Exam 2 Material Flashcards

1
Q

The endocrine system provides ____ of many tissues

A

broadcast regulation

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2
Q

The specificity of the endocrine system is due to:

A

receptors

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3
Q

Compared to the nervous system, the responses of the endocrine system are:

A

slower but longer lasting

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4
Q

List the 3 functions of hormones:

A
  1. maintenance of homeostasis
  2. growth and differentiation
  3. reproduction
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5
Q

Endocrine organs can be divided into what two categories?

A
  1. major endocrine glands
  2. organs w/ endocrine cells
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6
Q

Primary function is to make a hormone and release it when the stimuli are present

A

major endocrine organ

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7
Q

organs that happen to have endocrine cells allowing them to release a hormone although their primary fxn is NOT endocrine regulation

A

organs containing endocrine cells

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8
Q

List specialized endocrine glands (major endocrine organs)

A
  1. parathyroid gland
  2. thyroid gland
  3. pituitary gland
  4. adrenal gland
  5. pineal gland
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9
Q

List some organs that contain endocrine cells but their primary function is not endocrine regulation:

A
  1. hypothalamus
  2. skin
  3. adipose tissue
  4. thymus
  5. heart
  6. liver
  7. stomach
  8. pancreas
  9. small intestine
  10. kidneys
  11. gonads
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10
Q

A hormone that causes secretion of a hormone by an endocrine gland:

A

tropic hormone

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11
Q

How do we classify hormones?

A

based on their structure

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12
Q

What are the 3 classifications of hormones?

A
  1. proteins or polypeptides
  2. steroids
  3. tyrosine derivatives
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13
Q

Describe the time period in which protein and polypeptide hormones are made and released:

A

made in advance and stored in vesicles until signal for release

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14
Q

Protein and polypeptide hormones are synthesized first as ____.

A

Preprohormone

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15
Q

The preprohormone will be converted into:

A

prohormone

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16
Q

In protein and polypeptide hormones what is packed into vesicles of the endocrine cell prior secretion?

A

prohormone

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17
Q

After the prohormone gets cleaved, it is now:

A

active hormone

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18
Q

Mnemonic for protein and polypeptide hormones:

A

Protein/Polypeptide/Pre & Pro hormones (Everything with P’s)

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19
Q

in addition to the active hormone, what gets released in when the prohormone gets cleaved?

A

inactive fragment

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20
Q

What is the first thing that gets cleaved from preproinsulin?

A

signal peptide

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21
Q

After the signal peptide is cleaved from preproinsulin, what occurs?

A

protein folding

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22
Q

Following cleavage of the signal peptide from preproinsulin and protein folding, what results:

A

Proinsulin

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23
Q

Proinsulin gets stored in:

A

vesicles

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24
Q

Upon receiving a a signal for release into the bloodstream, what gets cleaved from proinsulin to convert to active insulin?

