Exam 2: Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes viruses?

A

They are made up exclusively of obligate, intracellular parasites.

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2
Q

The correct order of events in viral replication is:

A

adsorption, penetration, replication, assembly, release

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3
Q

The host range of a virus is mainly determined by

A

the ability to dock with host proteins during adsorption

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a possible genome found inside a virus?

Question 4 options:

double stranded DNA

single stranded DNA

double stranded RNA

single stranded RNA

All of these are possible genome components of certain viruses

A

All of these are possible genome components of certain viruses

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5
Q

Where should a specimen be collected from if a viral infection is suspected?

A

They should be collected from the affected site

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method used to diagnose a viral infection?

PCR

Enzyme Immunoassays

Direct fluorescent antibody staining

Serology

Cell culture techniques to grow the virus

All of the methods listed may be used to diagnose a viral infection.

A

All of the methods listed may be used to diagnose a viral infection.

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7
Q

Antiviral therapies normally target

A

The replication cycle of the virus

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8
Q

SARS-CoV-2 causes COVID-19.

A

true

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9
Q

SARS-CoV-2 does not have an envelope making it harder to deactivate.

t/f

A

false, covid19 is enveloped

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10
Q

There have never been any other coronavirus outbreaks in the world besides COVID-19.

t/f

A

false

2002-SARS
2012-MERS

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11
Q

Everyone that is infected with SARS-CoV-2 will have a fever.

t/f

A

false, symptoms vary

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12
Q

Which of the following is no longer used as a major criterion for viral classification and taxonomy?

A

disease caused

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13
Q

Which of the following virulence factors is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus?

A

endotoxins

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14
Q

How do staphylococci cause the epidermal layer of the skin to slough off and cause Scalded Skin Syndrome?

A

they produce exfoliative toxin, which is an epidermolytic toxin

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15
Q

Where is the primary reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus?

A

nares

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16
Q

The development of staphylococcal infection is determined by:

A
  • virulence of strain
  • size of inoculum
  • status of host’s immune system
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17
Q

The staphylococcal species that is associated with urinary tract infection in young, sexually active females is

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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18
Q

What antibiotic is used for detection of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Oxacillin

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19
Q

A women goes to the doctor complaining of large, raised, painful, suppurative abscesses on her leg. The woman does not have a fever, but you can see that she has inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue on her leg. What is the name of the lesions on her leg, and what organism causes this type of lesion?

A

Staphylococcus aureus and furuncles

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20
Q

All of the following staphylococci are coagulase-positive, except

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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21
Q

This staphylococcal species produces wide zones of beta hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar.

A

S. aureus

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22
Q

A young, healthy woman was rushed to the hospital with a high fever, hypotension, and shock. She had not been feeling well that day, but her condition progressively worsened throughout the day. She was feeling fine until a couple of days after she started menstruating. What condition could this woman be exhibiting?

A

TSS - toxic shock syndrome

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23
Q

What test differentiates staphylococci from streptococci?

A

catalase

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24
Q

Streptococci are commonly classified using all of the following methods except:

A

flagellar antigens.

