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BMS 191 (Microbio) > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are common bacterial causes of diarrhea?

A
  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Salmonella spp.
  3. Shigella spp.
  4. Escherichia coli
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2
Q

What organisms causes Antibiotic Associated Diarrhea?

A
  1. Clostridium perfringens type A
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
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3
Q

What are organisms will have proximal bowel, non-inflammatory, non-fecal leukocytes?

A
  1. vibrio cholerae
  2. EAEC (E. Coli)
  3. ETEC (E. Coli)
  4. norovirus
  5. rotavirus
  6. adenovirus
  7. astrovirus
  8. giardia lamblia
  9. cryptosporidium
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4
Q

What are organisms will have colon, inflammatory, fecal leukocytes?

A
  1. Campylobacter
  2. Salmonella non-typhi
  3. shigella
  4. EIEC (e. coli)
  5. Entamoeba Histolytica
  6. Clostridium difficile
  7. Cyclospora Cayetanensis
  8. Isospora belli
  9. Microsporidia
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5
Q

What are organisms will have distal bowel, penetrating, fecal leukocytes?

A
  1. salmonella typhi
  2. salmonella paratyphi
  3. yersinia enterocolitica
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6
Q

What does penetrating mean? (lol)

A

invading lymphatics

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7
Q

What does inflammatory mean?

A
  1. invasion
  2. cytotoxins
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8
Q

What does non-inflammatory mean?

A
  1. adhesion
  2. enterotoxin
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9
Q

What is one of the most common food-borne diseases worldwide resulting from the contamination of food?

A

Staphylococcal Food Poisoning

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10
Q

What organism causes Staphylococcal Food Poisoning?

A

S. aureus enterotoxins

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of Staphylococcal Food Poisoning?

A
  1. nausea
  2. vomiting
  3. abdominal cramps (with or without diarrhea)
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12
Q

Onset of SFD is, slow or abrupt?

A

abrupt

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13
Q

How many types of heat stable enterotoxin superantigens are in the Staphylococcal enterotoxins (SEs) family?

A

9 types

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14
Q

What are the types of heat stable enterotoxin superantigens that are in the Staphylococcal enterotoxins (SEs) family?

A
  1. SEA
  2. SEB
  3. SEC
  4. SED
  5. SEE
  6. SEG
  7. SEH
  8. SEI
  9. SEJ
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15
Q

What is formed in a high protein food (meat), enterotoxin or neurotoxin?

A

enterotoxin

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16
Q

What is formed in a high carbohydrate food (rice, pasta), enterotoxin or neurotoxin?

A

neurotoxin

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17
Q

What is the second most common cause of bacterial food poisoning infection?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial food poisoning infection?

A

nontyphoidal Salmonella spp

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19
Q

What organism will cause inflammation, invasive fibriloenteritis, and Gastroenteritis?

A

V. parahemolyticus

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20
Q

What often gets confused for V. parahemolyticus?

A

V. cholerae

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21
Q

What causes diarrhea from exposure to Pets + LIvestock?

A
  1. Campylobacter
  2. Salmonella
  3. Giardia
  4. Cryptosporidium
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22
Q

What causes diarrhea from exposure to Daycare Centers? (da babas)

A
  1. Campylobacter
  2. Shigella
  3. Giardia
  4. Cryptosporidium
  5. C. difficile
  6. virus
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23
Q

What causes diarrhea from exposure to Antibiotics/Chemotherapy?

A
  1. C. perfringens (plasmid cpe)
  2. S. Aureus
  3. C. difficile
  4. K. oxytoca (amoxicillin +/- clavulanate)
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24
Q

What organism is associated with Poultry?

A
  1. Campylobacter
  2. Salmonella
  3. Shigella
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25
Q

What organism is associated with Ground beef, unpasteurized juice?

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

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26
Q

What organism is associated with Seafood/shellfish?

A
  1. V. cholerae
  2. V. vulnificus
  3. V. parahemolyticus
  4. Salmonella
  5. Anisakis
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27
Q

What organism is associated with Cheese, milk?

A

Listeria

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28
Q

What organism is associated with eggs?

A

Salmonella

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29
Q

What organism is associated with Mayonnaise & cream pies?

A
  1. Clostridium
  2. S. aureus
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30
Q

What organism is associated with fried rice?

A

B. cereus

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31
Q

What organism is associated with fresh berries?

A

Cyclospora (parasite)

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32
Q

What organism is associated with canned foods?