A

C-peptide

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25
Along with insulin release into the bloodstream, what also gets released?
C-peptide
26
If you wanted to measure someones baseline endogenous production and release of insulin, you could measure the:
c-peptide levels in the blood stream
27
protein and polypeptide hormones are often made as an:
inactive precurser
28
The inactive precursor of protein and polypeptide hormones:
preprohormone
29
What does the signal peptide in insulin serve as?
A marker that tells the cell that insulin needs to undergo exocytosis
30
Where are the receptors located for protein/polypeptide hormones?
In the plasma membrane
31
Describe the time period in which steroid hormones are made and released:
Made and released on demand
32
Where are the receptors located for steroid hormones?
Inside the cell
33
Why are steroid hormone receptors located inside the cell?
steroid hormones can cross the plasma membrane and bind to receptors inside target cells
34
Hormones from the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, and pancreas:
protein and polypeptide hormones
35
Hormones from the adrenal cortex, ovaries and testes:
steroid
36
Steroid hormones are synthesized from (derivatives of):
cholesterol
37
What are two hormones that are derived from cholesterol that are STRUCTURALLY very similar?
Aldosterone & Cortisol
38
DHEA, Androstenedione, testosterone, and estradiol are all steroid hormones involved in:
reproduction
39
What determines what steroid hormone will be produced from the precursor cholesterol?
compliment of enzymes present
40
Describe the time period in which amine hormones are made and released:
made early and stored until secreted
41
Amine hormones are derived from:
amino acid tyrosine
42
Thyroid hormone, Noepinephrine and Epinephrine are all:
amine hormones
43
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are both:
adrenal medullary neurohormones
44
Thyroid hormone binds to the protein:
thyroglobulin
45
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are stored in vesicles and released via:
exocytosis
46
structurally what is the difference between T3 and T4?
the # of Iodide atoms attached
47
What is a precursor to epinephrine and norepinephrine?
Dopamine
48
Hormones released into circulation can either circulate ____ or ____.
Freely or with binding proteins
49
The majority of ____, ____, and _____ hormones circulate in their free form.
amines, peptides and proteins
50
What is the exception to most amines circulating in their free form? Why?
Thyroid hormones because its double ring structure makes it soluble enough to where it needs help getting through the plasma
51
Describe the solubility of amines, peptides/protein hormones:
water soluble
52
_____ & _____ circulate bound to specific transport proteins
steroid and thyroid hormones
53
Some binding proteins are specific for a given hormone but some plasma proteins such as ____ & ____ can bind to many hormones
globulin & albumin
54
What is a shuttle bus found in the plasma (plasma protein) that transports a lot of things such as lipid soluble hormones and fatty acids:
albumin
55
Most binding proteins are synthesized in the:
liver
56
Patients with a compromised liver may show signs of:
endocrine deficiencies
57
Why might a patient with a comprised liver show endocrine deficiencies?
Because most binding proteins are synthesized in the liver and if you can't make enough binding proteins you can't get enough hormone into the blood
58
It is always the ____ version of the hormone that binds to the receptors and affect the target cell.
Free version (binding protein stays in blood vessel)
59
The constitutive level of plasma hormones
basal level
60
The stimulated level of plasma hormones
peak levels
61
The variable patterns of hormone release (oscillation) is determined by the interaction and integration of multiple control mechanisms which include: (4)
hormonal, neural, nutritional, and environmental
62
When a hormone is constantly secreted in small amounts all of the time:
tonic release
63
Hormone fluctuations that happen dependent on the time of day:
circadian rhythm
64
Give an example of a hormone that follows circadian rhythm release:
cortisol
65
When does cortisol spike?
early morning hours
66
What can work in addition to circadian rhythm release to regulate the release of hormones?
stimuli
67
Growth hormone is secreted during sleep following a circadian rhythm release pattern but also displays:
pulsatile secretion
68
Secreted in pulses (secretes, stops, secretes, stops)
pulsatile secretions
69
The location of the hormone receptor depends on the ____ properties of the hormone
chemical
70
The chemical properties of the hormone that determine the location of the hormone receptor:
lipophilic/lipophobic
71
Ligand/receptor binding demonstrates:
1. specificity 2. affinity 3. saturation
72
Which classes of hormones bind to plasma membrane receptors?
polypeptide/protein and amine hormones
73
What amine hormone does not bind to plasma membrane receptors (exception)
thyroid hormone
74
Which class of hormones binds to nuclear receptors?
steroids hormones + thyroid hormone
75
which amine hormones bind to plasma membrane receptors?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
76
What type of receptors would the following hormones bind to and why? Glucagon Angiotensin GnRH SS GHRH FSH TSH ACTH
Plasma membrane receptor - they are peptide and protein hormones
77
In general, many of the receptors that protein/peptide hormones and amine hormones bind to in the PM are:
GPCR
78
Involved in turning on or off a protein that is already in the cell
plasma membrane receptors
79
What class of hormone receptors are involved in causing a change in gene expression to get a biological response
nuclear receptors
80
Class of hormone receptors involved in making new proteins
nuclear receptors
81
Thyroid hormone and steroid hormones bind to receptors in the:
cytoplasm or nucleus
82
once the steroid hormone or thyroid hormone binds to the receptor located in the nucleus or cytoplasm what occurs next?
transformation of receptor to expose DNA-binding domain
83
Following binding of the steroid or thyroid hormone to the receptor and transformation of the receptor to expose the DNA binding domain, what next occurs?
Binding to enhancer like element in DNA
84
Examples of plasma membrane hormone receptors:
1. g-protein coupled receptor 2. tyrosine kinase
85
Why do plasma membrane hormone receptor numbers vary greatly in different target tissues?
this provides a way to achieve specific tissue activation
86
What are two examples of plasma membrane hormone receptors that are more widely distributed?
1. thyroid hormone receptors 2. insulin receptors
87
Why are thyroid hormone receptors and insulin receptors more widely distributed?
Because there actions are something that most cells participate in
88
How do IGF-1 and insulin work?
By activating a tyrosine kinase receptor
89
If it is a plasma membrane receptor, generally it will activate or inhibit _____ to _____.
an existing protein to yield a faster response
90
Where are nuclear hormone receptors located?
cytoplasm or nucleus
91
Nuclear hormone receptors typically leads to:
formation of new proteins
92
Nuclear hormone receptors all act to:
increase or decrease gene expression
93
In a nuclear hormone receptor, the hormone receptor complex binds to a _______, in the _____ region of the gene which leads to either activation or repression of _____.
hormone responsive element; promotor region; gene trasncription
94
Because nuclear hormone receptors binding a hormone leads to the formation of a new protein, describe the timeline involved:
It takes a little bit longer to get the response and the response will last a bit longer
95
Hormones that bind to nuclear receptors (thyroid hormone & steroid hormones) undergo _____ to get through the plasma membrane
simple diffusion
96
The body often releases multiple hormones...
at the same time
97
What are the effects of combined hormone actions? (4)
1. antagonism 2. additive 3. synergistic 5. permissiveness
98
When two hormones change one variable in opposite directions:
antagonism
99
When the response of a hormone is equal to the two portions that each hormone provides (2+3=5)
additive
100
Ramps of up the systems response when there is a present of more than one hormone- the combined response is greater than each would give individually (2+3=10)
synergistic
101
The presence of one hormone is necessary for another hormone's maximum effect:
permissiveness
102
Determine which hormone interaction is being described: Parathyroid increases plasma calcium levels; calcitonin decreases plasma calcium levels:
antagonistic
103
Determine which hormone interaction is being described: Glucagon, cortisol and epinephrine all increase blood glucose more than the sum of their individual effects:
synergistic
104
Determine which hormone interaction is being described: Thyroid hormone causes expression of B adrenergic receptors in bronchiolar smooth muscle:
permissiveness
105
What determines whether the negative feedback will be short loop or long loop?
The location of the hormone that acts as negative feedback in the system
106
When the last hormone in the pathway inhibits the system upstream:
long loops negative feedback
107
When an intermediate hormone in the pathway inhibits the system upstream:
short loop negative feedback
108
Feedback where the hormonal product or an intermediate hormone enhances the hormone secretion
positive feedback
109
Causes an endocrine gland to secrete a hormone:
tropic hormone
110
Stabilizes the system and prevents oversecretion:
negative feedback
111
Hormones that have other endocrine glands as their targets:
tropic hormones
112
A tropic hormone that from the hypothalamus that acts on the anterior pituitary to release TSH:
TRH
113
TRH comes from
Hypothalamus
114
TRH acts on the:
anterior pituitary
115
TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is released from the:
anterior pituitary
116
TSH is release from the anterior and acts on the:
thyroid gland
117
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: A stimulation causes the hypothalamus to secrete _____ which acts on ____.
thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH); anterior pituitary
118
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: ______ cells in the anterior pituitary release _____.
thyrotropic cells; thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
119
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: TSH stimulates _____cells of the thyroid gland to release ______
follicular cells; thyroid hormone
120
Thyroid hormone produces effects in the body that include:
1. increase in metabolic activity 2. Increase in body temperature
121
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: Thyroid stimulates target cells to increase _____ activities, resulting in an increase in basal body temperature
metabolic activities
122
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: Increased body temperature is detected by the hypothalamus and the secretion of ____ by the hypothalamus is ____.
TRH; inhibited
123
In the regulation of thyroid hormone: Thyroid hormone also blocks TRH receptors on thyrotropic cell, inhibiting synthesis and release of ____. Both effects indirectly dampen ____ production in the thyroid.
TSH; TH
124
Thyroid hormone working to negatively feedback is an example of:
long loop negative feedback
125
If hormone levels are NOT kept in balance via negative feedback mechanisms, what occurs?
endocrine disorders/ pathologies
126
Enlargement of the thyroid due to increased of decreased thyroid hormone levels:
thyroid goiter
127
Disease characterized by increased cortisol levels:
Cushing's Disease
128
Abnormality in the last endocrine organ secreting the hormone leading to either hypo- or hyper-secretion:
primary endocrine disorder
129
List the causes of primary hyposecretion:
1. partial destruction of the gland 2. dietary deficiency 3. Enzyme deficiency required for hormone synthesis
130
List the causes of primary hypersecretion:
endocrine gland tumor
131
Abnormality in tropic hormone leading to either hypo- or hyper-secretion
secondary endocrine disorder
132
List the causes of secondary hypersecretion:
A lack of sufficient tropic hormone
133
List the causes of secondary hypersecretion:
A tumor (either in an endocrine gland that secretes tropic hormones or in a non-endocrine tissue that secretes hormones)
134
