Exam 2 - Pulmonary Parenchymal Disease Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

what are some differentials for canine eosinophilic airway/pulmonary disease?

A

allergic bronchitis/eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

parasites/heartworms

fungal

rarely neoplasia

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2
Q

what are the anatomic components that are commonly affected in pulmonary parenchymal disease?

A

alveoli. interstitium, & sometimes pulmonary vasculature

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3
Q

what was eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy formerly called?

A

pulmonary infiltrate with eosinophils

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4
Q

what is included in the syndrome of idiopathic eosinophilic lung disease?

A

allergic bronchitis

eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy

eosinophilic granulomatosis - intraluminal mass lesions

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5
Q

what is the underlying cause of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

unknown

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6
Q

how is eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy characterized?

A

eosinophilic infiltration of lung & bronchial mucosa

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7
Q

what are the common clinical signs associated with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

cough, exercise intolerance, tachypnea, & dyspnea

less commonly - nasal discharge & systemic signs such as lethargy & inappetance

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8
Q

what may owners mistake eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy for?

A

gagging/retching problem

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9
Q

what dogs are typically affected by eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

wide age range, but often young adult dogs

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10
Q

are signs of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy often progressive or static?

A

progressive

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11
Q

T/F: in animals with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy, 50% of cases will have a peripheral eosinophilia

A

true

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12
Q

what may be seen on thoracic radiographs on a dog with suspected eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

bronchointerstitial pattern, diffuse interstitial pattern, patchy alveolar pattern, & rare nodular pattern

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13
Q

how is eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy diagnosed?

A

cytology & excluding other differentials

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14
Q

what may be heard on auscultation of a patient with suspected eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

normal or may have crackles

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15
Q

T/F: radiographic changes associated with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy are often more severe in pattern when compared to chronic bronchitits

A

true

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16
Q

T/F: eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy is a diagnosis of exclusion

A

true

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17
Q

what diagnostics may be run when trying to rule out eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

fecal float, baermann test, culture of airway wash fluid, heartworm test, histoplasma antigen EIA test

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18
Q

what is the general treatment used when treating eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

prednisone 1mg/kg PO every 12 hours for 2 weeks then tapered off over 3 months

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19
Q

what medication is avoided when treating eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

cough suppressants

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20
Q

what is the prognosis of eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy dependent on?

A

severity of the disease

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21
Q

T/F: many patients with eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy may require lifelong therapy

A

true

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22
Q

what are 4 host defenses against bacterial pneumonia?

A
  1. nasoturbinate filtration
  2. protective airway reflexes (sneezing, coughing, bronchoconstriction)
  3. mucociliary clearance
  4. phagocytosis & killing by macrophages
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23
Q

what are some common causes of aspiration pneumonia?

A

vomiting, swallowing disorder, regurgitation, or iatrogenic causes

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24
Q

what are the main ways bacterial pneumonia occurs?

