Exam 3 Flashcards
Lectures 12-16 (147 cards)
1
Q
How is secondary syphilis most reliably detected?
A
non-treponemal tests (VDRL)
2
Q
What is a secondary syphilis symptom?
A
rash
3
Q
What type of borrelia infections cause epidemic relapsing fever?
A
Borrelia Recurrentis
4
Q
What type of borrelia infections cause endemic relapsing fever?
A
Borrelia Spp.
5
Q
What type of borrelia infections cause lyme disease?
A
Borrelia Burgdorferi
6
Q
What is the reservoir for Borrelia Recurrentis?
A
Humans
7
Q
What is the reservoir for Borrelia Spp.?
A
- Rodents
- Soft ticks
8
Q
What is the reservoir for Borrelia Burgdorferi?
A
- (Deer mice) Rodents
- Deer
- Pets
- Hard ticks
9
Q
What is the vector for Borrelia Recurrentis?
A
Body louse (perdiculus humanus)
10
Q
What is the vector for Borrelia Spp.?
A
Soft-shelled tick (Ornithodoros spp.)
11
Q
What is the vector for Borrelia Burgdorferi?
A
Hard-shelled tick (Ixodes spp.)
12
Q
What disease will have “Bullseye rash” or Erythema Chronicum migrans rash? What causes it?
A
- Lyme Borreliosis (Lyme Disease)
- Borrelia Burgdorferi
13
Q
What is the most severe form of Leptospirosis?
A
Weil’s disease
14
Q
What causes Leptospirosis?
A
Leptospira Interrogans
15
Q
When and where are leptospires usually detected?
A
In the urine, several weeks after the first infection
(difficult to find in the blood after the first week)
16
Q
What is Lymphogranuloma Venerium (LGV)?
A
a sexually transmitted disease caused by the invasive serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis
17
Q
Where does lymphogranuloma Venerium (LGV) cause infection?
A
lymphatics and lymph nodes
18
Q
What are the two forms of Chlamydia?
A
- Elementary body
- Reticulate body
19
Q
Which is the “infectious particle” between the two forms of clamydia?
A
elementary body
20
Q
What is the most reliable detection method for Chlamydia trachomatis?
A
Nucleic acid probes
21
Q
What is transovarian transmission?
A
a infected parent will pass on the infection to their offspring
(infected parent –> infected baby)
22
Q
What disease can be transmitted by transovarian transmission?
A
Rickettsia Rickettsia
23
Q
What is the vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) or Rickettsia Rickettsii?
A
Ticks or Dermacentor andersoni
24
Q
What is the vector for Riskettsia Prowazekii (Epidemic Typhus)?
A
Human Body Louse
25
What is the vector for Riskettsia Typhi (Endemic typhus)?
Rat flea
26
What is the cause of epidemic typhus (fatal)?
Rickettsia Prowazekii
27
What is the cause of endemic typhus (milder)?
Rickettsia Typhi
28
What is the acronym for Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
HGA
29
In Anaplasma phagocytophilum patients, they will have morulae in what type of cell?
the cytoplasm of *granulocytes*
30
In Ehrilichia (HME) patients, they will have morulae in what type of cell?
*MONOCYTES*
31
What medium does Vibrio Cholera grow on/recovery?
Thiosulphate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS) agar
32
What is an alternate way for testing oxidase?
Can test for oxidase by dropping oxidase reagent directly onto agar growth except for MacConkey Agar
33
Does vibrio cholera occur in humans, animals, or both?
humans
34
Does stomach acidity play a part in V. cholera susceptibility?
YES, if you have a more alkaline than normal stomach acid... you are more susceptible to V. cholerae infection
(Alkaline = more likely V. Cholera infection)
35
Mechanism of Action (MOA) of V. Cholera toxin is similar to what bacterium?
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
36
Why does Vibrio Cholera come up pink on MacConkey if it isn't lactose fermenting?
Vibrio Cholera itself is pink (omg girlie pop), so it looks pink despite not being lactose fermenting
37
What does V. vulnificus have that gives them the ability to evade destruction by stomach acid?
capsular polysccharide
38
What type of Vibrio is most likely to be isolated from blood culture?
Vibrio Vulnificus
39
What does Aeromonas look like on blood agar?