When you see an endocrine hormone disturbance as a result of cancer:
paraneoplastic endocrine syndrome
135
When you think of primary endocrine dysfunction, you should think:
LAST GLAND IN PATHWAY
136
Type of diagnostic endocrine function test in which you give something to make hormone levels go up to see if the hormone levels actually go up: Type of diagnostic endocrine function test in which you give something to inhibit the hormone levels in question and look to see if that actually works:
stimulation test supression test
137
Suppression test would be used to detect what type of endocrine dysfunction?
hyperfunction
138
List the types of diagnostic test of endocrine function: (7)
1. Plasma hormone levels 2. Autoantibodies 3. Urine hormone/ hormone metabolite levels 4. Stimulation tests by admin of topic or stimulating hormone 5. Suppression when hyperfunction of endocrine organ is suspected 6. Measurement of hormone receptor presence, number and affinity 7. Imaging
139
Stimulation test work by administering a ____ hormone.
tropic or stimulating
140
An example of measuring hormone receptor presence as an endocrine diagnostic function test:
estrogen receptors in breast tumors
141
What autoantibodies might be tested when doing diagnostic tests of endocrine function?
1. Hashimoto thyroiditis 2. Type I DM 3. Graves Disease 4. Addison disease 5. Autoimmune hypothyroidism
142
Glucagon, angiotensin, Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH), Somatostatin (SS), Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), Lutenizing hormone (LH), Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), Adrenocorticoptropin hormone (ACTH) are all _____ hormones. When are they made?
polypeptide/protein hormone made in advance & stored
143
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are both ____ hormones. When are they made?
amine hormones made in advance and stored
144
Thyroid hormone is a ____ hormone. When is it made?
EXCEPTION: amine hormone made in advance and stored (does bind to nuclear receptor though)
145
Aldosterone, Crotisole, Estradiol and testosterone (mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens) are all _____ hormones. When are they made?
steroid hormones made on demand
146
List things that would cause stimulation of growth hormone release
growth hormone releasing hormone, dopamine, catecholamines (in times of stress and exercise), excitatory amino acids, thyroid , fasting (hypoglycemia)
147
List things that would cause inhibition of growth hormone release
Somatostatin (SS), IGF-1 (due to negative feedback), Glucose (at high levels- hyperglycemia), and free fatty acids
148
GHRH, Dopamine, Catecholamines, Excitatory amino acids, and thyroid hormone would cause _____ of growth hormone release:
stimulation
149
Somatostatin, IGF-1, Glucose, and FFA would cause ____ of growth hormone release:
inhibition
150
portion of the pituitary that is truly filled with endocrine cells- a true endocrine gland:
Adenohypophysis
151
adenohypophysis is referring to what portion of the pituitary gland?
anterior pituitary
152
portion of the pituitary that contains axons terminals of hypothalamic neurons:
Neurohypophysis
153
Neurohypophysis is referring to what portion of the pituitary gland?
posterior pituitary
154
The pituitary gland is located in the _____ ventral to the ____.
sella turcica; diaphragma sella
155
List the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary: (6)
1. FSH 2. LH 3. Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) 4. TSH 5. Prolactin 6. Growth hormone
156
List the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary:
1. antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin (ADH) 2. oxytocin
157
The pituitary gland secretes _____ hormones:
peptide
158
What are the most prevalent cells in the anterior pituitary and what do they secrete?
somatotrophs; GH
159
What percentage of cells do somatotrophs comprise in the anterior pituitary?
30-40%
160
What is the second most prevalent type of cell in the anterior pituitary and what do they secrete?
Corticotrophs; ACTH
161
What percentage of cells do corticotrophs comprise in the anterior pituitary?
20%
162
Aside from corticotrophs and somatotrophs what other types of cells make up the anterior pituitary and what do they secrete?
Thyrotrophs-TSH Gonadotrophs- LH & FSH Mammotrophs- prolactin
163
Adenomas involving somatotropic cells can cause ____ if occurring in children before closure of the long bones epiphyseal plates or _____ in adults with musculoskeletal, neurologic, and other medical consequences.
gigantism; acromegaly
164
Benign tumors of epithelial cells that make hormones:
Adenoma
165
Endocrine cells are derived from:
epithelial cells
166
If a benign tumor is involved in somatotropic cells, this would cause over secretion of:
growth hormone
167
Majority of cells in the anterior pituitary are devoted to making ____ & ____.
GH & ACTH
168
Neurons in the hypothalamus synthesize and secrete _______ hormones that control endocrine cells in the ____.
hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting; anterior pituitary
169
The hypothalamic hormones are released into the ____ in the ____ (in the hypothalamus)
primary capillary plexus; median eminence
170
responsible for carrying the hypothalamic hormones to the sinuses of the anterior pituitary:
hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal blood vessels
171
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal blood vessels carry the hypothalamic hormones to the ____ of the anterior pituitary
sinuses
172
Regulation of Anterior Pituitary Secretion 1. the _____ releases hormones that enter into the blood 2. the hormones travel through the _____. 3. the hormones continue down through the capillary bed to the ____ where they can leave the blood and regulate the activity of endocrine cells
1. hypothalamus 2. primary capillary plexus 3. sinus
173
Two capillary beds in series
portal system
174
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal vessel is comprised of:
primary capillary plexus+ sinus
175
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal vessel allows for:
communication from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary
176
Where do releasing hormones come from?
hypothalamus
177
Where do stimulating hormones come from?
anterior pituitary
178
The hypothalamic regulatory hormones bind to _____ in the various endocrine cells of the anterior pituitary
G-protein coupled receptors
179
Following the binding of the hypothalamic hormones to the g-protein coupled receptors in the anterior pituitary, what will stimulate or inhibit anterior pituitary hormone secretion?
second messengers (examples= cAMP via adenylate cyclase, IP3, and DAG vis phospholipase C)
180
Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH)=
somatostatin
181
Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)=
Dopamine
182
Growth hormone is secreted by somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary. The releasing hormone (secreted by hypothalamus) would be ______ (GAS),while the inhibiting hormones would be _____ (BRAKES)
GHRH; GHIH
183
GH, a peptide hormone acts ____ on target tissues and as a ______ to the liver.
directly; tropic hormone
184
GH; a peptide hormones acts directly on target tissues and as a tropic hormone to the ____ which releases ____.
Liver; IGF-1
185
In what situation might growth hormone significantly increase and quickly?
prolonged starvation/fasting
186
Growth hormone acts tropically in the liver to activate ____, a cell signaling pathway that causes release of _____.
JAK-STAT; IGF-1
187
A cell signaling pathway in the liver activated by growth hormone that responds by release of IGF-1
JAK-STAT
188
What are some target tissues of growth hormone? (6)
1. liver 2. chondrocytes 3. muscle cells 4. adipose cells 5. anterior pituitary (short loop negative feedback) 6. hypothalamus (long loop negative feedback)
189
If GH acts on chondrocytes, what are some effects?
1. increased amino acid uptake 2. increased protein synthesis
190
GH acting on chondrocytes to increase amino acid uptake as well as protein synthesis is ultimately necessary for:
linear growth
191
In addition to GH acting on chondrocytes being necessary for linear growth, what is also necessary for linear growth?
IGF-1
192
GH can act on muscles to :
increase protein synthesis
193
In addition to growth hormone acting on muscles to increase protein synthesis what is also necessary for protein synthesis?
IGF-1
194
In excess, how does growth hormone affect adipose tissue?
anti-insulin action
195
What are two locations of negative feed back of the growth hormone?
1. directly feeding back to anterior pituitary (short loop) 2. feeding back to hypothalamus (long loop)
196
If negative feedback via growth hormone occurs on the hypothalamus, what hormone may be released?
Somatostatin
197
Describe the secretion of growth hormone:
pulsatile secretion; lower concentration during day with highest levels a few hours after sleep
198
When is the GH secreted at the highest levels?
a few hours after sleep
199
Growth hormone secretion can be stimulated by: (5)
1. starvation (protein deficiency) 2. fasting (hypoglycemia) 3. acute stress 4. exercise 5. excitement
200
The secretion of GH during neonatal period: The secretion of GH during childhood: The secretion of GH during puberty: The secretion of GH during adulthood:
1. high secretion 2. decreased secretion 3. peak levels of secretion 4. decreased secretion with age
201
Stimulation of GH release (5):
1. GHRH 2. Dopamine 3. Catecholamines 4. Excitatory amino acids 5. Thyroid hormone
202
Inhibition of GH release (4):
1. Somatostatin 2. IGF-1 (due to negative feedback) 3. High glucose levels 4. FFA (High levels of free fatty acids)
203
Many of the growth and metabolic effects of GH are mainly produced by:
IGFs
204
IGFs can also be called:
somatomedins
205
IGF-1 is produced in most tissues and acts on neighboring cells in a _____ manner.
paracrine
206
The major site of IGF-1 synthesis:
liver
207
How many IGF binding proteins are there?
6
208
_____ in adults is one of the main growth promoting insulin-like growth factors
IGF-1
209
Osteocytes responding to mechanical sensors can release:
IGF-1
210
Osteocytes responding to ______ can release IGF-1
mechanical sensors
211
After osteocytes release IGF-1 what happens?
IGF-1 binds to receptors on osteoblasts to enhance bone formation
212
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: Growth in nearly all tissues of the body, mainly IGF-1 occurs through what mechanisms?
1. increased cell size 2. mitosis 3. differentiation of bone and muscle cells
213
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: What is the overall outcome of the effects of GH and IGF-1 causing growth in nearly all tissues of the body?
1. increased organ size 2. increased organ function 3. increased linear growth
214
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: The effect of amino acid uptake protein synthesis in most cells results in:
increased lean body mass
215
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: How does this effect glucose?
reduced glucose utilization
216
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: Reduced glucose utilization is due to:
1. decreased uptake 2. increased hepatic glucose production 3. increased insulin secretion
217
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: The reduced glucose utilization can lead to:
insulin resistance ; diabetogenic
218
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: Describe the effects on fatty acids:
mobilization of fatty acids from adipose tissue (lipolysis)
219
Mobilization of fatty acids from adipose tissues:
lipolysis
220
Mechanisms of action of GH and IGF-1: Lipolysis results in:
increases FFA in blood and use of FFA for energy
221
Before fusion of the epiphyseal plates, GH and IGF-1 stimulate:
chondrogenesis and widening of the epiphyseal plates
222
Following GH and and IGF-1 stimulating chorndrogenesis and widening of the epiphyseal plates, what occurs?
Bone matrix deposition stimulating linear growth
223
In adults, GH and IGF-1 play a role in regulating the normal physiology of:
bone formation
224
In adult, how do GH and IGF-1 play a role in regulating the normal physiology of bone formation?
by increasing bone turnover
225
How do GH and IGF-1 stimulate the increase in bone turnover (there by regulating bone formation)
1. activation of osteoblasts (MAINLY) 2. increasing bone resorption via osteoclasts (lesser extent)
