FINAL EXAM REVIEW Flashcards
5, 8, 10, 11, 14, & 27 (183 cards)
1
Q
_____ is the term used in nutrition to refer to the set of inorganic elements thus far established as necessary for life in one or more animal species
A
minerals
2
Q
a ____ trial measures the total intake and secretion of feed so that retention by the animal’s body can be measured
A
metabolism trial
3
Q
_____ is the major carbohydrate found in forages such as hay and silage
A
cellulose
4
Q
which of the following is NOT an essential fatty acid?
a) linoleic acid
b) linolenic acid
c) ascorbic acid
d) arachidonic acid
A
c) ascorbic acid
5
Q
which of the vitamins listed below is water soluble?
a) vitamin E
b) vitamin D
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin K
A
c) vitamin C
6
Q
which of the following is considered an essential amino acid?
a) histidine
b) methionine
c) arginine
d) all of the above
A
d) all of the above
7
Q
on an equal weight basis, fats provide _____ times more energy to the animal than carbohydrates do.
a) 2.65
b) 2.45
c) 2.25
d) 2.00
A
c) 2.25
8
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
the finishing phase for livestock requires a higher percentage of the total diet to be protein than does the growth phase
A
false
9
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
a basic nutritionist is first and foremost interested in maximal cost-effective feeding in a production setting
A
false
10
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
the maintenance nutrient requirement is the combination of nutrients needed for basal metabolism and normal animal movement
A
true
11
Q
a ____ is a chemical element or compound that supports normal growth, reproduction, lactation, or maintenance of life processes
A
nutrient
12
Q
_____ is the combined set of actions and biological functions of a living being directed at producing offspring
A
reproduction
13
Q
____ is the nutrient whose deficiency will cause death of an animal faster than any other
A
water
14
Q
the crude fiber portion of carbohydrates is derived from which of the following components?
a) all of the above
b) hemicellulose
c) insoluble lignin
d) cellulose
A
a) all of the above
15
Q
which of the following components of feed can be analyzed with infrared lights?
a) protein
b) all of the above
c) moisture
d) lipid
A
b) all of the above
16
Q
what percentage of the total cost of production is generally attributed to feed in the dairy industry?
a) 70
b) 65
c) 75
d) 50-60
A
d) 50-60
17
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
sodium and chlorine are micromineral
A
false
18
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
proximate analysis partitions feed into water, ash, crude protein, crude fiber, ether extract, and nitrogen-free extract
A
true
19
Q
an ____ amino acid must be supplied to the body by the diet
A
essential
20
Q
the process of replacing a human organ with one from an animal is known as ______
A
xenotransplantation
21
Q
_____ is the study of the body’s need and mechanism of acquiring, digesting, transporting, and metabolizing nutrients
A
nutrition
22
Q
which of the following is a basic type of analytical method used in analyzing feed for nutrient content?
a) biological procedures
b) chemical procedures
c) all of the above
d) microbiological procedures
A
c) all of the above
23
Q
carbohydrates contain approximately ____ kilocalories of energy per gram
a) 3.9
b) 4.0
c) 4.2
d) 3.8
A
b) 4.0
24
Q
TRUE OR FALSE:
an animal’s utilization of feed can be affected by the following factors: type of digestion tract, age and physiological state of the animal, and physical state of the feed
A
true
25
TRUE OR FALSE:
physiology and biotechnology are two disciplines of animal science
true
26
TRUE OR FASLE:
physiology is the discipline of animal science dealing with the study of physical and chemical processes of an animal or the body systems and cells of an animal
true
27
five of the 10 essential amino acids are
- methionine
- arginine
- lysine
- leucine
- histidine
28
TRUE OR FALSE:
energy feeds are usually high in starch and can easily be digested in nonruminants
true
29
gross energy ---> (B)----> (C)----> (D)---> (E)
(A) Urine & Gas Heat increment +Gain&Production
A - fecal energy loss
B - digestible energy
C - metabolize energy
D - net energy
E - maintenance
30
____ is the process of somatic cell division
mitosis
31
_____ is when the same genotype is expressed differently depending on the sex of the animal
sex-influenced
32
____ is applied genetics in animals
animal breeding
33
____ is the interaction among genes at different loci. the expression of genes at one locus depends on the alleles present at one or more loci
epistasis
34
____ is the term to describe an animal that is missing a chromosome (2n-1)
a) polyploidy
b) monosomy
c) aneuploidy
d) trisomy
b) monosomy
35
the horned/polled gene in sheep is controlled by ____ inheritance
a) sex-limited
b) none of the above
c) sex-influenced
d) sex-linked
a) sex-influenced
36
which antigen is present in the blood of an individual with blood type AB?