Grey, shiny, big (puffy), and just grows well
40
Why is Aeromonas overlooked in stool cultures?
b/c aeromonas is *lactose positive*
(which is usually not significant)
41
What is useful in identifying vibrio and aeromonas?
O/129 disk susceptibility testing
42
What characteristics are commonly found in patients diagnosed with an Aeromonas hydrophila infection?
1. oxidase positive
2. indole positive
3. beta hemolytic
4. gram negative bacteria
5. No growth in 6.5% NaCl
6. O/129 resistant
7. found in stool of a gastroenteritis patient
43
What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?
Campylobacter
44
What species of Campylobacter is found in stool?
Camplobacter jejuni
45
What species of Campylobacter is found in blood?
Camplobacter Fetus
46
What are the characteristics of Campylobacter bacteria?
1. small comma-shaped
1a. Greek Campylo = curved
2. Motile
3. Microaerophilic atmosphere (inc. CO2, redu. O2)
4. *grows best at 42C*
47
What illness can develop after getting Campylobacter food poisoning?
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
48
Helicobacter is identified by it's rapid production of _______
urease
49
What test is used to diagnose helicobacter?
Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test (using an invasive mucosal biopsy specimen)
50
What does P. mallei produce?
glanders
51
What does P. pseudomallei produce?
melioidosis
52
Is pseudomonas aeruginosa motile?
yes
53
How is Pseudomonas Aeruginosa differentiated from other Non-Fermenting Gram Negative Bacteria?
pyoverdine production
54
What does pyoverdine do?
it's a siderophore that functions as a toxin by removing iron from the mitochondria (damaging the organelle)
55
If this patient get's localized Pseudomonas Aeruginosa infection, it's fatal.
Cystic fibrosis
56
What does Pseudomonas Aeruginosa look like?
Grows slow, faintly stained, cells are similar in size/shape
57
If Acinetobacter Baumannii is gram-*NEGATIVE* why does it get mistaken as gram-positive?
it naturally retains crystal violet
(purple usually = gram positive)
58
Why is Acinetobacter Baumannii confused for E. coli?
Acinetobacter Baumannii *oxidizes* lactose
E. coli ferments lactose on MacConkey
59
What does Burkholderia Pseudomallei cause?
Meliodosis/Whitmore's disease
60
Where is Burkholderia Pseudomallei commonly found?
Southeast Asia and Australia
61
What is the morphology of B. pseudomallei?
Look crinkly
Look like corn flowers
62
What two organisms are commonly isolated in cystic fibrosis patients?
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa and B. Cepacia
63
What is the difference between burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas?
Stenotrophomonas is Non-fermenting GNB that is *oxidase negative*
Burkholderia is Non-fermenting GNB that is *oxidase positive*, O/129 Resistant, motile, etc.
64
Which one is resistant/susceptible to amoxicillin clavulanate?
1. B. cepacian
2. B. pseudomallei
1. resistant
2. susceptible
65
What are names for Mycoplasma pneumonia?
1. *walking pneumonia*
2. atypical pneumonia
3. community-acquired pneumonia
66
What is the morphology of Mycoplasma pneumonia colonies?
fried egg
67
What virulence factor(s) does Mycoplasma pneumonia produce?
1. *Community Acquired Respiratory Distress Syndrome (CARDS) toxin*
2. hydrogen peroxide
68
What is the rapid and effective way to determine the presence of M. pneumoniae?
PCR
69
Does PCR indicate the activity or viability of the cells present w/ M. pneumoniae?
no
70
How does Mycoplasma Pneumonia differentiate from Ureaplasma Urealyticum?
Mycoplasma Pneumonia: urease negative
Ureaplasma Urealyticum: urease positive
71
How is Ureaplasma Urealyticum transmitted?
from mother to infant during birth or sexually
72
What makes Mycobacteria that gorl?
Mycolic acid is found in the cell wall
73
What Runyon group is called "rapid growers"?
Group IV, because it grows in 7 days or less
74
What two bacterium are Niacin negative and aerobic?
1. M. Bovis
2. M. tuberculosis (in asians)
75
What does M. scrofulaceum cause?
cervical lymphadenitis in children
76
What is Mycobacterium ulcerans aka?