226
Kids: GH and IGF-1 = Adults: GH and IGF-1=
chondrogenesis increased bone turnover
227
Osteoblasts are of what origin?
mesenchymal precursers
228
What is responsible for the formation of active osteoblasts from the osteoblast precursor?
IGF-1
229
Gigantism occurs in _____; while acromegaly occurs in ____.
children; adults
230
Excess growth hormone in children leading to gigantism is typically caused by:
pituitary tumor (90%)
231
What areas are commonly involved with pituitary tumors that give rise to gigantism?
sella and cavernous sinus
232
Tumor causing excessive growth hormone release:
somatotropic adenoma of the pituitary
233
Describe the facial features associated with Gigantism/acromegaly: (4)
Coarse facial features, large fleshy nose, frontal bossing, jaw malocclusion
234
Coarse facial features, large fleshy nose, frontal bossing, and jaw malocclusion are collectively referred to as:
acromegalic faces
235
What issue with the thyroid may occur with gigantism/acromegaly
goiter
236
Describe the potential affects on the heart and what conditions may occur as a result due to gigantism/acromegaly:
cardiomegaly; hypertension and coronary heart disease
237
Describe the chest and spine in individuals affected by acromegaly/gigantism:
barrel chest and kyphosis and hyperostosis
238
The abnormal glucose tolerance and secondary insulin resistance in an acromegaly/gigantism individual may result in:
diabetes mellitus
239
Growth hormone shifts the body from utilizing ______ to _____ for metabolisms:
carbs to fats
240
Describe the reproductive consequences of gigantism/acromegaly:
male sexual dysfunction and menstrual disorders
241
Describe what can occur due to the thickened skin and hypertrophy of sebaceous and sweat glands in gigantism and acromegaly:
Hyperhidrosis and oily skin
242
Hyperhidrosis and oily skin in acromegaly/gigantism individuals can occur due to:
thickened skin (hypertrophy of sebaceous and sweat glands)
243
What can occur in the joints of individuals with gigantism/acromegaly
degenerative arthritis
244
Describe the neuronal effects caused by gigantism/acromegaly:
parathesias due to peripheral neuropathy
245
What is a potential treatment for pituitary microadenoma?
adenectomy via transphenoid approach followed by medications
246
Oral manifestations of GH excess: (7)
1. thick rubbery skin, enlarged nose and thick lips 2. macrocephaly 3. macrognathia 4. disproportionate mandibular growth 5. anterior open bite and malocclusion 6. macroglossia, dyspnea, dysphagia, dysphonia, sialorrhea, 7. Hypertrophy of pharyngeal and laryngeal tissues
247
enlarged head = enlarged jaw =
macrocephaly macrognathia
248
The disproportionate mandibular growth caused by excess growth hormone includes:
mandibular prognathism- jaw jets forward generalized diastemata- separation of teeth
249
The anterior open bite and malocclusion in caused by excess GH is due to:
combo of macrognathia and tooth migration
250
1. Macroglossia: 2. Dyspnea: 3. Dysphagia: 4. Dysphonia: 5. Sialorrhea:
1. enlarged tongue 2. difficulty breathing 3. difficulty swallowing 4. difficulty speaking 5. slobbering
251
The hypertrophy of the pharyngeal and laryngeal tissues in individuals with excess GH can cause_____ and how?
sleep apnea - because of the increased growth of the pharyngeal and laryngeal tissues obstructing the airway
252
What are the causes of growth hormone deficiency? (5)
1. hypothalamic disorders 2. mutations 3. combined pituitary deficiencies 4. radiation 5. psychosocial deprivation
253
Combined pituitary hormone deficiencies=
panhypopituitarism
254
What type of mutations may lead to GH deficiency?
GHRH receptor, GH gene, GH receptor, IGF-1 receptor
255
A decrease in GHRH or an increase in GHIH could lead to:
growth hormone deficiency
256
What depends on the time of onset and severity of hormone deficiency? (talking about GH)
clinical manifestations
257
The clinical manifestations caused by complete growth hormone deficiency include: (4)
1. slow linear growth rates (shorter stature) 2. normal skeletal proportions 3. pudgy, youthful appearance (decreased lipolysis) 4. In setting of cortisol deficiency --> hypoglycemia
258
most common form of dwarfism, autosomal dominant condition, resulting from a mutation in the FGF-3 receptor in the cartilage and brain.
achondroplasia
259
The FGF-3 receptor mutation in achondroplasia makes the receptor overly active and it inhibits cartilage growth at growth plates so:
limb growth is reduced (growth of trunk is not is not impacted)
260
mutated receptor in achondroplasia:
FGF-3
261
Oral manifestations of GH deficiency include: 1. disproportionate delayed growth of the ____ and ____ = ____ facial appearance 2. ____ and ___ of the ___ regions of the jaws are abnormal and may be disproportionately smaller than adjacent anatomic structures. 3. solitary ______. 4. eruption of primary and secondary dentition and shedding of deciduous teeth are _____.
1. skull and facial skeleton; small 2. tooth formation and growth ; alveolar 3. median maxillary central incisor 4. delayed
262
How are the oral manifestations of GH deficiency managed?
correction of dental and skeletal malocclusion
263
Incisor defects in a child with growth hormone deficiency occurs in both:
primary and permanent dentition
264
In oral manifestation of GH deficiency: The tooth formation and growth of the alveolar regions of the jaws are abnormal and may be disproprotionately smaller than adjacent anatomic structures, this can cause:
1. tooth crowding and malocclusion 2. plaque accumulation 3. poor oral hygiene 4. gingivitis and perio disease
265
The posterior pituitary contains ~100,000 ______ whose cell bodies are in the ____.
unmyelinated axons of neurons; hypothalamus
266
Areas of concentrated neuronal cell bodies in the hypothalamus that haev axons that go through the infundibulum with their synaptics terminals located in the posterior pituitary gland
paraventricular nucleus and supraoptic nucleus
267
The paraventricular nucleus produces:
oxytocin
268
The supraoptic nucleus produces:
ADH
269
List all the names for the abreviation ADH:
1. Antidiuretic hormone 2. Arginine Vasopressin (AVP)
270
Both ADH and Oxytocin are classified as:
neurohormones
271
Both ADH and Oxytocin are neurohormones made of:
polypeptides of nine amino acids
272
While the paraventricular nucleus secretes Oxytocin and the and the supraoptic nucleus secretes ADH, they both have the ability to:
secrete some of the other neurohormone
273
Describe the similarities between ADH and Oxytocin:
VERY Similar structure
274
What are the 2 primary functions of ADH:
1. vasocronstriction (smooth muscle and blood vessels) 2. antidiuretic (holds on to water)
275
ADH/AVP mechanism of action: 1. Contaction of vascular smooth muscle via _____
V1 receptors
276
When ADH causes contraction of vascular smooth muscle through V1 receptors, what results:
increase in BP
277
V1 stands for:
Vasopressin 1 receptor
278
When ADH acts on V1 receptors, what occurs?
Contraction of vascular smooth muscle (blood vessels) (leading to increase in BP)
279
ADH/AVP mechanism of action: ADH functions in the renal tubules via:
V2 receptors
280
Where are the V2 receptors (for ADH) located?
Late distal tubule and collecting duct
281
What results when ADH binds to V2 in the late distal tubule and collecting duct?
AQP2 proteins are inserted into the apical membrane of tubular epithelial cells
282
Where is APQ2 inserted following ADH binding to V2 receptors?
the apical membrane of tubular epithelial cells
283
Following ADH binding to V2 receptors in the renal tubule, and AQP2 being inserted into the apical membrane of tubular epithelial cells, what results?
This allows for water resabsorption (in accordance with AQP3 and AQP4) on the basolateral membrane)
284
For whater reabsorption to occur, through AQP2, what also has to be present?
AQP3 and AQP4 in the basolateral membrane
285
The V2 receptors in the late distal tubule and collecting duct and _____ receptors
GPCR
286
Although water can go through the apical membrane via simple diffusion, the aquaporins allow for:
water channels so a lot more reabsorption can occur
287
______ allows for water to enter the apical membrane, and _______ are always on the basolateral membrane and allow for the continuation of the water.
Aquaporin 2; Aquaporin 3&4
288
Stimuli for ADH secretion:
1. Decreased blood volume 2. Increased osmolarity 3. Decreased BP
289
In regard to ADH secretion, decreased blood volume is considered:
Isotonic
290
In regard to ADH secretion, increased osmolarity is considered:
Isovolemic
291
The most potent stimulator for ADH release is:
increased osmolarity (linear on a graph)
292
If blood volume goes down, ADH will function to _____ to resolve the issue.
Keep water
293
If the osmolarity of plasma is too high, ADH will function to _____ in order to _____.
keep water; dilute it
294
If your BP is too low, ADH will function to _______ in order to raise it.
keep water
295
ADH working to keep water in the body will resolve what 3 issues?
1. high osmolarity 2. low BP 3. decreased blood volume
296
Decreased or absent feeling of thirst
hypodipsia
297
Hypodipsia may result in ______; which can cause ____.
reduced intake of water; hypernatremia
298
A common problem in elderly but is also associated with lesions in the hypothalamus (thirst center), head trauma, occult hydrocephalus or subsrachnoid hemmorhage
hypodipsia
299
List causes of hypodipsia: (5)
1. eldery people 2. lesions in hypothalamus (thirst center) 3. head trauma 4. occult hydrocephalus 5. subarachnoid hemorrhage
300
Diabetes insipidus is caused by:
ADH inbalance
301
What are the two types of DI?
neurogenic (central) nephrogenic (peripheral)
302
What do DI and DM have in common?
Large urine output
303
If you have an increased osmolarity, your would feel:
thirsty (under normal conditions)
304
Disease caused by inability to produce and secrete ADH:
Neurogenic/central diabetes insipidus
305
Describe the ADH levels in an individual with neurogenic/central DI:
Low levels of ADH (they are unable to produce/secrete it)
306
Treatment for a patient with neurogenic/central DI would be:
To supplement the ADH (give them ADH)
307
A person with a tumor near the posterior pituitary gland has surgical removal of the tumor causing damage to the supraoptic nucleus in the posterior pituitary. What might this result in if they are unable to produce ADH.
Neurogenic/central DI
308
Lacking a response to ADH (like a resistance):
Nephrogenic/peripheral DI
309
Nephrogenic/peripheral DI occurs in the:
kidneys
310
When ADH is present but the kidneys either do not respond at all or respond inappropriotely:
Nephrogenic/peripheral DI
311
Describe the levels of ADH in someone with nephrogenic/peripheral DI; why?
High levels, because they can produce ADH and the stimulus causing the ADH secretion does NOT get corrected (causing the hypothalamus to secrete more and more)
312
Uncharacteristically really high levels of ADH secretion and not because it is needed (oversecretion of ADH)
Syndrome of innappropriate ADH (SIADH)
313
A patient with DI may present with:
polyuria
314
Excretion of large volumes of urine:
polyuria
315
Describe the urine in a patient with DI:
hypotonic and tasteless (Insipid)
316
Other causes of polyuria may include: (Not DI)
1. primary ingestion of excess fluid 2. Increased metabolism of ADH (pregnancy)
317
Primary ingestion of excess fluid:
primary polydipsia
318
Increased and uncontrolled secretion of ADH that causes volume expansion and hyponatremia:
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
319
In the case of a patient with SIADH, what would the increased secretion of ADH cause? (2)
1. volume expansion 2. hyponatremia
320
Relative to a dentist, what can cause excessive ADH release?
surgery, pain and stress
321
Why do pregnant women pee more?
during pregnancy, ADH metabolism (breakdown of ADH) is increased, so more water is released
322
What hormone causes milk ejection from the breasts in lactation?
Oxytocin
323
What hormone stimulates contraction of the uterus toward the end of gestation?
oxytocin
324
Where is oxytocin released from?
posterior pituitary
325
Describe the feedback of oxytocin release:
positive feedback
326
Describe the relationship between oxytocin and prolactin:
permissive
327
Where is prolactin released from?
anterior pituitary
328
What does prolactin cause?
milk production
329
What causes the milk ejection in the breast? (mechanism)
myoepithelial cell contraction
330