a) A and B
b) B
c) A
d) none of the above
a) A and B
37
TRUE OR FALSE:
guanine and cytosine are held together with double bonds
false
38
TRUE OR FALSE:
crossbreeding is the mating of individuals to maintain a relationship to a common ancestor
false
39
TRUE OR FALSE:
coat colors in many species are dependent on the effects of epistasis
true
40
novel species are commonly referred to as ____
transgenic
41
when making a genetically engineered bacteria, _____ enzymes are used to insert a new DNA fragment into the plasmid
ligase
42
_____ is the biotechnological process of changing the genetic potential of an individual for a trait such as height and eye color
gene enhancement
43
_____ is the term used to describe the production of pharmaceuticals from livestock
pharming
44
TRUE OR FALSE:
when transgenically produced rennet was approved in 1990, it became the first food product from transgenic production to receive approval
true
45
TRUE OR FALSE:
genetic diseases are the result of the absence of a gene in a chromosome or a defect in a gene
true
46
TRUE OR FALSE:
animal cloning holds potential for agriculture
true
47
a controversial technique that might be used to change humans for genetic potential for such traits as height is called
a) gene therapy
b) germ-line therapy
c) gene-enhancement
d) cloning
c) gene enhancement
48
which of the following techniques can be used to map the genetic code of animals
a) DNA sequencing
b) polymerase chain reaction
c) statistical analysis
d) all the above
d) all of the above
49
products that have both nutrient and pharmaceutical properties are called ____
a) monoclonal antibodies
b) nutraceuticals
c) interferons
d) transgenics
b) nutraceuticals
50
the complete genetic material of an organism is called its _____
genome
51
____ is the process of building high molecular weight molecules by repeatedly chemically bonding the same compound to itself
polymerization
52
in what year did Gregor Mendel discover the principles of inheritance while working with garden peas
a) 1873
b) 1869
c) 1862
d) 1866
d) 1866
53
how many autosomes are present in the somatic cells of swine
a) 36
b) 38
c) 40
d) 34
A) 36
54
TRUE OR FALSE:
the centromere is the region of the chromosome where the spindle fibers attach
true
55
____ enzymes are used to cut DNA and isolate its fragments
restriction
56
____ are genetically altered plants, animals, or microorganisms
transgenic
57
TRUE OR FALSE:
transgenic cows, goats, and sheep have been developed to secrete bioactive molecules into their blood, urine, and milk
true
58
TRUE OR FALSE:
dolly the sheep was introduced in 1997 as the world's first clone of an adult animal
true
59
TRUE OR FALSE:
bovine somatotropin is used in dairy cows to increase milk production
true
60
the locations of specific genes along a chromosome marked with probes are called a(n) ____
a) novel gene
b) intergenic microorganism
c) gene map
d) founder
c) gene map
61
a transgenic animal that is subsequently used to establish a transgenic line of animals is called a ____
a) founder
b) pharmer
c) probe
d) clone
a) founder
62
_____ is the cellular process of making a copy of a DNA molecule
DNA replication
63
a _____ is a mating with a fully recessive tester animal to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous for a trait
testcross
64
____ is the result of no dominance between alleles
incomplete dominance
65
____ is the process of allowing some animals to be parents more than others
selection
66
what does the allele combination of RR represent
a) homozygous recessive
b) heterozygous dominant
c) homozygous dominant
d) none of the above
c) homozygous dominant
67
TRUE OR FALSE:
carcass merit characteristics are considered to be lowly heritable
false
68
TRUE OR FALSE:
in the manufacture of protein, transcription is the process of building RNA that is complimentary to DNA
true
69
____ is the application to industry of advances made in the techniques and instruments from the biological sciences
biotechnology
70
TRUE OR FALSE:
"new biotechnology" owes its existence to the understanding of the cell and its components, and the genetic code
true
71
TRUE OR FALSE:
the Environmental Protection Agency, the Food and Drug Administration, and the United States Department of Agriculture are three federal agencies which regulate genetically engineered products
true
72
which of the following has been modified to produce human insulin
a) pomace fly
b) pig
c) nematodes
d) bacteria
d) bacteria
73
___ is described as difficult birthing in an animal
dystocia
74
____ is the hormone responsible for growth, development, and maintenance of follicles in the female, and production of sperm in the male
follicle stimulating hormone
75
the _____ is the organ through which oxygen and nutrients are passed to the fetus from the female and waste is passed from the fetus to the female
placenta
76
____ is a posture assumed by a sow in estrus such that they resist pressure applied to the back
lordosis
77
which of the following is not a fetal membrane