A

Clostridium

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33
Q

What organism is associated with Spring or contaminated water?

A
  1. V. cholerae
  2. Giardia
  3. Cryptosporidium
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34
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is ETEC?

A
  1. small bowel adherence
  2. heat-stable (ST) or heat-labile (LT)
  3. enterotoxin production
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35
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is EAEC?

A
  1. small and large bowel adherence
  2. enterotoxin production
  3. cytotoxin production
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36
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is EPEC?

A
  1. small bowel adherence
  2. epithelial cell effacement mediated by intimin
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37
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is EIEC?

A
  1. Mucosal invasion
  2. Inflammatory of large bowel
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38
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is DAEC?

A

diffuse adherence to epithelial cells

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39
Q

What are the mechanism(s) of pathogenic e. coli is STEC?

A
  1. Large bowel adherence mediated via intimin
  2. Shiga toxin 1, Shiga toxin 2
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40
Q

What is LT?

A

Heat Labile Toxin (Labile Toxin ?)

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41
Q

What is ST?

A

Heat Stable Toxin (Stable Toxin ?)

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42
Q

Both Shiga Toxins (type 1 and 2) are expressed on genes that are part of the “lambdoid prophages” genome. Why does that matter?

A

the use of certain antibiotics, such as quinolones, are known to induce prophage activation and may increase the seriousness of disease and result in fatal outcomes

(TL;DR: using antibiotics can trigger prophage activation and make the disease worse or fatal)

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43
Q

What is the most common cause of TRAVELER’S DIARRHEA?

A

ETEC = ENTEROTOXIGENIC E.COLI

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44
Q

What is the second most common cause of Traveler’s Diarrhea? What is it associated with?

A
  1. EAEC = ENTEROAGGREGATIVE E.COLI
  2. persistent diarrhea
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45
Q

What is another name for ENTEROPATHOGENIC E.COLI (EPEC)? Why?

A
  1. Enteroadherent E.coli
  2. they can adhere to HEp-2 cells
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46
Q

ENTEROPATHOGENIC E.COLI (EPEC) does not produce…

A

enterotoxins

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47
Q

Is ENTEROPATHOGENIC E.COLI (EPEC) invasive or non-invasive?

A

invasive

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48
Q

What age group is ENTEROPATHOGENIC E.COLI (EPEC) associated with? What symptom does it cause in this age group?

A
  1. infants and the children
  2. diarrhea
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49
Q

Where does ENTEROPATHOGENIC E.COLI (EPEC) attach to? What does this cause?

A
  1. Attach to mucosa of upper small intestine
  2. disruption of brush border microvilli
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50
Q

What species of Salmonella cause non-typhoidal (zoonotic), gastroenteritis, bacteraemia (invasive)?

A
  1. S. Typhimurium
  2. S. Enteritidis
  3. S. Dublin
  4. S. Virchow
  5. S. Heidelberg
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51
Q

What type of salmonella causes typhoid fever?

A

S. Enterica Typhi

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52
Q

What type of salmonella causes paratyphoid fever?

A

S. Enterica Paratyphi A, B, and C

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53
Q

What is enteric fever?

A

Both fever caused by Salmonella enterica. This includes S. Enterica (subtype) Typhi and S. Enterica (subtype) Paratyphi

(both typhoid and paratyphoid fever)

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54
Q

What is more severe AND common in Enteric Fever?

A

typhoid fever

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55
Q

What country is typhoid fever common?

A

india

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56
Q

When distinguishing K. oxytoca AAHC and C. difficile AAC, how do you know it’s K. oxytoca AAHC?

A
  1. No Pseudomembrane formation
  2. No Outbreak-associated disease
  3. No antibiotic treatment
  4. Treatment: Withdrawal of antimicrobial agents
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57
Q

When distinguishing K. oxytoca AAHC and C. difficile AAC, how do you know it’s C. difficile AAC?

A
  1. Pseudomembrane formation: Yes
  2. Outbreak-associated disease: Yes
  3. Antibiotic treatment: Yes, Vancomycin
  4. Treatment: Requires antimicrobial agents
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58
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

infection of the brain

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59
Q

What bacteria causes meningitis by nasopharyngeal colonization that becomes invasive?

A
  1. Strep. Pneuomonia
  2. Haemophilus Influenzae
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60
Q

What causes meningitis by contaminated food?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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61
Q

How does meningitis infect us?