What causes uterine contraction? (mechanism)
stretch of cervix at end of pregnancy
331
Objective evidence of a disease that can be seen or measured:
sign
332
Enlarged hands, polyuria, and tachycardia are all examples of:
signs
333
Cannot be measured (they are subjective) but are reported by the person:
symptoms
334
Headache and numbness are both examples of:
a symptom
335
Plasma Membrane Hormone Receptors: List the 4 plasma membrane hormone receptors:
1. G-protein coupled 2. Tyrosin Kinase 3. Serine kinase 4. Cytokine
336
Plasma Membrane Hormone Receptors: What are our two types of G-protein coupled receptors?
Gs and Gq
337
Plasma Membrane Hormone Receptors: Elaborate on the type of Gs coupled receptors: What second messenger(s) do they produce?
1. B-adrenergic 2. Calcitonin 3. ACTH 4. Glucagon 5. TSH 6. Vasopressin The produce the second messenger cAMP
338
Plasma Membrane Hormone Receptors: Elaborate on the types of Gq coupled receptors: What second messenger(s) do they produce?
1. A-adrenergic 2. Angiotensin II 3. TRH They produce the second messengers IP3, DAG and Ca2+
339
What type of plasma membrane hormone receptor would insulin and IGF-1 bind to?
Tyrosine kinase
340
What type of plasma membrane hormone receptor would growth factor bind to?
Tyrosine kinase
341
After cytokine binds to its plasma membrane hormone receptor (leptin), what second messenger does it activate?
JAK-STAT
342
Why would some receptors such as the receptors for insulin and thyroid hormone be more widely distributed?
Because the effects of these hormones is something we want a lot of cells to respond too
343
About 93% of the active hormones secreted by the thyroid gland is:
T4
344
About 7 % of the active hormones secreted by the thyroid gland is:
T3
345
T4= T3=
Thyroxine Triiodothyronine
346
What thyroid hormone is more potent?
T3
347
Thyroid hormones impact ____ & _____ and also have a _____ action on ______.
metabolism & growth/development; permissive; catecholamines
348
What thyroid cells are involved in making thyroid hormone?
T-Thyrocyte cells
349
What is stored in the colloid of the follicle?
Thyroglobuline
350
Parafollicular cells secrete:
calcitonin
351
What is the action of calcitonin?
Tone down plasma calcium (decrease)
352
In the middle of the thryoid follicle=
colloid
353
Where is thyroid hormone made and stored until it is time to be released?
colloid
354
What is required for thyroid hormone synthesis?
Iodine (I2)
355
Thyroid hormone requires Iodine because this is needed for:
thyroid follicular cells to actively transport iodide (I-) obtained from the diet
356
Iodine synthesis steps 1. Thyroid hormone synthesis requires ____ 2. _____ comes from the diet 3. Thyroid follicular cells contain a transporter called: 4. The follicular cells will: 5. The iodide gets into the cell and a second transporter called ____ removes ____ and brings ____ into the colloid 6. Once inside the colloid, the Iodide gets converted into ____.
1. Iodine 2. Iodide 3. Na+/I- symporter (NIS) 4. Concentrate the Iodide 5. Pendrin; chloride; iodide 6. Iodine
357
The Na+/I- transporter is a:
symporter
358
The Na+/I- symporter is a ______ transporter
secondary active
359
Iodide must exit the____ across the ____ to access the ___ where the initial steps of thyroid hormone synthesis occur.
thyrocyte; apical membrane; colloid
360
What enzymes works in the iodination and coupling process?
Peroxidase
361
What is a general term we give for anion exchangers?
pendrin
362
Pendrin is a ___ that exchanges ___ for ____ bringing _____In and _____ out in the process of thyroid hormone synthesis
anion exchanger; Cl-/I- I- in and Cl- out
363
Pendrin is ALWAYS:
moving two negatively charged substances in opposite directions
364
T3 and T4 are produced in the colloid and complexed with:
Thyroglobulin
365
The enzyme involved in all of the production steps in the formation of thyroid hormone (tyrosine, monoiodotyrosine, diiodotyrosine, T3, RT3, and T4)
peroxidase
366
Thyroglobulin is made of:
a bunch of tyrosine amino acids
367
Which works first in making T3 and T4 (pendrin or peroxidase???)
pendrin THEN peroxidase
368
T3 and T4 secretion into the blood: 1. _____ is internalized by endocytosis 2. The vesicles fuse with ____ in the cell 3. _____ cleaves T3 and T4 from ____. 4. T3 and T4 diffuse out of the cell and into ____.
1. colloid 2. lysosomes 3. protease; TG 4. capillaries
369
Colloid is a _____ of thyroid hormones
reservoir
370
Majority if not all of T3 and T4 bind with _____ for transport
plasma proteins
371
What are the plasma proteins that T3 and T4 bind to?
Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG) Transthryretin (TTR) Albumin
372
What causes the long half life of T4?
strength of its binding to the transport protein
373
Because T3 doesn't bind as tightly to the transport protein, its half life is:
2-3 days
374
T3 and T4 secretion into the blood: Colloid is taken into the follicular cell via:
pinocytosis
375
T3 and T4 secretion into the blood: T3 and T4 undergo _____ to be secreted into the blood
simple diffusion
376
Target cells make active T3 by using enzymes called ______ that remove an iodine from T4.
deiodinases/iodinases
377
Individual target cells can alter their exposure to T3 by regulating:
their tissue deiodinase synthesis
378
What are the 3 different deoiodinases?
D1, D2, D3
379
All three of the deiodinases contain a rare amino acid called:
selenocysteine
380
In selenocysteine, there is a ______ molecule in the place of ____ which is essential for the enzymatic activity.
selenium; sulfur
381
What are carious conditions that inhibit deiodinase activity?
1. selenium deficiency 2. burns 3. trauma 4. advanced cancer 5. cirrhosis 6. chronic kidney disease 7. MI 8. febrile states 9. fasting 10. stress
382
If someone has a condition that inhibits deiodinase activity, they could show signs of: Why?
hypothyroidism (because they are not able to convert T4 to T3)
383
T3 action occurs ____ compared to T4
sooner
384
When does the maximum activity of T3 hormone occur?
~2-3 days
385
Compare the activity of T4 to T3
T4 has a slower onset but long duration of action (can last until about 40 days)
386
A variety of genes have the thyroid hormone response element which can lead to:
gene transcription and synthesis of new proteins
387
The synthesis of new proteins due to the action of T3 and T4 can lead to what 5 main responses?
1. metabolism 2. Cardiovascular response 3. CNS development 4. Growth 5. Many other system responses
388
A big effect of the thyroid hormone is on metabolism, what effects can be seen due to T3 and T4 synthesizing new proteins that affect metabolism?
1. Increased BMR 2. Increased Glucose absorption 3. Increased gluconeogenesis 4. Increased glycogenolysis 5. Increased lipolysis 6. Increased protein synthesis 7. Increased O2 consumption 8. Increased mitochondria 9. Increased Na+/K+ ATPase activity
389
Background amount of oxygen utilized by cells; a basic indicator of metabolism:
BMR
390
A big effect of the thyroid hormone is on the cardiovascular system. What are some effects relating to this?
1. Increased cardiac output 2. Increased tissue blood flow 3. Increased HR 4. Increased heart strength 5. Increased respiration
391
The cardiovascular effects of thyroid hormone are caused by an increased in ______ which is a _____ effect.
beta receptors; permissive effect
392
Negative feedback of the thyroid hormone is mainly at the level of ____ but can also occur at ____.
anterior pituitary; hypothalamus
393
It is T4 that is the circulating form of thyroid hormone that is able to cause the feedback inhibition, but it gets converted into T3 in the _____ and ____, so its actually the T3 that inhibits the secretion of _____ and _____.
anterior pituitary and hypothalamus TSH and TRH
394
What actually causes the feedback inhibition of thyroid hormone?
The anterior pituitary and hypothalamus increasing their expression of deiodinase activity so when T4 levels in these tissues increase, they readily convert it (via deiodinase) to T3 which causes the inhibition
395
Describe the secretion of TSH:
pulsatile with increases in evening hours and peak ~ midnight
396
Describe the secretion of Thyroid hormone:
Thyroid secretion mirrors TSH secretion (pulsatile with increases in evening hours and peak around midnight) but also is tonically secreted (small amounts)
397
Thyroid hormones stimulates _____ by most metabolically active tissues
oxygen consumption
398
How does thyroid hormone effect BMR?
increases it
399
Thyroid hormone stimulates ______ metabolism
carbohydrate
400
Thyroid hormone stimulates carbohydrate metabolism by:
1. uptake of glucose by cells 2. enhances glycolysis and gluconeogensis 3. increases CHO absorption from GI tract
401
Describe the effects of thyroid hormone on metabolism relating to proteins:
stimulates protein catabolism and synthesis but more catabolism (breakdown)
402
Describe the effects of thyroid hormone relating to fat:
stimulates fat metabolism
403
Thyroid hormone stimulates fat metabolism by: `
increasing lipid mobilization and oxidation of fatty acids
404
Thyroid hormone is required to convert _____ to ___ which is why hypothyroid patients may exhibit yellow skin
beta carotene ---> vitamin A
405
Vitamin A is important in:
wound healing
406
Thyroid hormone is responsible for decreasing circulating _____ levels. A person with hypothyroid may have _____ due to this.
cholesterol levels hyperlipidemia
407
With no thyroid hormone at all, what would the BMR look like?
BMR levels would be around 45-50% of normal rate
408
Thyroid hormone is needed for ______ regarding the nervous system.
needed for normal devleopment
409
Thyroid hormone impacts _____ so someone with hypothyroidism may have prolonged ___.
reflex time; prolonged reflex time
410
In someone with hyperthyroidism, due to the increased neuronal synapses they may experience:
muscle tremors
411
If someone feels tires, but has difficulty sleeping and anxiety, worry and paranoia they may have: (relating to thyroid hormone)
hyperthyroidism
412
hyperthyroidism effected on cardiovascular system include:
1. increased expression of B-adrenergic receptors 2. increased blood flow, HR, and heart contractility
413
Describe the permissive effect of the thyroid hormone on the cardiovascular system. What might this cause?
Thyroid hormone increases the expression of beta adrenergic receptors, and this would lead to an increased SNS response
414
Thyroid hormone effects on the endocrine system: Increased ____ consumption that results in increased _____ secretion needed to maintain ____ levels.
glucose; insulin; blood glucose
415
Thyroid hormone effects on the endocrine system: The thyroid hormone causes activation of bone formation so this causes a need for increased:
PTH secretion
416
Thyroid hormone effects on the endocrine system: Causes increased inactivation of ______ which leads to more _____ release by the ____.
glucocorticoids; ACTH; anterior pituitary
417
Thyroid hormone effects on the GI system: Thyroid hormone causes increased _____ and _____ intake.
appetite and food
418
Thyroid hormone effects on the GI system: Thyroid hormone causes increased rate of ______ and _____ of GI tract. Individuals with hyperthyroidism may have _____ due to this, while individuals with hypothyroidism may have ____ due to this.
secretion and motility diarrhea; constipation
419
Enlarged thyroid gland=
goiter
420
Goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland that:
DOES NOT indicate functional status
421
Goiter can be seen in:
hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism and euthyroidism
422
Goiter can be caused excessive amounts of _____ secretion.
TSH
423
High TSH stimulates thyroid to stimulate larges amounts of _____ into ______ resulting in gland enlargement/ goiter
Thyroglobin colloid into follicles
424
The most common form of hyperthyroidism
Grave's disease
425
Although Grave's disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism can also occur due to:
thyroid adenoma
426
Grave's disease is a _____ disease. Explain this:
autoimmune disease. Antibodies to the TSH receptor called thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins are produced, and they stimulate the thyroid gland DIRECTLY to produce too much thyroid hormone (T3 and T4)
427
Describe the category of disorder that Grave's disease is, and who the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary are affected:
Primary endocrine disorder- bc issue is at level of thyroid gland strong negative feedback causes TSH and TRH levels to be reduced