a) amnion
b) allantois
c) endometrium
d) chorion
c) endometrium
78
which of the following is the place where sperm cells mature
a) vesicular glands
b) prostate gland
c) all the above
d) epididymis
d) epididymis
79
how many days will eggs generally remain in the oviduct
a) 7-9
b) 10-11
c) 3-6
d) 1-2
c) 3-6
80
TRUE OR FALSE:
the most important factors influencing the onset of puberty are age and weight
true
81
TRUE OR FASLE:
fertilized eggs could go through natural or artificial incubation
true
82
TRUE OR FALSE:
high levels of progesterone are responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy
true
83
____ is the term used to describe the fertilization of an ovum in a test tube or other environment outside of the body
in vitro
84
the ____ are the basis of the reproductive system and are called either the ovary or testis depending on the gender of the animals
gonads
85
how many minutes pass between the laying of one egg by a hen until ovulation occurs and begins the process again
a) 10
b) 150
c) 3
d) 30
d) 30
86
approximately how many hours prior to ovulation will a cow generally stand to be mounted by other females or males
a) 12
b) 8
c) 5
d) 18
a) 12
87
TRUE OR FALSE:
the magnum functions to add the thick portion of the albumen or white to the egg
true
88
TRUE OR FALSE:
approximately two-thirds of fetal growth occurs within the last trimester of pregnancy
true
89
TRUE OR FALSE:
ovulation is the release of the ova from the ovary
true
90
in what decade did embryo transfer become available to livestock producers
a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 1990s
d) 1970s
d) 1970s
91
how many hours on average will cattle be in heat
a) 17
b) 14
c) 8
d) 16
b) 14
92
which hormone from this list is released from the hypothalamus and causes the others on the list to be released
a) gonadotropin releasing hormone
b) none of the above
c) follicle stimulating hormone
d) luteinizing hormone
a) gonadotropin releasing hormone
93
how many functional ovary is found in hen
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5
c) 1
94
____ is the change in gene frequency of a small breeding population due to chance
genetic drift
95
how many chromosomes (2n) do cattle have
a) 54
b) 38
c) 46
d) 60
d) 60
96
TRUE OR FALSE:
genetic engineering describes the technologies for moving genes from one species to another
true
97
TRUE OR FALSE:
recessive alleles express themselves to the exclusion of the other alleles
false
98
_____ is the first milk given by a female after birth of young
colostrum
99
____ is the technique that allow fertilized egg collected from one individual to be placed in another (recipient)
embryo transfer
100
the ____ is a structure at the end of the oviduct that surrounds the ovary and captures the ovum released from the follicle in the female
fimbriae
101
the ____ acts as a passageway for sperm cells, acts as the primary barrier between the external and internal environment, and acts as a passageway for the fetus at parturition
cervix
102
semen is usually collected by stimulating the man to ejaculate into
a) artificial vagina
b) electro ejaculator
c) female on heat
d) reproductive tract
a) artificial vagina
103
TRUE OR FALSE:
calcification of the shell of the egg occurs in the uterus of the hen
true
104
TRUE OR FALSE:
testosterone is the primary male hormone
true
105
TRUE OR FALSE:
in chicken, it is necessary for sperm to be present in the female reproductive tract for an egg to form
false
106
TRUE OR FALSE:
the cervical seal or plug prevents the entrance of contaminants from the vagina to the cervix when an embryo is present
true
107
as of 2008, the Food Drug Administration considers products from cloned animals safe to eat
true
108
a restriction enzyme can be used to cut a chain of DNA and put a plasmid DNA into bacteria
true
109
genetically modified ____ outnumber all other genetically manipulated organisms
a) animals
b) fish
c) crops
d) bacteria
c) crops
110
many environment conditions can have profound influences on reproductive function. ____ and _____ are two factors discussed in class that can greatly affect animal's reproductive performance
stress and nutrition
111
the period between parturition and the onset of estrous activity is referred to as the _____
postpartum interval
112
which of the following are considered clinical signs of disease
a) fever
b) edema
c) weight loss
d) all the above
d) all the above
113
made up of cells and protective mechanisms that respond in a generic or non-specific way to infectious threats
a) innate immunity
b) active immunity
c) adaptive immunity
d) surface barriers
a) innate immunity
114
which of the following may lead to an animal being more vulnerable to certain diseases
a) genetics
b) environmental factors
c) all of the above
d) poor nutrition
c) all of the above
115
which of the following has been known to cause food poisoning in humans
a) escherichia coli O157:H7
b) all of the above
c) brucellosis
d) bovine spongiform encephalopathy
