EXAM 2 REVIEW Flashcards

(130 cards)

1
Q

___ is the process of somatic cell division

A

mitosis

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2
Q

____ is applied genetics in animals

A

animal breeding

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3
Q

___ is when the same genotype is expressed differently depending on the sex of the animal

A

sex influenced inheritance

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4
Q

___ is the interaction among genes at different loci. the expression of genes at one locus depends on alleles present at one or more other loci.

A

epistasis

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5
Q

___ is the term to describe an animal that is missing a chromosome (2n-1)

A

monosomy

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6
Q

the horned/polled gene in sheep is controlled by ___ inheritance

A

sex-influenced

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7
Q

which antigen is present in the blood of an individual with blood type AB?

A

A and B

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8
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
guanine and cytosine are held together with double bonds

A

false, they are held together by three hydrogen bonds

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
crossbreeding is the mating of individuals to maintain a relationship to a common ancestor

A

false, is the mating of different species

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10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
coat colors in many species are dependant on the effects of epistasis

A

true

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11
Q

novel species are commonly referred to as ___

A
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12
Q

when making a genetically engineered bacteria, ____ enzymes are used to insert a new DNA fragment into the plasmid

A

ligase

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13
Q

____ is the biotechnological process of changing the genetic potential of an individual for a trait such as height and eye color

A

gene enhancement

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14
Q

____ is the term used to describe the production of pharmaceuticals from livestock

A

pharming

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15
Q

TRUE OR FASLE:
when transgenically produced rennet was approved in 1990, it became the first food product from transgenic production to receive approval

A

true

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16
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
genetic diseases are the result of the absence of a gene or a chromosome defect in a gene

A

true

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17
Q

TRUE OR FASLE:
animal cloning holds potential for agriculture

A

true

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18
Q

a controversial technique that might be used to change humans for genetic potential for traits such as height is called:

a) gene enhancement
b) gene therapy
c) germ-line therapy
d) cloning

A

gene enhancement

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19
Q

which of the following techniques can be used to map the genetic code of animals

a) DNA sequencing
b) polymerase chain reaction
c) statistical analysis
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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20
Q

products that have both nutrient and pharmaceutical properties are called ____

A

nutraceuticals

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21
Q

the complete genetic material of an organism is called its ___

A

genome

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22
Q

____ is the process of building high molecular weight molecules by repeatedly chemically bonding the same compound to itself

A

polymerization

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23
Q

in what year did Gregor Mendel discover the principles of inheritance while working with garden peas

a) 1873
b) 1866
c) 1869
d) 1862

A

b) 1866

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24
Q

how many autosomes are present in the somatic cells of swine?