428
Grave's disease is more common in:
The gals
429
List the signs and symptoms of Grave's dizzzeeeez
1. sweating/heat intolerance 2. increased metabolism 3. increased appetite 4. weight loss 5. fine hair/ protein synthesis 6. increase NS response (emo instability, insomnia, nervy, resletessness) 7.fine tremor 8. goiter 9. exophthalmos (bug eyed) 10. pre-tibial myxedema
430
Treatment for the gravy:
radioactive iodine to ablate the thyroid followed by L thyroxine (T4) to prevent hypothyroidism, surgery rarely indicated antithyroid drugs beta-blockers to block permissive effect of thyroid hormone
431
Oral symptoms of hyperthyroidism may include:
- burning mouth syndrome - gum disease - excessive salivation - weakening of mandible - increased caries risk
432
Elevated thyroid hormone with stressful events or serious illness causing fever, tachycardia, elevated BP, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and breathing problems:
thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis)
433
What can bring on a thyroid storm?
-trauma -surgery -infection -DKA -MI
434
Overall a thyroid storm can be described as:
exaggerated sympathetic response
435
In patients with hyperthyroidism or those that exhibit signs/symptoms of it what is extremely important?
administration of epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED and elective dental care should be deferred
436
autoimmune reaction against the thyroid gland that destroys it rather than stimulates it
hashimotos thyroiditis
437
What is the most common cause of hypthyroidism?
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
438
Prior to diagnosis of hashimoto's thyroiditis, most patients first exhibit:
autoimmine thyroiditis
439
In hashimoto's thyroiditis, inflammation leads to ___ of the thyroid resulting in _____.
fibrosis; decreased section of thyroid hormone
440
What is the target of the antibodies in hashimotos thryoiditis?
peroxidase
441
What class of disorder is Hashimoto's characterized by?
primary endocrine disorder
442
Another form of hypothyroidism (not hashimoto's) is due to:
low iodine
443
Hypothyroidism due to low iodine is classified as:
primary endocrine disorder
444
In the absence of iodine, describe the levels of T3 and T4, TRH and TSH:
T3 and T4 low; and TRH and TSH high
445
In hypothyroid states, goiter is due to _____, while no goiter is due to _____.
iodine deficiency; TSH deficiency
446
Hypothyroidism due to iodine deficiency = ______ = _____ deficiency Hypothyroidism due to TSH deficiency = _______ = ______ deficiency
goiter; primary no goiter; secondary
447
Symptoms of hypothyroidism may include:
1. weight gain 2. constipation 3. cold/diminished perspiration 4. lethargy 5. impaired memory 6. lack of NS stimulation 7. coarse, dry, brittle hair 8. hair loss 9. loss of lateral eyebrows 10. slow pulse (bc decreased # of beta receptors) 11. enlarged heart 12. facial edema 13. peripheral edema
448
Unique symptom seen in severe hypothyroid cases:
myxedema
449
In hyperthyroidism patients, where does the myxedema occur? In hypothyroidism patients, where does the myxedema occur?
hyper= pretibial myxedema hypo= face
450
Myxedema occurs due to increased quantities of ____ and ____ bound with protein plus water that accumulates in the skin
hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate
451
Dull expressionless facies with puffiness of eyelids, swollen, cool, waxy, dry, coarse, and pale skin with lots of creases describes a patient effected with ______ and the treatment would be ______.
myxedema; L-thyroxine (T4)
452
Required for post-natal brain maturation
Thyroid hormones
453
Results from congenital absence of thyroid gland:
congenital cretinism
454
Results from iodine deficient diet; most common cause world wide:
endemic cretinism
455
Cretinism can cause ______ of neonates. Skeletal growth is more inhibited than soft tissue growth resulting in:
physical and mental retardation Obese, stocky and short with large protruding tongue
456
Cretinism can cause lack of development of ____.
nervous system
457
List the hypothyroidism oral manifestations: (6)
1. macroglossia 2. dysgeusia 3. delayed tooth eruption 4. poor wound healing 5. increased periodontal disease 6. salivary gland enlargement
458
The poor wound healing and increased risk of infection in a hypothyroidism patient is due to:
decreased activity of fibroblasts
459
Patients with hypothyroidism are sensitive to:
central nervous system depressants and barbiturates
460
85% of the body's phosphate is stored in the: 14-15% of the body's phosphate is stored in the: Less than 1% of the body's phosphate is stored in the:
bones cells ECF
461
Only 0.1% of the body's calcium is found in the: 1% of the body's calcium is found in the: The rest of the body's calcium is stored in the:
ECF Cells and organelles bones
462
When levels of calcium are too low:
neuronal hyper-excitability (tetany due to extra Na+ influx)
463
When levels of calcium are too high:
neuronal depression (blocks Na+ influx)
464
Carpal spasms can be due to:
HYPOcalcemia
465
Control points for calcium and phosphate include:
1. absorption- via intestines 2. excretion- via urine (calcium and phosphate) and feces (calcium only) 3. temporary storage- via bones (hydroxyapatite)
466
Ca(10)PO4(6)OH(2)
hydroxyapatite
467
What the hormones that regulate plasma calcium?
PTH, Calcitriol, and Calcitonin
468
How does PTH regulate plasma calcium and phosphate?
Increases plasma calcium Decreases plasma phosphate
469
How does PTH work to raise plasma calcium and lower plasma phosphate?
1. mobilizes calcium from bone 2. Enhances renal reabsorption of calcium 3. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium (INDIRECTLY)
470
How does calcitriol regulate plasma calcium and phosphate?
Increases plasma calcium Increases plasma phosphate
471
How does calcitriol work to raise plasma calcium and phosphate?
Calcitriol is the primary hormones that enhances intestinal absorption of calcium and it also causes absorption of phosphate
472
The primary hormone that enhances intestinal absorption of calcium and also causes absorption of phosphate.
Calcitriol
473
What are the other names for calcitriol?
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol Vitamin D3
474
Calcitriol acts on the intestines ______ to enhance absorption of calcium and also phosphate. While PTH acts on the intestines _____ to enhance absorption.
Directly; Indirecty
475
Calcitonin comes from:
parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland
476
How does calcitonin regulate plasma calcium and phosphate?
Decreases plasma calcium and phosphate
477
How does calcitonin work to lower plasma calcium and phosphate?
It stimulates bone formation
478
What hormones stimulate bone formation?
1. calcitonin 2. insulin 3. growth hormone 4. IGF-1 5. estrogen 6. testosterone
479
______ & _____ stimulate bone matrix resorption which functions to increase plasma calcium
Calcitriol and PTH
480
Calcitriol and parathryoid hormone stimulate bone matrix _______ . How does this effect plasma calcium?
resorption; increases plasma calcium
481
Bone resorption: 1. Osteoblasts release ______. 2. ____ binds to the _____ on preosteoclasts and this leads to activation of _____.
1.RANK ligand 2. RANK-L binds to the RANK receptors; osteoclasts
482
What is the goal of bone resorption?
Increase plasma calcium levels
483
What type of cell is activated during bone resorption? What activates this type of cell?
Osteoclasts; Rank Ligand
484
Factors that stimulate bone matrix resoprtion:
1. PTH 2. Excessive levels of calcitriol 2. Prolactin 4. Corticosteroids
485
What is the goal of bone deposition?
form bone, take calcium out of blood and put into bone
486
_____ stimulates bone matrix deposition and inhibits osteoclasts.
calcitonin
487
Calcitonin stimulates bone matrix deposition and inhibits osteoclasts which ultimate does _____ to plasma calcium.
decreases
488
If calcium levels in the blood are sufficient, we don't need to:
break down bone
489
Anabolic or anti-resorptive factors (for bone)=
1. estrogens 2. calcitonin 3. testosterone 4. calcium 5. BMP
490
In order to avoid RANK-L further activating osteoclasts, ____ will bind to RANK-L to prevent it from binding to the RANK-L receptor
OPG
491
OPG binding to RANK-L ultimately leads to:
apoptotic osteoclasts
492
Osteoclasts that do NOT function to break down bone:
Apoptotic osteoclasts
493
Affects almost 10 million individuals in the US, though only a small proportion are diagnosed and treated. Occurs when there is an imbalance between bone formation and resorption.
Osteoporosis
494
Risk factors for osteoporosis: (Superficial)
1. Vitamin D deficiency 2. Inadequate calcium intake 3. Glucocorticoid medications 4. Reduced physical activity 5. Estrogen deficiency 6. Cigarette smoking 7. Alcohol
495
Describe why Vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteoporosis:
Because it can lead to really high PTH levels (secondary hyperparathyroidism) which leads to excessive bone breakdown
496
Describe why inadequate calcium intake can lead to osteoporosis:
Because it can lead to really high PTH levels (secondary hyperparathyroidism) which leads to excessive bone breakdown
497
Describe why glucocorticoid medications can lead to osteoporosis:
They supress the immune response leading to risk of weak and brittle bones
498
Describe why post-menopausal estrogen deficiency can lead to osteoporosis:
Estrogen stimulates the process of bone matrix deposition, so lack of estrogen would throw the balance off
499
Treatments for osteoporosis include:
1. exercise 2. PT 3. Estrogen replacement 4. Calcium 5. Vitamin D 6. Bisphosphonates
500
When giving vitamin D to an osteoporosis patient, you must make sure _____ levels do not get too high
PTH
501
Four pea-sized glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland:
Parathyroid glands
502
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted by:
chief cells
503
What are the effect of PTH? How?
Increased plasma calcium by indirectly increasing intestinal absorption, decreasing renal excretion and increasing bone resorption
504
How does PTH decrease plasma phosphate?
Increasing renal excretion
505
Describe the renal excretion effects on calcium and phosphate by PTH:
Increases renal excretion for phosphate Decreases renal excretion for calcium
506
Why is the effect of PTH on intestinal absorption of calcium considered indirect?
It causes more synthesis of vitamin D, which in turn causes more intestinal absorption of calcium.
507
When PTH is secreted to to decreased ECF calcium, this leads to:
Hypertrophy of parathyroid gland
508
How would a decrease in ECF calcium concentration effect the rate of PTH secretion:
Increase
509
What conditions would lead to hypertrophy of the parathyroid gland:
Chronic cases - pregnancy, rickets, and lactation
510
Chronically, if you hypertrophy the parathyroid gland, it becomes:
even better at secreting PTH
511
Increased ECF concentration of calcium leads to ______ of the parathyroid gland.
decreased activity
512
If the parathyroid gland has a decrease in activity, it will have a ____ in size.
decrease
513
What conditions can cause a decrease in activity and size of the parathyroid gland?
1. increased Vitamin D intake at excessive levels 2. Excess quantities of calcium in diet 3. bone resorption caused by factors other than PTH
514
Describe the effect on plasma calcium: Bone resorption:
increases plasma calcium
515
Describe the effect on plasma calcium: Resabsorption of calcium by renal tubules
increases plasma calcium
516
Describe the effect on plasma calcium: Conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1-25dihydroxycholecalciferol
increases plasma calcium
517
Describe the effect on plasma phosphate: Decreased reabsorption by renal tubules:
decreases plasma phosphate
518
Where do we get cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) from:
skin (from sun)
519
In the process of calcitriol synthesis, cholecalciferol is converted to ______ ; by what organ?
25-hydroxycholecalciferol ; liver
520
In the process of calcitriol synthesis, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is converted to _____; by what organ?
1-25 dihydroxycholecalciferol (Calcitriol); kidney
521
What tells the kidney to do the conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to the active form?
parathyroid hormone
522
Where is the main effect of calcitriol?
Intestines - absorption of calcium and phosphate from diet
523