Bairnsdale or Buruli ulcer
77
What is the morphology of Mycobacterium kansasii?
Acid fast stain: cells are long, rectangular and beaded,
larger than TB, resemble a *Shepherd’s crook*
78
How is Mycobacterium kansasii different from pulmonary TB?
does not disseminate – predisposition to diseased lung
79
Why does Mycobacterium leprae not grow on artificial media?
it's not evolved enough to survive w/o it's natural reservoir (armadillo)
80
What does Mycobacterium leprae cause?
Leprosy – also known as Hansen’s disease
81
What is the percentage of people that are susceptible to Mycobacterium leprae?
5%
82
What are the two types of leprosy?
1. Lepromatous leprosy
2. Tuberculoid leprosy
83
What are the characteristics of Lepromatous leprosy?
1. low CMI
2. Th2 response
3. high bacterial load
4. may lethal
5. lepromin test is non-reactive
84
What are the characteristics of Tuberculoid Leprosy?
1. high CMI
2. Th1 response
3. low bacterial load
4. may heal on their own
5. lepromin test is reactive
85
You are more susceptible to getting Leprosy if you have ______
NRAMP1 gene
86
What are the five primary drug panels for TB?
1. Rifampin
2. Isoniazid
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Ethambutol
5. Streptomycin
87
T or F, Both IGRA and TST can distinguish active from latent tuberculosis.
False, Neither IGRA nor TAT can distinguish latent tuberculosis
88
What are the characteristics of TST test for TB?
1. Low specificity in certain populations
2. Two visits
3. Variability in test interpretation by reader (not consistant)
89
What are the characteristics of IGRA test for TB?
1. High specificity in certain populations
2. One visits
3. Low Variability in test interpretation by reader (consistant)
90
What bacteria(s) can get false positives due to ESAT and CRP species specificity?
1. Mycobacterium szulgai
2. Mycobacterium kansasii
3. Mycobacterium marinum.
91
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for head and neck?
1. tissue fluid aspirate
2. cerebrospinal fluid
92
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for respiratory tract?
1. Pleural fluid
2. broncho alveolar
3. lavage fluid
93
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Abdomen?
Peritoneal (ascitic fluid) abscess aspirate
94
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Urinary tract?
Suprapubic aspirate (syringe to the bladder broooo)
95
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for bone and joint?
1. Bone Marrow
2. Synovial fluid
96
What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Genital tract?
1. Endoscopy specimen
2. Endometrial Aspirate
97
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for head & neck?
1. throat swab
2. Nasopharayngeal swab
98
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for respiratory tract?
1. Expectorated sputum
2. nasal swab
99
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for abdomen?
1. Gastric lavage
2. rectal swab
3. colostomy drainage
100
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for urinary tract?
1. voided urine
2. catheterised urine
3. urethral swab
101
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for genital tract?
1. Vag swab
2. cervical swab
102
What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for soft tissue?
superficial material swab
103
What bacterium are non-spore forming bacilli, GPB, and clostridium?
1. Actinomycetes
2. Bifidobacterium
3. Propionibacerium
104
What are bacterium non-spore forming bacilli, GNB, and clostridium?
1. Bacteroides
2. Fusobacterium
3. Prevotella
4. Porphyromonas
105
What bacterium are non-spore forming cocci, GPB, and clostridium?
1. Peptococcus
2. Pepto-streptococcus
3. Streptococcus
106
What bacterium are non-spore forming cocci, GNB, and clostridium?
Veilonella
107
What type of Clostridium has a double zone of hemolysis (beta + alpha) on blood agar and egg yolk agar?
Clostridium Perfringens
108
What is the morphology of Actinomyces israelii?
1. 0.5-2mm in diameter
2. white or grey white smooth
3. entire or lobulated
4. resembling a *molar tooth*
5. looks like bread crumbs or non-uniformly turbid in thioglycollate broth
109
What mediums is Actinomyces israelii inoculated on?
sheep blood agar, brain-heart infusion agar, glucose broth and enriched thioglycollate broth
for 14 days
110
If you got infections in the joints ESPECIALLY THE SHOULDER, it means it's probably
Cutibacterium acnes
111
Bacteroides fragilis can grow in ____ and resistant to _____
Can grow in the presence of bile (duh gut bacteria) and also resistant to kanamycin vancomycin
112
What does porphyromonas look like under UV light?
brick-red fluorescence
113
What bacteria is saccharolytic (can ferment carbohydrates)?