a) 38
b) 40
c) 36
d) 34

A

c) 36

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25
TRUE OR FALSE: the centromere is the region of the chromosome where the spindle fibers attach
true
26
____ enzymes are used to cut DNA and isolate its fragments
restriction
27
____ are genetically altered plants, animals, or microorganisms
genetically modified organism
28
TRUE OR FALSE: transgenic cows, goats, and sheep have been developed to secrete bioactive molecules into their blood, urine, and milk
true
29
TRUE OR FALSE: dolly the sheep was introduced in 1977 as the world's first clone of an adult animal
true
30
TRUE OR FALSE: bovine somatotropin is used in dairy cows to increase milk production
true
31
the locations of specific genes along a chromosome marked with probes are called a(n) ___ a) gene map b) novel gene c) intergenic microorganism d) founder
a) gene map
32
uses molecular techniques to determine the absolute position of these markers or genes within the genome.
physical mapping
33
a transgenic animal that is subsequently used to establish a transgenic line of animals is called a ___ a) pharmer b) probe c) clone d) founder
d) founder
34
____ is the cellular process of making a copy of a DNA molecule
DNA replication
35
a ____ is mating with a fully recessive tester animal to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous for a trait
testcross
36
____ is the result of no dominance between alleles
incomplete dominance
37
____ is the process of allowing some animals to be parents more than others
selection
38
what does the allele combination of RR represent
homozygous dominant
39
TRUE OR FALSE: carcass merit characteristics are considered to be lowly heritable
false
40
TRUE OR FALSE: in the manufacture of protein, transcription is the process of building RNA that is complimentary to DNA
true
41
____ is the application to industry of advances made in the techniques and instruments from the biological sciences
biotechnology
42
TRUE OR FASLE: "new biotechnology" owes its existence to the understanding of the cell and its components, and the genetic code
true
43
which of the following has been modified to produce insulin?
bacteria
44
TRUE OR FASLE: the Environmental Protection Agency, the Food and Drug Administration, and the United Stated Department of Agriculture are the three federal agencies which regulate genetically engineered products
true
45
___ is described as difficulty giving birth in animals
dystocia
46
___ is the hormone responsible for growth, development, and maintenance of follicles in the female, and production of sperm in the male
follicle stimulating hormone
47
the ___ is the organ through which oxygen and nutrients are passed to the fetus from the female and waste is passed from the fetus to the female
placenta
48
____ is a posture assumed by a sow in estrus such that they resist pressure applied to the back
lordosis
49
which of the following is NOT a fetal membrane a) amnion b) endometrium c) allantois d) chorion
b) endometrium
50
which of the following is the place where sperm cells mature a) epididymis b) vesicular glands c) all of the above d) prostate gland
a) epididymis
51
how many days will eggs generally remain in the oviduct
3-6
52
TRUE OR FALSE: the most important factors influencing the onset of puberty are age and weight
true
53
TRUE OR FALSE: fertilized eggs could go through natural or artificial incubation
true
54
TRUE OR FALSE: high levels of progesterone are responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy
true
55
___ is the term used to describe the fertilization of an ovum in a test tube or other environment outside of the body
in vitro
56
the ___ are the basis of the reproductive system and are either called the ovary or testis depending on the gender of the animals
gonads
57
how many minutes pass between the laying of one egg by a hen until ovulation occurs and begins the process again
30
58
at approximately how many hours prior to ovulation will a cow generally stand to be mounted by other females or males
12
59
TRUE OR FALSE: the magnum functions to add the thick portion of the albumen or white to the egg
true
60
TRUE OR FALSE: approximately two thirds of fetal growth occurs within the last trimester of pregnancy
true
61
TRUE OR FALSE: ovulation is the release of the ova from the ovary
true
62
ploidy
number of sets of homologous chromosomes in the genome of a cell or organism
63
aneuploidy
condition in which an organism has a chromosome number that is not an exact multiple of the monoploid number
64
trisomy
the presence of an extra chromosome.
65
polyploidy
presence of more than two sets or a pair of chromosomes
66
what are the sex chromosomes for male and female in mammals and chickens?
mammals: male: XY female: XX chickens: male: ZZ female: ZW
67
what is the name of the cells besides sex cells?
autosomes
68
chromosomes occur in pairs in ____
somatic cells; diploid (2n) number of chromosomes
69
germ cells, sperm and egg, only contain a ____ number
haploid (n)
70
a visual representation of the chromosomes of a species is called a ____
karyotype
71
what is gametogenesis
development of sex cells (sperm/oocyte)
72
what is mitosis
process of somatic cell division; diploid cell undergoes division that allows the production of two diploid cells (2n)
73
what is meiosis
reductional process (2n -> n) responsible for forming cells that contain half of the genetic material
74
qualitative traits
usually only one gene (2 alleles is involved and the phenotypic expression is not affected by the environmental condition) ex: coat color, comb type, eye color etc.
75
quantitative traits
multiple genes are involved, and phenotypic expression is affected by environmental conditions. The expression of the traits are measured from low to high
76
codominance occurs when
when neither allele masks the other and both are expressed in the phenotype
77
incomplete dominance occurs when
occurs when no dominance exists, and a heterozygous individual will appear as an intermediate between the two alleles. (ex: 1:2:1, chestnut brown x creamy white = palomino)
78
system of multiple alleles
multiple genes control economically important traits; combine in different ways in a population, and produce different phenotypes
79
testcrossing
can determine whether the animal is homozygous or heterozygous by mating that animal with one that has homozygous recessive genotype (aa).