a) escherichia coli O157:H7
116
which describes the capability of organism to produce disease
a) chronic
b) pathogenicity
c) virulence
d) stress
b) pathogenicity
117
which of the following would be characterized as a predisposing cause of disease
a) bacteria
b) protozoa
c) genetics
d) fungi
c) genetics
118
which of the following program units within APHIS qualifies private veterinarians to work cooperatively with federal and states veterinarians
a) Animal Care
b) Veterinary Services
c) Veterinarian Accreditation Program
d) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
c) Veterinarian Accreditation Program
119
which of the following are surface barriers that prevent disease-causing organisms from entering an animal
a) all of the above
b) cilia
c) mucus
d) skin
a) all the above
120
TRUE OR FALSE:
a pathogen is a living disease-producing agent
true
121
TRUE OR FALSE:
animal or insect bites can spread rabies, Lyme disease, or Rocky Mountain spotted fever
true
122
____ is the process of acquiring immunity by receiving preformed antibodies against infectious agents as from mother to offspring via colostrum
passive immunity
123
____ is the unit within APHIS that is responsible for inspecting animals used for research and exhibition and ensure compliance with animal welfare legislation
animal care
124
_____ is the natural ability of animals to remain unaffected by pathogens, toxins, irritants, or poisons
resistance
125
___ is where veterinarian practices medicine at a fixed location
animal clinic
126
_____ is immunity to an infectious agent developed in response to the infectious agent or a vaccine for the disease
active immunity
127
____ is the term to describe the capability of a disease to be transmitted from animal to animal
contagious
128
TRUE OR FALSE:
in order for live animals to enter to United States, they must be immediately quarantined and held in import center until it can be determined that they are healthy
true
129
TRUE OR FALSE:
a necropsy can be used as a diagnostic tool
true
130
the Bureau of Customs and Border Protection protects United States agriculture from foreign pests and disease through an elaborate system of inspection and seizure
true
131
TRUE OR FALSE:
Florida is one of the three states with quarantine facilities for shipments of personally owned pet birds and commercial shipments of pet birds into the United States
true
132
TRUE OR FALSE:
The United States Animal Health Association is a government agency that informs authorities of current disease situations, method of control, and other information about disease
false
133
TRUE OR FALSE:
herd health programs generally improve returns above the cost of the program
true
134
which of the following describes a state of infectious disease where no readily observable clinical signs exist
a) chronic
b) acute
c) subclinical
d) clinical
c) subclinical
135
currently how many diseases have been identified as zoonotic
a) about 50
b) more than 100
c) several thousand
d) only 10
b) more than 100
136
which of the following are examples of environmental factors that may decrease an animal's ability to fight off disease
a) chilling
b) all the above
c) inadequate ventilation
d) crowding
b) all of the above
137
TRUE OR FALSE:
the Pure Food Act and Meat Inspection Act of 1906 were the direct result of the publishing of The Jungle by Upton Sinclair
true
138
which bacteria can be found in contaminated seafood and results in cramps, abdominal pain lasting 1-7 days, fever, and chills
a) staphylococcus aureus
b) vibrio parahaemolyticus
c) echerichia coli
d) salmonella
b) vibrio parahaemolyticus
139
TRUE OR FALSE:
the HAACP program requires a plant to maintain certain documents, including hazard analysis, and a written HAACP plan
true
140
how many organisms have caused problems with enough frequency to become a concern in the United States
a) 14
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18
a) 14
141
which bacteria causes acute infectious diarrhea, is associated with Gulian-Barr syndrome, and is usually found in raw or undercooked chicken
a) vibrio
b) escherichia coli
c) campylobacter
d) salmonella
c) campylobacter
142
TRUE OR FALSE:
STOP, LAST, SOS are tests performed by the FDA either on the farm or in slaughter facilities to detect illegal residues
true
143
TRUE OR FALSE:
the contamination of hamburger meat with E. coli O157:H7 from a well-known fast-food restaurant bought the public's attention to food safety
true
144
TRUE OR FALSE:
many of the problems with food and its safety are the responsibilities of the consumer or food handler
true
145
what percent of illness due to contaminated foods could be prevented if the food handler and preparer takes proper measures
a) 76
b) 77
c) 78 (NO)
d) 75
b) 77%
146
TRUE OR FALSE:
thawing foods should be done either in the microwave or under hot running water
false
147
an ____ is a pathogen that has mutated to become more virulent or which have only recently been recognized as a safety issue
emerging pathogen
148