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25
Streptococci are commonly classified by which methods?
- physiological characteristics - serological grouping or typing of C carbohydrate -biochemical characteristics
26
Which virulence factor helps Streptococcus pyogenes evade phagocytosis and adhere to mucosal cells?
M protein
27
Which organism causes scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
28
Which species is screened for near the end of pregnancy to prevent infection of the baby during delivery?
Streptococcus agalactiae
29
Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause all the following infections except:
pharyngitis
30
Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause all the following infections:
- pneumonia - bacteremia - meningitis
31
Which of the following organisms form grayish white colonies surrounded by a small zone of β-hemolysis on sheep blood agar?
Streptococcus agalactiae
32
Group A streptococcal disease can cause two serious complications of infection. These are
acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever
33
Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections?
penicillin
34
A microbiologist is reading a sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the SBA and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a wide, deep, clear zone of β-hemolysis around and under the colonies. What organism could this be?
Streptococcus pyogenes
35
A father brings his son to his doctor with the following symptoms: sluggishness with a fever of 38° C (100.5° F) for a week. His tonsils were red and the back of his throat turned a gray color with a membrane on it. What disease should the physician suspect?
diphtheria
36
To determine if the strain of Corynebacterium diphteriae under investigation is toxigenic, which test should be performed?
Elek test
37
Several picnic goers came down with gastroenteritis. The food, hot dogs, were cultured on SBA for 24 hours. There were small, round, smooth, translucent colonies surrounded by a narrow zone of β-hemolysis. A Gram stain showed gram + coccobacilli. Motility medium showed an umbrella pattern of motility at room temperature. What organism was isolated as the cause of the illness?
Listeria monocytogenes
38
Which of the following organisms has morphology best described as: square-ended, large, gram+ rods that appear like bamboo?
Bacillus anthracis
39
Which of the following species is a relatively common cause of food poisoning?
Bacillus cereus
40
Neisseria species are usually all of the following except:
motile
41
Neisseria species are usually all of the following:
- catalase positive - aerobic - oxidase positive
42
Which of the following is NOT a method that may be used in identifying Neisseria gonorrhoeae? Oxidase test Nucleic acid amplification test Gram Staining Coagglutination All of the methods listed may be used in the identification / diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
All of the methods listed may be used in the identification / diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
43
How is Neisseria meningitidis spread?
respiratory droplets
44
Which of the following organisms is normally a commensal of the upper respiratory tract, but can cause an opportunistic infection in otherwise health children and the elderly?
Moraxella catarrhalis
45
Which of the following is not considered a nonpathogenic Neisseria spp.? N. cinerea N. weaveri N. mucosa N. polysaccharea All of the organisms listed are nonpathogenic Neisseria spp.
All of the organisms listed are nonpathogenic Neisseria spp.
46
While examining a stool culture, you notice a moist, mucoid, pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is most likely growing on the agar?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
47
Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of enterics?
all are non-motile
48
Which of the following ARE general characteristic of enterics?
- ferments glucose - facultatively anaerobic - oxidase negative - gram-negative
49
What bacterium produces swarming colonies on nonselective media, such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?
Proteus mirabilis
50
The most common cause of community-acquired UTIs.
Escherichia coli
51
In the carrier state, where are pathogenic salmonella carried?
Gallbladder
52
Bacillary dysentery caused by this organism is marked by penetration of intestinal epithelial cells following attachment of the organisms to mucosal surfaces, local inflammation, shedding of the intestinal lining, and formation of ulcers that follow the epithelial penetration. What is this organism?
Shigella
53
Why can direct microscopy not be used to provide a presumptive identification of the enteric bacteria?
The microscopic characteristics are indistinguishable from other gram-negative bacteria.
54
All the following are biochemical features of Salmonella, except
lactose positive
55
All the following are biochemical features of Salmonella:
- indole negative - VP negative - hydrogen sulfide positive
56
What are the primary antigens used in serologic grouping of salmonellae?
Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen
57
What organism possesses the Vi antigen?
Salmonella Typhi
58
A child is diagnosed with meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods. What is the most probable identification of this organism?
Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
59
Which organism causes whooping cough?
Bordetella pertussis
60
What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day?
cholera
61
Which of the following is the nonfermenter that is the leading cause of healthcare acquired pneumonia and bacteremia?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
62
You have isolated an anaerobic bacterial species that is gram positive, bacillus in shape and forms spores. Which genus does this species probably belong to?
Clostridium
63
What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
Borelia burgdorferi
64
Which organism produces infectious elementary bodies and noninfectious reticulate bodies?
Chlamydia
65
What is the causative agent behind Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii
66
What is the smallest self-replicating, living, organism in nature?
Mycoplasma
67
Which staining procedure is usually used for Mycobacteria, because it provides the most reliable and useful results?
Acid Fast staining