Where can calciferol act although not the main effect?
Kidneys (reduced excretion of calcium and phosphate); Bones (indirectly causes bone deposition)
524
Vitamin D3 can be stored in the liver for:
several months
525
Describe the regulation of calcitriol levels:
tightly regulated- if someone takes excess vitamin D3 the liver will still only convert so muc into the 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
526
Someone with a compromised liver or kidney function may exhibit:
Vitamin D deficiency
527
peptide hormone secreted by parafollicular cells
calcitonin
528
Parafollicular cells reside in the _____ and may also be called _____.
thryoid gland; C-cells
529
Calcitonin is released in response to:
elevated free plasma calcium
530
Calcitonin lowers the level of plasma calcium by decreasing the activity of ____, thus decreasing _____.
decreases the activity of osteoclasts thus decreasing bone resorption
531
Not a major controller of calcium in humans:
calcitonin
532
What two systems does calcitonin act on?
bone and kidneys
533
Excess PTH secretion due to a parathryroid gland tumor:
primary hyperparathyroidism
534
Primary hyperparathyroidism can lead to extreme _____ activity in bones causing _____, more specifically ____.
osteoclastic activity; cystic bone disease; osteitis fibrosa cystica
535
Such excessive bone breakdown that we we see scar tissue and fibrosis in bones
cystic bone disease (osteoitis fibrosa cystica)- primary hyperparathryoidism
536
Primary parathyroidism can cause hypercalcemia leading to: (in relation to urine)
polyuria and calciuria
537
What happens to phosphate levels and why in patients with primary hyperparathyroidism:
low phosphate due to increased renal excretion
538
Describe why someone with primary hyperparathyroidism would exhibit muscle weakness and easy fatigability:
too much calcium blocks sodium influx leading to neuronal depression (impedes signaling by neurons)
539
Primary hyperparathyroidism signs and symptoms include:
Stones, Bones, abdominal groans, and psychic moans
540
Describe the stone component to primary hyperparathyroidism:
1. renal stones 2. nephrocalcinosis 3. polyuria 4. polydipsia 5. uremia
541
Describe the bones component to primary hyperparathyroidism:
1. cystic bone disease 2. osteomalacia/rickets 3. arthritis
542
Describe the abdominal groans component of primary hyperparathyroidism:
1. constipation 2. indigestions 3. nausea 4. vomiting 5. peptic ulcers 6. pancreatitis
543
Describe the psychic moans component of primary hyperparathyroidism:
1. lethargy/fatigue 2. depression 3. memory loss 4. paranoia 5. personality change 6. confusion, suport, coma
544
Other symptoms not included in stones, bones, moans, and groans from primary hyperparathyroidism include:
1. proximal muscle weakness 2. Keratitis 3. conjunctivitis 4. Hypertension 5. itching
545
High PTH levels that occur as compensation for hypocalcemia and not due to an issue with the parathyroid gland:
secondary hyperparathyroidism
546
What are the two causes of hypocalcemia that lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism:
1. vitamin D deficiency 2. chronic renal disease- cannot synthesize Vit D3
547
What disease are you at risk for with hight levels of PTH?
osteoporosis
548
Disease that would result from accidental surgical parathyroid gland removal, not common
primary hypoparathyroidism
549
What increases membrane Na+ permeability leading to neuromuscular excitability and muscle spasms
hypocalcemia
550
What the condition name for the wonky ass hand:
carpal spasm
551
How many adrenal glands and where are they located?
2 adrenal glands, located on top of each kidney
552
describe the structure of a adrenal gland?
outer cortex + inner medulla
553
What portion of the adrenal gland is essential for life?
Adrenal cortex
554
The adrenal cortex secretes:
1. corticosteroids 2. mineralcorticoids 3. sex hormones
555
Is the adrenal medulla essential for life?
no
556
The adrenal _____ is a true endocrine organ
cortex
557
Although it is not essential for life, the adrenal medulla is important in:
Secreting epinephrine and norepinephrine in resonse to sympathetic nervous system stimulation
558
The adrenal medullary hormones are NOT essential for life, but help an individual deal with:
emergencies
559
The adrenal cortex secretes several hormones that are made from:
cholesterol
560
What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex?
Zona glomerulosa Zona fasiculata Zona reticularis
561
The largest zone of the adrenal cortex
fasculata
562
The zona glomerulosa secretes ______ and is regulated by ______.
mineralcorticoids; RAAS
563
RAAS stands for:
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
564
The zona fasciulata secretes _____ and is regulated by _____.
glucocorticoids; HPA (CRH and ACTH)
565
HPA stands for:
hypothalamic-pituitary -adrenal axis
566
The zona reticularis secretes ____ and is regulated by ____.
androgens; HPA
567
The adrenal medulla is related to the ____ and secretes _____.
Sympathetic Nervous System; Catecholamines
568
What type of cells secrete catecholamines?
chromaffin cells
569
Where do the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla secrete Epi and NE?
into the blood
570
What are the three tissues involved in the HPA?
Hypothalamus, Pituitary, Adrenal gland
571
Why does the zona glomerulosa secrete so much aldosterone?
Because enzymes involve din the formation of aldosterone from cholesterol are highly expressed in the zona glomerulosa
572
What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of Cortisol to corisone?
11HSD Beta 2
573
What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of cortisone to cortisol?
11HSD Beta 1
574
The reactions that occur for the synthesis of steroid hormones in the adrenal cortex take place in the:
mitochondria or endoplasmic reticulum
575
Describe the activity of cortisone at cortisol receptors
reduced activity
576
Can be used to make testosterone and androgens:
Androstenedione
577
Aldosterone is classified as a:
mineralcorticoid
578
Aldosterone functions in the kidneys to:
1. increased renal reabsorption of Na+ 2. increase renal secretion of K+
579
Aldosterone working to increase renal reabsorption of Na+ and increasing renal secretion of K+ results in:
Increase in ECF fluid volume and mean arterial pressure
580
What stimulates aldosterone secretion?
1. angiotensin II 2. Increased levels of K+ 3. Decreased levels of Na+
581
Aldosterone has effects on:
1. kidney 2. sweat glands 3. salivary glands
582
What portion of the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion:
Zona glomerulosa
583
What are the main functions of angiotensin II?
1. vasoconstriction 2. release of aldosterone
584
What function of angiotensin II is interrelated to the sympathetic nervous system?
release of aldosterone
585
Since aldosterone causes increased tubular reabsorption of sodium, ultimately raising blood sodium levels, what happens water?
Water retention occurs because where sodium goes water follows
586
The effects of aldosterone on sweat glands is important to:
conserve body salt in hot environments
587
The effects of aldosterone on the salivary gland is important in:
conservation of sodium during high rates of salivary secretion
588
In addition to hyperkalemia, _____ causes secretion of aldosterone
angiotensin II
589
Enzyme released by the cells in the kidneys in response to a variety of stimui (example SNS)
Renin
590
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is produced by the:
endothelium
591
List the steps of RAAS
Angiotensinogen gets converted to angiotensin I by the enzyme Renin Angiotensin I gets converted to Angiotensin II by the enzyme ACE
592
Angiotensin II ultimately causes secretion of _____ but also does _____, _____, and _____.
ultimately aldosterone secretion but also ADH secretion, thirst stimulation, and vasoconstriction
593
What do vasconstriction, aldosterone secretion, ADH secretion and thirst stimulation all have in common?
All these work to raise BP
594
In RAAS, the non-active precursor made by the liver and found in the plasma:
angiotensinogen
595
Where is large amounts of ACE found?
In the lungs- COVA
596
A lot of _____ medications target RAAS
HTN
597
How do ACE inhibitors work?
If you inhibit ACE you will make less angiotensin II
598
Primary hyperaldosteronism may also be called:
Conn's Syndrome
599
In primary hyperaldosteronism, where is the problem?
adrenal gland
600
What are the causes of primary hyperaldosteronism?
1. adrenal adenoma (benign) 2. adrenal hyperplasia 3. adrenal carcinoma (malignant)
601
Describe the levels of renin involved in primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome):
Low levels of renin
602
Signs and symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's) include:
1. HTN 2. Hypernatremia 3. Hypokalemia 4. Headaches 5. Weakness 6. Fatigue 7. HYPOKALEMIC ALKALOSIS 8. LOW PLASMA RENIN
603
Explain why someone with primary hyperaldosteronism would have low levels of plasma renin:
Due to so much aldosterone being produced and it strongly negatively feedingback
604
A byproduct of cells trying to regulate the K+ levels in the case of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's):
Hypokalemic alkalosis
605
In hypokalemic alkalosis, the cells attempt to regulate K+ levels and leads to an absence of:
H+ levels in the ECF
606
Treatment options for primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's) include:
surgical removal of tumor or most of the adrenal tissue when hyperplasia is present, or a minercorticoid receptor antagonist
607
Caused by decreased bloodflow and pressure in the renal artery, (the kidney thinks BP is low and secretes renin excessively)
Secondary hyperaldosteronism
608
Describe the levels of renin in secondary hyperaldosteronism:
High levels of renin
609
What are causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism?
1. CHF 2. Renal artery stenosis
610
How might CHF lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism?
Pumping function of the heart is declined leading to low BP, and aldosterone levels will rise to compensate
611
How might renal artery stenosis lead to secondary hyperaldosteroneism?
Renal artery pumps blood to kidney and there can be an atherosclerotic plaque in the vessel resulting in decreased bloodflow to kidney. The kidney now thinks BP is low and secretes excessive renin to try and compensate for the "low BP" and then that extra renin causes extra angiotensin II which leads to extra aldosterone The other kidney is working just fine
612
Signs and symptoms of secondary aldosteronism include:
1. high plasma renin 2. hypernatremia with extracellular volume expansion 3. edema 4. decreased cardiac output 5. similar clinical findings as primary hyperaldosteronism
613
Hormone that functions in the mobilization of energy stores and suppresses the immune system:
Cortisol
614
What hormone is secreted in response to stress?
Cortisol
615
Cortisol is categorized as a _____ and comes from the _____ zone of the adrenal cortex
glucocorticoid; zona fasiculata
616
More cells in the adrenal cortex make ____ than any other cells because of the size of the zona fasiculata
cortisol
617
What are some examples of stressors that may cause cortisol secretion?
- heat - cold -hypo/hyperglycemia (not just psychological stress)
618
Cortisol says "there is a stressful situation, let me throw a bunch of nutrients in the blood" but, a consequence of cortisol is that:
suppresses the immune system
619
When do cortisol levels spike? What hormone is opposite of this?
early morning hours; growth hormone
620
Cortisol feedsback and inhibits:
1. ACTH secretion from AP 2. CRH secretion from hypothalamus
621
Describe what type of feedback is seen through cortisol:
Long loop
622
What are the 4 main actions of cortisol?
1. Gluconeogenesis 2. Protein mobilization 3. Fat mobilization 4. Stabilizes lysosomes
623
What action of cortisol leads to the suppression of immune function?
Stabilizing lysosomes
624
Why are other hormones secreted when ACTH is secreted?
Because the gene for ACTH forms a larger protein (a preprohormone)
625
What is the name of the preprohormone that ACTH is derived from?
Proopiomelanocortin (POMC)
626
In addition to ACTH being synthesized from POMC, what else is secreted?
1. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) 2. Beta endorphin 3. Beta lipotropin
627
A clinical sign of elevated ACTH pathologically is:
increased skin pigmentation (from melanocytes)
628
What is a byproduct of ACTH production?
MSH
629
