendon rupture | S46 ## Footnote Hint: fluroquinolones treat joint infections and diarrhea
86
What three factors will exacerbate cartilage damage and tendon rupture associated with fluoroquinolones?
- Renal insufficiency - Concurrent steroids - Advanced age | S46
87
What type of antibiotic is metronidazole?
Antiprotozoal / Anaerobic antibacterial | S47
88
How does Metronidazole work?
Forms toxic byproducts that destabilize bacterial DNA. | S47
89
What is metronidazole (flagyl) indicated for?
- Intra-abdominal infections - Vaginitis - C-diff | S47
90
What drug should Flagyl not be combined with?
EtOH Disulfiram-like effect induces hangover-like s/s (flushing, dizziness, HA, CP, abd pain) | S48
91
What are the adverse reactions associated with metronidazole?
- Nausea - Peripheral neuropathy (w/ prolonged use) - Disulfiram-like effect | S48
92
What is (essentially) the first line antibiotic for essentially all surgical prophylaxis?
Cefazolin (Ancef) | S49
93
What is the most common alternative to cefazolin for surgical prophylaxis?
Clindamycin (or vancomycin) | S49
94
What drug(s) increases the likelihood of nephrotoxicity when paired with aminoglycosides?
Loop Diuretics | S44
95
With small intenstinal obstruction, what are the recommended antibiotics?
cefazolin + metronidazole, cefoxitin or cefotetan | S49
96
With Small intestine cocorectal surgery, what antibiotics are recommended?
Cefazolin + metronidaxole, cefoxitin, cefotetan, ampicillin-sulbactam or ceftriaxone + metronidazole or ertapenem | S49
97
Adult dosing for cefazolin
* 1g /= 120kg | S50