A
  1. nasopharyngeal colonization that becomes invasive
  2. contaminated food
  3. complication of a systemic infection
  4. neurosurgical procedure
  5. spread from skin, sinuses, or middle ear infection
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62
Q

***What causes bacterial meningitis?

A
  1. Pneumoccal, Strep. Pneumoniae
  2. Meningoccal, Neisseria meningitides
  3. Haemophilus Influenze
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63
Q

What organisms cause acute bacterial meningitis (0-1 months)?

A
  1. Group B Strep
  2. E. Coli
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64
Q

What organisms cause acute bacterial meningitis (1-3 months)?

A
  1. Group B Strep
  2. E. Coli
  3. Strep. Pneumonia
  4. H. Influenzae Type B
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65
Q

What are common Nosocomial/Hospital Acquired CNS infections?

A
  1. Pseudomonas
  2. Acinetobacter
  3. Stenotrophomonas
  4. E. Coli
  5. Klebsiella
  6. S. Aureus
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66
Q

What are the common CNS infections in Elderly/Immunocompromised?

A
  1. Listeria Monocytogenes
  2. Gram Negative bacteria
67
Q

What would a CSF sample look like if the patient had bacterial meningitis?

A
  1. increased CSF pressure
  2. Cloudiness (from WBC)
  3. increased WBC
  4. Increased neutrophils
  5. increased protein level
  6. decreased glucose
68
Q

What is the origin of acute brain abscesses?

A
  1. mixed anaerobic and aerobic flora
  2. staphylococci
  3. Streptococci (group A and D)
69
Q

What organism is the most common cause of Shunt-associated infections?

A

Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus (CoNS)

70
Q

What organism is the second most common cause of Shunt-associated infections?

A

Gram Negative Bacteria

71
Q

What are the types of bacteremia?

A
  1. intermittent (localized)
  2. continual
  3. bloodstream infection
72
Q

What infections are considered intermittent bacteremia?

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. meningitis
  3. pyelonephritis
  4. osteomyelitis
  5. septic arthritis
73
Q

What infections are considered continual bacteremia?

A
  1. typhoid fever
  2. brucellosis
  3. plague
74
Q

What infections are considered continual bacteremia?

A
  1. typhoid fever
  2. brucellosis
  3. plague
75
Q

What infections are considered bloodstream infection bacteremia?

A
  1. thrombophlebitis
  2. acute endocarditis
  3. subacute bacterial endocarditis/sepsis lenta
  4. culture negative endocarditis
76
Q

What is “HACEK” group associated with?

A

subacute bacterial endocarditis/sepsis lenta

77
Q

What organisms are in the “HACEK” group?

A
  1. Haemophilus aphrophilus
  2. Actinobacillus Actinomycetemcomitans
  3. Cardiobacterium hominis
  4. Eikenella corrodens
  5. Kingella kingae
78
Q

What organisms causes bacterial subacute endocarditis? (1-3 = majority cause)

A
  1. Strep. Sanguis
  2. Strep. Mutans
  3. Strep. Mitis
  4. Enterococcus faecalis
  5. Staph. Epidermidis
  6. Coxiella burnetti
  7. Chlamydia psittaci
79
Q

What organisms causes fungal subacute endocarditis?

A
  1. candida albicans
  2. aspergillus spp.
80
Q

What is bacteriuria?

A

presence of bacteria in the urine

81
Q

How many organisms/mL in infections?

A

MORE THAN 10^5 organisms/mL

82
Q

How many organisms/mL in contamination?

A

LESS THAN 10^4 organisms/mL

83
Q

How many species of bacteria are in infections?

A

one

84
Q

How many species of bacteria are in contamination?

A

2+

85
Q

What is uncomplicated UTI?

A

UTI w/o underlying renal or neurologic disease

86
Q

What is complicated UTI?

A

UTI w/ underlying structural, medical, or neurologic disease

87
Q

What is reinfection UTI?

A

recurrent UTIs caused by different pathogens at any time

88
Q

What is relapse UTI?

A

recurrent UTIs caused by the same species causing the original UTI w/in 2 weeks after therapy/treatment

89
Q

What is the most common cause of uncomplicated cystitis?

A

E. Coli

90
Q

What is the second most common cause of uncomplicated cystitis?

A

Staphylococcus Saprophyticus

91
Q

What are the other causes of uncomplicated cystitis?

A
  1. Klebsiella
  2. Proteus
  3. Enterococcus
92
Q

What causes complicated UTI?