80
sex linked inheritance
Some genes are located only on the X or Y chromosome and therefore are inherited only when that respective chromosome is passed on; X linked can be passed to male and female, Y linked can only be passed to males.
81
sex influenced inheritance
carried on the autosomes; the phenotypes are not expressed in the same way in the two sexes. – male with one recessive allele will show the trait, but female will need to have two recessives to show the same trait. – an example is horns in sheep. – sexing of day-old chicks
82
sex limited inheritance
traits are unique to only one sex; both sexes carry genes for these traits, but only one sex is capable of expression (milk production, litter size, egg production; beard formation/breast development)
83
marker assisted selection
conventional selection could be enhanced through the inclusion of genetic markers obtained through DNA analysis
84
transgenic animal
process of genetic modification; inserting the genes from one animal into another
85
TRUE OR FALSE: animals can be transgenically altered to produce organs that do not trigger rejection reactions for transplant into humans.
true
86
what is biotechnology
the development of products by a biological process.
87
where may products of biotechnology be used
disease research, food production, waste management, etc
88
who proposed the double helix structure of DNA
1953, James Watson and Francis Crick
89
what is the most used organism in biotechnology
Escherichia coli (E. Coli)
90
the discovery of which two essential components made gene cloning and DNA recombinant techniques possible
restriction enzymes and plasmid DNA
91
restriction enzymes are
DNA cutting enzymes; found primarily in bacteria where they play a defensive role against invading bacteriophage (a virus that attacks bacteria) by cutting the viral DNA into small fragments
92
plasmid DNA is
a circular form of self-replicating DNA that scientists can manipulate to carry and clone other pieces of DNA.
93
restriction site
the specific cite where restriction enzymes used to cut DNA
94
TRUE OR FALSE: blunt or sticky ends are able to recombine with any complementary DNA molecule
true
95
enzymes that join DNA together
ligases
96
cloning in biotechnology refers to the process of creating copies of
-DNA fragments (molecular cloning) -cells (cell cloning) -whole organisms
97
4 steps to clone DNA fragments
1. fragmentation 2. ligation 3. transformation 4. screening/selection
98
fragmentation
cutting and separating a piece of DNA
99
ligation
gluing together pieces of DNA using DNA ligase and vectors
100
transformation
insertion of the newly formed DNA pieces into cells
101
screening/selection
selection of cells successfully transformed with new DNA
102
polymerase chain reaction
amplifies small samples of DNA into large amounts; allows scientists to clone genes or gene fragments for identification and analysis, and it also allows for manipulation of an already identified gene
103
3 step process basic mechanism of PCR relies on
1. denaturation 2. annealing 3. elongation
104
denaturation
causes separation of the template DNA into single strands
105
annealing
allows primers (short nucleotides sequences) to bind (anneal) to the complementary bases at opposite ends of the target sequence
106
elongation
allows DNA polymerase to copy the template DNA and to synthesize a complementary strand
107
TRUE OR FALSE: Genetically modified crops outnumber all other genetically manipulated organisms (GMO)
true
108
micropropagation (plant tissue culture)
biotechnology that takes cells of a desired plant and uses them to generate another plant
109
TRUE OR FALSE: micropropagation can be combined with genetic engineering to produce large numbers of a plant that has been engineered to do something considered valuable
true
110
TRUE OR FALSE: scientific evidence continues to indicate that the risks associated with GM crops are not any greater than the risk posed by plants produced by traditional breeding methods
true
111
microinjection of cloned DNA into the pronucleus of a fertilized ovum continues to be a widely used method for producing
transgenic animals
112
cloning by nuclear transfer from somatic cells
involves transplanting the nucleus from a somatic cell of the animal into an egg with the nucleus removed
113
dolly the sheep was born in ___ and died in ___
1996; 2003
114
transgenic dairy cows that are resistant to _____, an infectious disease of the mammary gland
mastitis
115
TRUE OR FALSE: transgenic chickens and turkeys have been developed to resist avian diseases
true
116
what causes mastitis
S. aureus
117
Cows secreting ____in their milk are resistant to mastitis
lysostaphin
118
A cousin of ____, that is non-pathogenic is able to produce lysostaphin
staphylococcus
119
TRUE OR FALSE: the gene was introduced into Jersey cows and were able to resist mastitis infection by producing lysostaphin in their milk.
true
120
the production of pharmaceutical proteins in the blood or milk of transgenic animals is referred to as
gene pharming
121
genetic testing
involve direct examination of DNA molecules from blood or other tissues to find genetic disorders
122
gene therapy
a technique for correcting defective genes responsible for disease development, by insertion, alteration, or removal of genes within an individual’s cells
123
the study of how an individual’s inherited variation in different genes affects drug response
pharmacogenomics
124
_____are pharmaceuticals produced using biotechnology; particular recombinant DNA in bacteria
biopharmaceuticals
125
TRUE OR FALSE: the number of biopharmaceuticals on the market is just over 200
true
126
recombinant DNA
when you combine two DNA strands that could be from different organisms resulting in a new genetic combination
127
what has been among the most successful products of genetic engineering made available to agriculture
recombinant bovine somatropin (rBST)
128
when administered to dairy cows, BST causes
greater milk production
129
TRUE OR FALSE: several bacteria have been genetically altered to improve their ability to kill or repel pests
true
130
a 3% improvement in birthrate would result in
-1 mil beef calves born per year -3.2 million pigs born per year -3.7 mil gallons of milk produced per year