the ____ inspects meat carcasses for illegal residues at the slaughter plants
Food Safety and Inspection Services
149
the ____ has caused sporadic and epidemic gastrointestinal disease that causes overwhelming, dehydrating diarrhea and results from eating shellfish (not the former name)
norovirus
150
the ______ is a list of common food additives given special safe status under the 1958 Food Additive Amendment because of their previous records as safe food additives
Generally Recognized as Safe (GRAS)
151
the _____ is the length of time an antibiotic must be taken away from an animal before the animal can be legally slaughtered
withdrawal time
152
which pathogen is associated with hemorrhagic colitis
a) escherichia coli O157:H7
b) campylobacter
c) salmonella
d) vibrio
a) escherichia coli O157:H7
153
how many times a year must a dairy farm be inspected as part of the Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
a) 2
154
which HAACP principle calls for the establishment of critical limits for each critical point
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
b) 3
155
which bacteria causes acute infectious diarrhea in developed countries and is the most commonly isolated bacterial intestinal pathogen in the United States, and it usually found in undercooked or raw chicken
a) escherichia coli
b) salmonella
c) campylobacter
d) vibrio
a) campylobacter
156
how many compounds are monitored by the Food and Drug Administration
a) 100
b) 150
c) 50
d) 200
a) 100
157
which of the following food safety concerns pose the largest threat to consumers
a) naturally-occurring toxicants
b) food-borne pathogen
c) hormones used on animals
d) irradiated foods
b) food-borne pathogen
158
TRUE OR FALSE:
humans fear that eating animals who have been treated with antibiotics may lead to the development of "superbugs" that might threaten human health
true
159
TRUE OR FALSE:
toxoplasm gondii is a parasitic protazoa that can be acquired from raw or undercooked meats, or through contact with cats that shed cysts in their feces
true
160
TRUE OR FALSE:
the best herd health management programs involve control of disease
false
161
TRUE OR FALSE:
the swine and poultry industries tend to have less sophisticated biosecurity measures than other livestock industries
false
162
TRUE OR FALSE:
biopsy only deals with the surgical removal of tissue specimen
false
163
TRUE OR FALSE:
because newborns are not immediately capable of protecting themselves with their own antibody production, they receive passive immunity in the form of colostrum
true
164
____ are foods treated with ionized pasteurization which kills insects, bacteria, and parasites
irradiated foods
165
a ____ is a disease-causing bacterium or virus
pathogen
166
the ____ prohibited the addition of any substance to human food shown to cause cancer in any animal at any dose
Delaney clause
167
____ under the HAACP system requires that plants conduct a hazard analysis
Principle 1
168
which of the following are focuses of the Fight BAC! campaign
a) cook
b) separate
c) all the above
d) clean
c) all the above
169
how many principles provide the basis for the HAACP system
a) 7
b) 5
c) 9
d) 3
a) 7
170
TRUE OR FALSE:
the primary transmission mode of the hepatitis A virus is person-to-person by the fecal-oral route
true
171
TRUE OR FALSE:
if pathogens enter the body through the surface barriers, the immune system does not attack them
false
172
TRUE OR FALSE:
disease prevention and treatments require constant vigilance at least for some species
true
173
TRUE OR FALSE:
poorly nourished cattle are only vulnerable to metabolic diseases and not infectious diseases
false
174
a _____ is a step or procedure in a food process at which control can be applied and, as a result, a food safety hazard can be prevented
critical control point
175
TRUE OR FALSE:
E. coli H157:H7 causes a watery diarrhea, which usually lasts only 1-7 days
false
176
TRUE OR FALSE:
Mad Cow Disease is a degenerative central nervous system disease in cattle that is believed to be contracted through eating mammalian-derived protein by-products
true
177
TRUE OR FALSE:
a contagious disease is an infectious disease caused by a microorganism, which is spread rapidly from animal to animal
true
178
TRUE OR FALSE:
antibodies are not proteins, but they are produced by the body to attack infectious agents and neutralize them
false
179
____ are caused by living organisms which invade and multiple in or on the body and result in damage to the body
infectious diseases
180
a ____ disease will have symptoms that develop slowly over a period of weeks or months
chronic
181
a ____ is any condition or state of health that confers a tendency and/or susceptibility to disease
predisposing cause
182
TRUE OR FALSE:
a person with expertise in diagnosing disease is called a diagnostician
true
183
TRUE OR FALSE:
natural or synthetic drugs that have the capability to inhibit or kill bacteria are unique for controlling infectious disease caused by pathogenic bacteria
true