A
  1. Ecoli
  2. Gram negative rods
  3. Gram-Positive bacteria
  4. yeasts
93
Q

What is the path of infection for most UTIs, ascending or descending?

A

ascending, urethra to bladder

94
Q

What found, in the urinary tract, provides an inert surface for bacterial colonization/true infection?

A

a foreign body in the urinary tract

95
Q

What bacteria causes UTI from HEMATOGENOUS spread (blood)?

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. S. aureus
96
Q

What are urinalysis results for a positive UTI?

A

Generally: Pyuria (WBC in urine)
1. Leukocyte-esterase: positive
2. Nitrate: positive (sometimes)
3. 5 or more WBCs (microscopically)

97
Q

What are diagnostic urine culture results?

A

1a.10^5 colonies/mL for non-symptomatic
1b. 10^3 to 10^4 colonies for symptomatic

98
Q

Asymptomatic bacteriuria (UTI):
1. Diagnosis?
2. What lab result doesn’t matter if asymptomatic?
3. It is important to treat asymptomatic bacteriuria in who?

A
  1. Repeat Positive Urine Culture (10^5 /mL)
  2. Pyuria (WBC in urine)
  3. Pregnant People
99
Q

Why would there be mixed bacterial growth in urine?

A
  1. contamination
  2. long term catheterization
  3. chronic urinary retention / complicated UTI
  4. fistula (abnormal path) between urinary tract and GI/genital tract
100
Q

What organism causes pyelonephritis?

A

E. coli

101
Q

What are symptoms of Pyelonephritis (kidney inflammation)?

A
  1. fever
  2. chills
  3. vomiting/nausa , diarrhea, etc.
102
Q

What are bacterium causes community acquired UTI?

A
  1. E.coli
  2. klebseilla spp
  3. staphylococcus saprophyticus
  4. enterococci
103
Q

What are bacterium causes complicated UTI?

A
  1. proteus
  2. psuedomonas
  3. klebseilla
  4. enterobacter
104
Q
  1. Who
  2. Why
    would you get a nosocomial/hospital acquired UTI?
A
  1. Particularly in elderly nursing home patients
  2. transferred to the hospital for UTI
105
Q

How many bacterium per microliter (.001mL) would you find on an INOCULATED LOOP (urine) from a patient with a UTI?

A

10 ^-3/microliter

106
Q

What type of organism is nesseria gonorrhoea?

A

GNdC gram negative diplococci

107
Q

T or F, finding GNdC gram negative diplococci is diagnostic for nesseria gonorrhoea in BOTH men and women.

A

False, only diagnostic in men.

It is not a reliable diagnosis for women (may have normal commensals w/ similar morphology).

108
Q

What bacterium causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

109
Q

What bacterium causes Chancroid?

A

Haemophilus Ducreyi

110
Q

What is non-specific urethritis (NSU)?

A

urethra inflammation NOT caused by gonorrhoea nor chlamydia

111
Q

What DISEASES does Chlamydia Trachomatis cause?

A
  1. LGV
  2. Urethritis
  3. Cervicitis
  4. Proctitis
  5. Epididymitis
  6. PID
112
Q

What does Klebsiella granulomatis formerly known as?

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

113
Q

What does Klebsiella granulomatis cause?

A

Donovanosis or Granuloma inguinale (same thing)

114
Q

What is the amsel diagnostic criteria for bacterial vaginosis?

A
  1. thin, homogenous discharge
  2. positive whiff test (odor when added 10% KOH to vaginal discharge)
  3. Clue cells present
  4. Vaginal pH is greater than 4.5
115
Q

What is the most RELIABLE predictor of bacterial vaginosis?

A

clue cells

116
Q

What do clue cells look like?

A

vaginal epithelial cells studded w/ adherent coccobacilli

117
Q

What is the percentage of epithelial cells that are clue cells?

A

20%

118
Q

What are the stages of Syphilis?

A
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary/Latent
119
Q

What are symptom(s) of primary syphilis?

A

painless sore (chancre) at inoculation site

120
Q

What are symptom(s) of secondary syphilis?

A
  1. Rash
  2. Fever
  3. Lymphadenopathy
  4. Malaise
121
Q

What are symptom(s) of tertiary/latent syphilis?

A
  1. CNS invasion
  2. organ damage
122
Q

What is another name for Syphilis?

A

the great imitator

123
Q

What are non-treponemal tests used for Syphilis?

