Exam 3 Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

When was the first process available for mapping genes relative positions onto chromosomes?

A

cross breeding experiments in strains of fruit flies that estimated the rate of recombination between genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The overall phenotype of an organisms is determined by ____ and the environment

A

its genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the adaptive landscapes would have the strongest force of balancing selection for the two depicted traits?

A

it would tend to maintain high overall diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is looking for regions of the genome that are very similar across organisms (conserved) such an important part of understanding genome evolution?

A

these regions indicate areas of homology and so are the foundation for all comparative studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A euglena is a single celled eukaryote that is much less complex than an otter. However, based on this information we still cannot determine which of these organisms has the largest genome. What is the name of the phenomenon and what is its main explanation?

A

C-value paradox, variable amounts of non-protein coding DNA in eukaryote genomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The human genome is

A

composed mostly of nuclear DNA but also includes a small amount of mitochondrial DNA
approximately 98.5% non-coding DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is not one of the steps when performing shotgun sequencing of a genome?

A

identify conserved haplotype blocks to serve as assembly anchors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the best description for a synteny comparison of the genomes of maize (corn) and rice?

A

these two species have a high percentage of genes in common, however they have very divergent arrangement of these genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Eukaryotes

A

large portions of their genomes are composed of introns
for most species a majority of their genome is non protein coding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prokaryotes

A

nearly all of their genomes are circular in arrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

genome rearrangement is frequent and even closely related species/strains exhibit a difference in synteny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes

A

their genomes are composed of either double stranded DNA or single stranded RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

I examine all the coding sequences in Pandinus imperator (Emperor scorpion) and identify each codon that translates into proline with the following results:10% CCA, 15% CCC, 12% CCT, 63% CCG. Which of the following statements is best supported by this result?

A

there is a strong selective force for increased translational efficiency in this species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The number of proteins coding sequences (G-value) is not predictive of morphological complexity among eukaryotic organisms. Which of the following is not an explanation for this?

A

transposons can greatly increase morphological complexity of the organisms in which they are found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The genomes of _________ are most similar to those of the first living organism on earth

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is different about telomeres and centromeres compared to other parts of chromosomes?

A

They dont have much coding DNA however they are critical for other reasons therefore they are under different selective forces than most of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is the census population N size is always larger than the effective population size Ne for natural populations?

A

predation
infertility due to epistatic conflict
random accidents that fill offspring before maturity
disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely result if a population experienced a bottleneck event?

A

reduction in the genetic diversity across all parts of the genome

19
Q

Which of the following is not a reason why we would expect most evolution to be effectively neutral?

A

the mitochondrial genome is smaller and separate from the nuclear genome

20
Q

Which of the following examples best illustrates the statement “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?

A

early human embryos have a relatively large post anal tail and folds of tissues that look very similar to developing amphibian gills

21
Q

which of the following is an example of an active trend?

A

increase in size among horse species as they evolved during the Cenozoic era

22
Q

Ka/Ks > 1

A

a scientist is looking for genes that are significant in creating the difference between two recently diverged species

23
Q

Ka/Ks = 1

A

a scientist is comparing the non-coding DNA of two species that he suspects might be interbreeding

24
Q

Ka/Ks < 1

A

comparing a homologous copy of insulin across five species of mammal. insulin is a critical gene for survival and is performing a nearly identical function in each species

25
Coalescent theory uses which two values when evaluating diversity of population and attempting to estimate recent history of a population
effective population size Ne and mutation rate
26
Which of the following would indicate that a group of cells is pluripotent?
at an early stage a research carefully divides a zygote in half. each of these halves develops into a healthy embryo a group of cells given a set of treatments differentiates into monocytes, the same group of cells when treated differently differentiates into neuroblasts
27
Which of the following is a good example of a mutation that could be classified as heterochrony?
the mexican salamander (axolotl) which maintains many juvenile features throughout its lifespan
28
Hox genes are found in ___
animals
29
What is the general role of Hox genes?
transcription factors
30
In species that have them, the Hox genes are usually found right next to each other in the genome. What is this arrangement called?
colinearity
31
What is the developmental module?
a network of interconnected developmental genes that are used to build multiple, similar parts of organisms
32
Which of the following outcomes apply to paralogous copies of a single ancestral gene?
the most likely long-term outcome is that one of the copies will mutate and become a pseudogene the initial outcome is redundancy of gene function its possible that one of these copies will take on a new function and increase the diversity of the species that carries these genes
33
A ring species is a complex mix of allopatric and ___ speciation impacting multiple populations spread around a central barrier.
parapatric
34
A population of cicadas diverges because of temporal differences in when they emerge and mate, however they share the same range. Which of the following modes of speciation best describes this speciation event?
sympatric
35
A bacterium picks up a piece of DNA from its environment and incorporates it into its genome. This is a form of horizontal gene transfer (HGT) and is called ______________.
transformation
36
Premating
mice look for chemical cues in a mate and will not mate with individuals that do not meet instinctive criteria
37
Prezygotic
Several species of coral all release their eggs and sperm into the water column at the same time, however eggs and sperm from different species will not undergo fertilization.
38
Postzygotic
mules are the offspring of a donkey and a horse and are completely sterile Occasionally a red shafted flicker will mate with a yellow shafted flicker, their offspring are healthy but have a very hard time finding a mate among either parental population
39
Which characteristic of a population would be the least likely to help it survive a cataclysmic event?
complex sensory systems
40
Healthy ecosystems are free of extinction
false
41
Evolution via phyletic gradualism _____
is the pattern Darwin described and has no strong correlation between anagenesis and cladogenesis
42
Of all mass extictions recorded in the fossil record, which had the largest impact in terms of the percentage of species lost
permian extinction
43
The 6th mass extiction is cause by _____
anthropogenic changes
44
Character displacement
its when open ecological niches enable the specialization of a subset of the population. This relieves some of the pressure of competition and is an important process leading to speciation