Cortisol has a similar affinity for the ____ receptor as ____.
mineralcorticoid receptor (MR) as aldosterone
630
What is found at higher circulating concentrations, aldosterone or cortisol?
Cortisol
631
Since cortisol is able to bind to the MR receptor, why doesn't it cause a mineralcorticoid effect?
11B2HSD enzyme converts cortisol to cortisone in aldosterone responsive tissues (making sure the aldosterone binds to the MR receptor, not cortisol)
632
_____ does not bind to GC or MR receptors with as high of an affinity as _____.
cortisone; cortisol
633
A genetic deficiency in the 11B2HSD receptor leads to the syndrome:
AME (Apparent Mineralocorticoid excess)
634
_____ is a compound found in licorice that inhibits the activity of _____.
glycerrhetinic acid; 11B2HSD
635
What do we expect under normal conditions when the aldosterone binds the mineralocorticoid receptor in the epithelial cells of the kidney?
Increased sodium reabsorption and increased potassium secretion
636
Where would we find 11B2HSD receptors? Where would we find 11B1HSD receptors?
kidneys, salivary glands, sweat glands skin
637
High circulating cortisol levels such as in cushings syndrome can:
Overwhelm the 11HSDB2 enzyme
638
Both AME syndrome and high circulating cortisol levels will ultimately cause:
High BP
639
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: Stimulation of both ___ and _____ in the liver resulting in _____.
gluconeogenesis; glycogenolysis; increases blood glucose
640
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: ____ action resulting in decreased glucose uptake in the muscle and fat but not the brain or heart.
anti-insulin action
641
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: Makes ___ worse by increasing ___ levels, ____ level, and ____ formation and ____ secretion.
diabetes glucose levels lipid levels ketone body formation insulin secretion
642
Describe what two hormones are antagonists when dealing with the carbohydrate effect of cortisol on metabolism.
cortisol and insulin are antagonists
643
Describe what can happen with a diabetic that is scared at the dentist due to cortisol:
They come in, they get stressed out, their cortisol levels rise, in turn their blood sugar rises (because the cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis)
644
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: Inhibits ____ synthesis and increases ____ especially in skeletal muscles.
protein synthesis; proteolysis (provides source of AA for glycoenogenesis)
645
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: Cortisol excess leads to ___ weakness, pain, ____ skin and abdominal ____ due to the protein catabolic effect.
muscle weakness thin skin abdominal striae
646
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: promotes ____; and shifts the energy system from utilization of _____ to _____ in times of stress.
lipolysis glucose to fatty acids
647
Effects of cortisol on metabolism: Causes _____ deposition in certain areas (abdomen, interscapular "buffalo hump" and rounded "moon face"
lipid
648
95% of the glucocorticoid activity of the adrenal cortex is due to the secretion of:
cortisol
649
Absence of cortisol contributes to _____ due to loss of _____ of ______ on blood vessels
circulatory failure; permissive action; catecholamines
650
Lack of cortisol also prevents mobilization of _____ (glucose and free fatty acids) during stress and can result in ____.
energy sources; fatal hypoglycemia
651
Vasoconstriction of blood vessels occurs via:
alpha 1 receptor
652
Describe the effect cortisol has on catecholamines (alpha 1 receptor) on blood vessels
Permissive effect- the presence of cortisol allows the alpha 1 receptors effect to be maximized
653
Why would blood pressure decrease when cortisol levels are low?
The presence of cortisol allows the alpha receptors response to be maximized, so without the maximum response, blood pressure would be lower
654
How does cortisol effect the immune system?
suppresses immune system function
655
What are few ways that cortisol suppresses the immune system:
1. stabilizes the lysosomal membrane 2. opposes inflammation (decrease WBC migration and phagocytosis) 3. suppresses T-Lymphocytes
656
What properties of glucocorticoids allows them to be used in treatment of patients with diseases/conditions involving exaggerated inflammatory response?
Their anti-inflammatory action
657
How can treatment with glucocorticoids cause osteoporosis?
because cortisol stimulates bone resorption via an increase in RANK-L expression by osteoblasts
658
Treatment with glucocorticoid promotes apoptosis of ____ & ____ which can further lead to osteoporosis.
osteoblasts and osteocytes
659
The zona reticularis is responsible for the secretion of:
androgens
660
The zona reticularis begins secreting adrenal androgens around the age ____ , peaking around age _____, and then _____ with age.
age 8, age 20, decreasing with age
661
Adrenal androgens secreted by the zona reticularis include:
DHEA/DHEAS Andostenodione Testosterone Estrogens
662
Describe the effects of adrenal androgens in males vs. females:
andrenal androgens have only weak effects in makes but contribute ~50% of active androgens in females
663
Describe the effects of adrenal androgens in females:
growth of pubic hair, axillary hair, and libido
664
A condition resulting from excess androgen production in pre-pubertal boys =
precocious pseudopuberty
665
Normally puberty in boys is stimulated by ___ which leads to the secretion of FSH and LH But if the adrenal gland is oversecreting androgens it can lead to:
Hypothalamus secreting GRH early puberty NOT due to the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
666
If boys are affected by precocious psuedopuberty brought on by excessive androgen secretion from the adrenal gland, this can cause:
early development of secondary sexual characteristics (under age 8)
667
______ deficiency can result in virilization in newborn females and pseudo-hermaphroditism
21-hydroxylase deficiency
668
21-hydroxylase deficiency leads to an overproduction of:
androgens (DHEA, DHEAS, Androstenedione)
669
Androgen secreting tumors producing excess androgen result in: (in females)
virilization and and precocious pseudopuberty in females
670
Precocious psuedopuberty:
early puberty not caused by HPA secreting GRH and instead due to adrenal androgens in excess
671
21-hydroxylase is an enzyme critical for making ___ & ____ and in the absence of this enzyme, there is a buildup of ____ & ___ precursors resulting in excessive amounts of _____.
aldosterone and cortisol aldosterone and cortisol androgen precursors (DHEA, DHEAS, Androstenedione)
672
Androstenedione is a precursor to:
testosterone, 5-dihydrotestosterone, and estrogens
673
Although androstenedione is not the precursor made in the greatest amounts (compared to DHEA and DHEAS), it is the precursor with the:
greatest effect
674
Why does the precursor androstenedione have the greatest affect (compared to DHEA and DHEAS)?
because it is more readily converted peripherally to testosterone and estrogens
675
In adults, hormonally active benign adrenal adenomas usually secrete ____ or ____.
aldosterone or cortisol
676
Virilizing tumors in women are more likely to be caused by:
ovarian tumors
677
Virilizing adrenal tumors are ___, and virilization is usually due to _____.
rare; hypersecretion of adrenal androgens
678
List some signs and symptoms of virilizations:
Male pattern baldness, male musculature, clitoromegaly, increased libido, rapid linear growth with advanced bone age
679
Primary adrenal insufficiency:
Addison's Disease
680
Addison's disease can be caused by primary atrophy or injury to the:
adrenal cortex
681
In about 80% of Addison's cases, atrophy occurs due to ______ of all cortical zones
autoimmune destruction
682
Describe the level of ACTH in Addison's dx
High ACTH
683
Describe the levels of corticosteroid production in Addisons disease:
Low corticosteroids
684
Addison's disease can be characterized by a loss of:
glucocorticoid, mineralcorticoid and adrogen secretion
685
Secondary adrenal insufficiency is due to low levels of:
ACTH
686
IF the pituitary gland is unable to secrete enough ACTH this would result in:
low cortisol production (secondary adrenal insufficiency)
687
Often latrogenic due to abrupt cessation of steroid therapy:
secondary adrenal insufficiency
688
What is affected in primary adrenal insufficiency that is not affected in secondary adrenal insufficiency?
mineralcorticoid secretion
689
Would signs and symptoms of glucocorticoid deficiency be seen in primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency or both? Would signs and symptoms of mineralocorticoid deficiency be seen in primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency or both? Would signs and symptoms of adrenal androgen deficiency be seen in primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency or both?
Both- both have lack of cortisol production primary only Both- Addisons has loss of androgens; and then secondary has low ACTH leading to low androgen production
690
Two important symptoms of glucocorticoid deficiency include:
hypoglycemia because normally raises blood glucose Low BP due to the lack of alpha 1 receptor permissive effect
691
Hyperpigmentation in primary adrenal insufficiency is due to excess of:
POMC-
692
Cushings Disease is a _____ disorder characterized by ______. Cushings syndrome is a _____ disorder characterized by _____.
secondary- occurs due to brain- High ACTH primary- occurs due to adrenal cortex- low ACTH
693
Both cushings disease and syndrome is characterized by:
high cortisol levels
694
Cushings disease or syndrome? 1.secondary disorder: 2. primary disorder 3. due to adrenal cortex 4. due to brain 5. oversecretion of ACTH leads to excessive cortisol level 6. overproduction of cortisol leads to low levels of ACTH
1. disease 2. syndrome 3. syndrome 4. disease 5. disease 6. syndrome
695
To distinguish between cushings disease and syndrome, what hormone level would you look at?
ACTH
696
Conn's syndromes is an issue with ______ Cushings syndrome is an issue with ____ Pheochromocytoma is an issue with ____
mineralcorticoids glucocorticoids catecholamines
697
Sudden release of hormones causing sudden "attack" due to chromaffin cell tumor in the adrenal medulla resulting in excessive secretion of EPI and NE
Pheochromocytoma
698
What cells are involved in pheochromocytomas?
chromaffin cells
699
Can be characterized by an exaggerated sympathetic response:
Pheochromocytoma
700
What hormones are inovled in pheochromocytoma?
Epi and NE
701
Entire length of thick filament (some overlapping thin filament)
A-band
702
Includes ONLY thin filaments:
I-band
703
ONLY thick filaments:
H-zone
704
Where thin filaments are anchored:
Z-line
705
Links the central regions of thick filaments:
M-line
706
When a sarcomere shortens during contraction, what happens to the zone of overlap?
Increases
707
When a sarcomere shortens during contraction, what happens to the I-band?
Decreases
708
When sarcomere shortens during contraction, what happens to the A-band?
THE A-BAND DOES NOT CHANGE IN LENGTH
709
Why does the A- band not change length?
Its the length of the thick filament
710
Functional unit of skeletal muscle:
sarcomere
711
The thin filament is composed of what 3 elements?
actin, tropomysin and torponin
712
What type of actin molecules make up the active site in which myosin binds?
G-actin
713
What all does troponin bind?
actin, tropomoysin and calcium
714
Troponin has 3 globular proteins:
T, C and I
715
The C globular protein of troponin binds to:
calcium
716
The thick filament is composed of:
Myosin
717
The myosin filament has multiple cross-bridges where heads can bind to the:
G-actin molecule
718
Dark band:
A-band
719
Light band:
I band
720
In muscle, function as an ATPase enzyme:
myosin
721
When myosin binds to ATP, what happens?
Hydrolyzes the ATP
722
What regulate when contracton can happen?
Troponin and Tropomyosin
723
Protein that connects thin filaments to glycoproteins in the sarcolemma
Dystrophin
724
Provides scaffolding for sarcomeres:
Dystrophin-glycoprotein complex
725
What is the difference between Duchenne's and Becker's muscular dystrophy?
Duchennes = more severe, low levels of dystrophin if any at all Beckers= makes some dystrophin but not enough, and because of this muscle cells weaken and die (better prognosis)
726
List some types of muscular dystrophies:
Duchenne, Beckers, Myotronic, Oclulopharyngeal, and limb girdle