Prevotella
114
What bacteria is asaccharolytic (can't ferment carbohydrates)?
Porphyromonas
115
What looks like a fried egg?
fusobacterium necrophorum (Lemiere's syndrome)
116
What are common characteristics found with Lemiere's Syndrome?
1. infected blood clots that function as seeds
2. (young adult males [20y/o])
3. looks like strep throat
4. can kill patient from 48-72 hrs (stiff neck, headache, throat can’t swallow)
117
What is the morphology of Bacteroides ureolyticus?
agar pitting
118
What is the morphology of Porphyromonas?
black or tan pigment
119
What is the morphology of fusobacterium varium?
greening of the medium
120
What is upper respiratory?
1. throat
2. pharynx
3. middle ear
4. sinuses
121
What is lower respiratory?
1. trachea
2. bronchi
3. lung
122
What is the morphology of Strep. Pyogenes (Strep throat)?
1. GPB, cocci, chains
2. fastidious
3. beta hemolysis
4. catalase negative
5. bacitracin sensitive
6. PYRase positive
7. CAMP negative
122
What is the morphology of Strep. Pyogenes (Strep throat)?
1. GPB, cocci, chains
2. fastidious
3. beta hemolysis
4. catalase negative
5. bacitracin sensitive
6. PYRase positive
7. CAMP negative
8. virulent lol
123
Why do you need to perform a gram stain for Arcanobacterium hemolyticum throat samples?
b/c it looks like streptococcal pharyngitis
124
What are the stages of B. pertussis (whooping cough) and how long is each stage?
1. Incubation (7-10 days)
2. Catarrhal (1-2 weeks)
3. Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks)
4. Convalescent (3-4+ weeks)
125
What are the symptoms of B. pertussis Incubation?
none
126
What are the symptoms of B. pertussis catarrhal?
rhinorrhea, malaise, fever, sneezing, anorexia
127
What are the symptoms of B. pertussis paroxysmal?
whooping cough, vomiting, leukocytosis
128
What are the symptoms of B. pertussis convalescent?
less coughing, secondary complications
129
When is the highest bacterial culture of B. pertussis?
Catarrhal
130
When does the bacterial culture count start to drop for B. pertussis?
paroxysmal
131
What is the characteristics of Epiglottitis?
1. fastidious
2. capsulated GNB bacilli
3. oxidase positive
132
What bacterium causes Epidlottitis?
Haemonphilus influenzae type B
133
What is epiglottis?
Swelling of the epiglottis (uvula)
Life threatening --> can block the trachea and prevents swallowing
134
What is otitis externa?
swimmer's era (survives chlorine)
135
What is the bacterium that causes Lemiere's Disease?
Fusobacterium Necrophorum
136
How does Lemiere's Disease pathology?
Septic shock –-> passes thru the jugular –-> RBC aggregation –-> clots –-> clots on the move (septic emboli)
137
In the winter, what is the most frequent pathogen in ELDERLY patients? (esp. smokers)
S. pneumoniae
138
In the winter, what is the most frequent pathogen in children?
H. influenzae
139
What is the incubation time for Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP) or Ventilator Associated Pneumonia (VAP)?
48 hrs (if less than that it was acquired outside)
140
What is the most common pulmonary microorganism?
Strep. Pneumoniae
141
What are the five most common pulmonary microorganism?
1. Strep. Pneumoniae
2. Haemophylus influenzae
3. Influenza virus
4. Satphylococcus aureus
5. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
142
What organisms cause Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)?
1. S. Aureus
2. P. aeroginosa
143
What organism is the most common cause of Ventilator Associated Pneumonia (VAP)?
Acinetobacter baumannii
144
What would you see if the patient is aspirating?
mixed GPB and GNB flora field
145
What specimens are suitable oral flora (respiratory infection)?
1. percutaneous aspiration
2. protected bronchial brush
146
What organisms would you report as nosocomial (caught in the hospital) infections, if found in SIGNIFICANT amounts (b/c found normally in the body)?
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
3. Acinotobacter spp.
4. Burkholderia spp.