A
  1. VDRL (veneral disease research laboratory test)
  2. RPR (rapid plasma reagin)
124
Q

What non-treponemal test is best used for SECONDARY syphilis?

A

VDRL (veneral disease research laboratory test)

125
Q

What type of sample is used for VDRL (veneral disease research laboratory test)?

A

Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF)

126
Q

What test is best used to detect primary syphilis by IgG?

A

Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)

127
Q

What is required/needed to diagnose neurosyphilis?

A
  1. reactive treponemal test result w/ a serum sample
  2. microscopic CSF: 5+ mononuclear cells/cubic cm
  3. CSF total protein: greater than 40mg/dL
128
Q

How would you definitively diagnose neurosphilis?

A
  1. reactive serum treponemal test
  2. reactive VDRL-CSF on a spinal fluid sample
  3. indenification of T. pallidum (silver stain/ fluorescent Ab)
129
Q

What causes Erythrasma?

A

Corynebacterium minutissimum

130
Q

What causes Impetigo, Erysipelas?

A

S. aureus/S. pyogenes

131
Q

What causes Erysipeloid?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (H2S)

132
Q

What causes Anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

133
Q

What causes Cellulitis?

A
  1. Groups A, B, C, G streptococci
  2. S. aureus
134
Q

What causes soft tissue/skin abscess?

A
  1. S. aureus
  2. S. intemedius (SAG)*
135
Q

What type of organism is the ONLY one to cause abscesses?

A

streptococcus

136
Q

What causes Bite associated infections?

A

Eikenella corrodens

137
Q

What causes Diabetic Foot Ulcer?

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Enterobacteriaceae
  3. anaerobes (mixed)
138
Q

What causes Necrotizing fasciitis?

A
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. S. anginosus group
  3. Clostridium perfringens
139
Q

What causes Ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

140
Q

What causes Actinomycetoma?

A
  1. Nocardia
  2. Actinomyces
141
Q

What causes NTM Skin Lesions (ontuberculous mycobacteria) ?

A
  1. Mycobacterium marinum
  2. abscessus
  3. ulcerans
  4. leprae
142
Q

What causes bullous lesions?

A
  1. Vibrio (vulnificus)
  2. Aeromonas
143
Q

What causes Erythema Migrans, Lyme?

A

Borrelia burdorferi

144
Q

What causes Chancre (rash)?

A

Treponema pallidum

145
Q

What diseases does Rickettsia spp. causes?

A
  1. Rash
  2. Rocky Mountain Spotted Feve
  3. Rickettsialpox
146
Q

What causes Leptospirosis (rash from rat urine)?

A

Leptospira interrogans

147
Q

What causes Bartonellosis (Pustule)?

A

Bartonella henselae/quintana

148
Q

What causes Rat Bite Fever (rash)?

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

149
Q

What causes Rabbit Fever (Rash/Lesions)?

A

Francisella tularensis

150
Q

What causes Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) ?

A

Exotoxins A and B (exfollatin)

151
Q

What causes Toxic Shock Syndrome? (note: exotoxins)

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Streptococcus pyogenes
152
Q

What causes Scarlet Fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes/dysgalactiae (SpeA/SpeB/SpeC)

153
Q

What causes Vibrio Vulnificus Infection?

A

V. vulnifus

154
Q

How do you get Vibrio Vulnificus Infection?

A
  1. eating contaminated seafood
  2. direct contact w/ contaminated food
155
Q

What is gas gangrene?

A
  1. extensive tissue damage
  2. gas production of fermentative action of bacteria
156
Q

What causes Gas Gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

157
Q

What causes

A
158
Q

What is the symptoms of gas gangrene?

A
  1. swollen
  2. red & black tissue
  3. foul scent
  4. crepitus
159
Q

What organisms is found in wound infections of burn victim?

A

1, Staphylococcus aureus
2. pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. pseudomonas spp.
4. E. coli
5. Group D strep,
6. Enterococcus faecalis

160
Q

What organism causes plague?

A

yerisinia pestis

161
Q

What causes acute endocarditis?

A
  1. s. aureus
  2. s. pyogenes
  3. s. pneumoniae
  4. neisseria gonorrhoeae
162
Q

What causes culture-negative endocarditis?

A
  1. bartonellae
  2. coxiellae
  3. legionellae
163
Q

What causes thrombophlebitis?

A
  1. s. aureus
  2. s. pyogenes

BMS 191 (Microbio) (3 decks)

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