A

hematogenous or secondary

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25
what are some rare funguses that can cause fungal pneumonia?
cryptococcus, aspergillus, & sporothrix
26
what are some common fungal causes of fungal pneumonia?
histo, blasto, & coccidioides
27
what is a causative organism of protozoal pneumonia?
toxoplasmosis
28
what are some organisms that commonly cause viral pneumonia?
kennel cough, distemper, FIP, & rare calicivirus
29
what are some organisms that commonly cause parasitic infections leading to pneumonia?
heart worms, lung worms, & aberrant migration
30
what is bacterial bronchitis?
infection is limited to airways & peribronchial tissues
31
what is bronchopneumonia?
infection of airways, peribronchial tissue, & lung
32
what is hematogenous pneumonia?
infection that spreads to the lungs via the bloodstream
33
what is aspiration pneumonia?
infectious and/or chemical pneumonia resulting from aspiration of material into the lungs
34
about 1/2 of the cases of bacterial pneumonia seen in puppies are caused by what agent? what other 2 agents are also common?
bordetella bronchiseptica streptococcus species & mycoplasma
35
what are some examples of underlying causes of bacterial pneumonia?
kennel cough, bronchiectasis, foreign material, neoplasia, or ciliary dyskinesis
36
what are the common clinical signs seen with bacterial pneumonia?
soft cough, purulent nasal discharge, tachypnea/dyspnea, crackles on auscultation, & sometimes fever SIRS may occur
37
what diagnostic test is commonly used when bacterial pneumonia is suspected?
transtracheal wash - run cytology
38
what is the classic distribution of hematogenous pneumonia?
caudodorsal - increased blood flow to these lung lobes
39
hematogenously-borne pneumonia typically involves what?
alveolar infiltrates
40
what may be seen on cytology with a hematogenous pneumonia?
neutrophils, may be degenerate bacteria found in <50% of samples
41
what additional diagnostic should be run in suspected cases of hematogenous pneumonia?
culture & susceptibility testing
42
what is the treatment used for hematogenous pneumonia?
supportive therapy based off of severity of symptoms, & antibiotics for 1-2 weeks beyond clinical & radiographic remission
43
what are some common causes of bacterial pneumonia from immune dysfunction?
congenital immunodeficiency disorders FeLV/FIV primary ciliary dyskinesis
44
what causes aspiration pneumonia?
inhalation of liquid or solid material into the lungs
45
aspiration pneumonia may lead to what other 2 pneumonias?
bacterial and/or chemical
46
why can aspirated gastric contents be problematic?
the acid causes tissue necrosis, edema, & hemorrhage
47
what pattern is almost pathognomic for aspiration pneumonia?
cranioventral distribution
48
T/F: bronchoconstriction can occur as a result of aspiration pneumonia
true
49
what are the clinical signs associated with aspiration pneumonia?
acute severe signs may be coughing/systemically sick crackles may be heard upon auscultation
50
how is aspiration pneumonia diagnosed?
usually presumptive based on radiographic changes
51
when may radiographic changes be seen in patients with aspiration pneumonia?
24-48 hours after the event
52
if the patient is stable, what diagnostic test may be used?
tracheal wash - help guide antibiotic therapy
53
what should be apart of your evaluation when looking for a cause of aspiration pneumonia?
history of vomiting, seizures, regurgitation neurological problems esophagus problems
54
T/F: bronchoscopy is used for diagnosing aspiration pneumonia
false - usually avoided
55
what are some examples of a systemic neuromuscular disorders causing aspiration?
myasthenia gravis, polyneuropathy
56
what are some examples of a iatrogenic mechanisms causing aspiration?
force-feeding or misplaced feeding tube
57
what are some examples of decreased mentation causing aspiration?
post-anesthesia/sedation post-seizure CNS disease metabolic disease
58
what are some examples of oropharyngeal disorders causing aspiration?
cricopharyngeal dyssynchrony pharyngeal mass BOAS
59
what are some examples of laryngeal disorders causing aspiration?
laryngeal paralysis & laryngoplasty
60
what are some examples of esophageal disorders causing aspiration?
megaesophagus, dysmotility, & obstruction
61
what is included in emergency management of a patient with aspiration pneumonia?
if under anesthesia - suction airway oxygen supplementation, treat shock if present, & can try bronchodilators
62
how are antibiotics used in treating aspiration pneumonia?
IV - immediately if severe respiratory distress or sepsis IV fluids to maintain hydration - don't over-hydrate patients, can cause pulmonary edema nebulize & coupage, turn recumbent patients
63
what medications should be avoided in aspiration pneumonia patients?
diuretics - would dry up lungs cough suppressants - don't want to suppress the patient's ability to cough
64
how is aspiration pneumonia monitored?
clinical status, radiographic improvement, recheck rads after 1 week, & treat for 1 week beyond radiographic/clinical resolution
65
how is non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema determined to be non-cardiogenic?
physical exam, thoracic rads, & +/- echo
66
what is the mechanism of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
increased capillary permeability & changes in hydrostatic & oncotic pressure
67
what are some underlying diseases associated with non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
post-seizures, head trauma, upper airway obstruction, near-drowning, electrocution, smoke inhalation, & pulmonary thromboembolisms
68
what is acute respiratory distress syndrome?
form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema with a peracute onset that is associated with severe underlying inflammatory processes
69
T/F: acute respiratory distress syndrome affects cats more than dogs
false - dogs more than cats
70
what are the components involved in possible causes of SIRS?
sepsis, pneumonia, aspiration, pancreatitis, heatstroke, or multi-systemic trauma
71
what is the diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome?
acute onset of <72 hours of tachypnea & labored breathing known risk factors evidence of pulmonary capillary leakage without increased pulmonary capillary pressure evidence of hypoxemia evidence of pulmonary inflammation - neutrophilic inflammation on airway wash
72
what is the common pattern of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
interstitial to alveolar lung pattern in caudodorsal lung fields
73
T/F: neurogenic pulmonary edema occurs within minutes of the inciting incident
true
74
how is acute respiratory distress syndrome managed?
treat underlying disorders, fluid therapy to avoid hypotension, oxygen therapy, early nutritional support, & mechanical ventilation
75
what are the conditions that cause a hypercoagulable state?
1. activation of vascular endothelium - vessel wall injury 2. procoagulant states - hypercoagulability 3. stasis of blood flow
76
what diseases are associated with pulmonary thromboembolism?
PLN, HAC, IMHA, HW disease, sepsis, pancreatitis, SIRS, surgery, & neoplasia
77
what is the mechanism of pulmonary thromboembolism?
occlusion of pulmonary vasculature by a clot impairs oxygen transport from the lungs - ventilation perfusion mismatch
78
how are pulmonary thromboembolisms diagnosed?
usually presumptive & difficult to confirm
79
what clinical signs are associated with pulmonary thromboembolism?
acute onset of tachypnea/dyspnea, can develop cough/hemoptysis/cyanosis, or collapse, may hear crackles hypoxemia seen on arterial blood gas & hyperventilation (low PaCO2)
80
if you have a low d-dimers results, are you more or less likely to have a pulmonary thromboembolism?
less likely
81
what is the test of choice for diagnosing pulmonary thromboembolism?
CT angiogram
82
how is a patient with a suspected pulmonary thromboembolism managed?
supportive care, treating underlying condition, & inhibit further clot formation
83
what platelet inhibitor can be used for treating PTE?
clopidogrel
84
how to anticoagulant drugs work in treating PTE?
inactivate factors IIa & Xa by competing with antithrombin
85
what is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
aspiration
86
neurogenic non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema most commonly occurs with what?
seizures, head trauma, upper airway obstruction, or electrocution
87
what is it called when acute respiratory distress syndrome occurs as an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion?
tranfusion-related lung injury