Exam 3 Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

Why do we use an incentive spirometer?

A

prevent pneumonia by encouraging patients to breathe deeply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes a barrel chest?

A

air trapped in the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the epiglottis prevent?

A

food and liquid from entering the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What people groups is influenza most serious for?

A

children, elderly, and immune compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lobar, viral, and broncho are all types of what?

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be included in a teaching about tuberculosis?

A

respiratory isolation, night sweats, and hemoptysis (coughing up blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is asthma?

A

chronic, intermittent, reversible condition of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

collapse of the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the components of COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)?

A

chronic bronchitis and emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the nursing interventions to prevent atelectasis?

A

incentive spirometer, cough/deep breathe, and increased mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the triggers for asthma exacerbations?

A

allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of necrosis is associated with tuberculosis? How does tissue appear?

A

caseous necrosis
cottage cheese like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the interventions for a pneumothorax?

A

chest tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What condition is commonly found by a mother tasting her baby’s salty skin?

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What can you teach a patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

-secretions will be thick
-its autosomal recessive
-increased respiratory infection risk
-intensive chest physiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the manifestations of acute pyelonephritis?

A

flank pain, CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness, fever, chills, cloudy urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypovolemia, hypotension, and fluid loss are associated with what condition?

A

pre-renal kidney injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the manifestations of benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

urinary hesitancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are osteoclasts responsible for?

A

bone reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can result in kyphosis?

A

age, osteoporosis, and disk degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for fibromyalgia?

A

fatigue, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the signs of compartment syndrome?

A

pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is nephritic syndrome characterizes?
gross hematuria and inflammatory injury of the kidney
26
What can lead to kidney stones?
excess calcium and pH changes
27
What type of kidney injury is the client who hemorrhaged due to trauma at risk for?
pre-renal
28
What are the best indicator of kidney function?
GFR and creatinine
29
What is the main symptom of nephrotic syndrome?
proteinuria
30
What is the priority intervention for a client with renal calculi?
strain all urine
31
What is hydronephrosis?
urine backup and dilation of renal structures
32
What are the manifestations of UTI?
dysuria, suprapubic pain, frequency
33
What is the pathologic feature of osteoarthritis?
loss of articular cartilage
34
What is the most common malignant bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
35
What describes a joint that is fused and stiff?
ankylosis
36
How is gout characterized?
uric acid crystals in the tissues (usually big toe)
37
What type of fracture is caused by bone that is already weakened by disease?
pathologic
38
What type of kidney injury is caused by an enlarged prostate?
post-renal
39
painful urination
dysuria
40
What type of acute kidney injury is caused by low b.p./volume, cardiac dysfunction, or hemorrhaging?
prerenal kidney in jury
41
What type of acute kidney injury is caused by acute tubular necrosis (impaired blood supply), hemolytic uremic syndrome, glomerulonephritis, or prolonged drug exposure?
intrarenal kidney injury
42
What type of acute kidney in jury is caused by ureter/bladder obstruction or dysfunction (stones, tumors, BPH)?
postrenal kidney injury
43
What is chronic kidney disease?
gradual loss of renal function
44
What is the leading cause of chronic kidney disease?
diabetes mellitus
45
During what stage of chronic kidney disease would a patient begin dialysis?
stage IV (5), or when GFR drops less than 15
46
What is known as the separation of two bones at a joint?
dislocation
47
Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes are common manifestations of what condition?
osteoarthritis
48
What is ankylosis?
stiffening of a joint due to bone fusion
49
What type of arthritis are osteophytes associated with?
osteoarthritis
50
What type of fracture is characterized by a single break with bone ends maintaining their alignment and position?
simple fracture
51
What type of fracture occurs with a twisting motion of the bone; common in abuse cases?
spiral fractures
52
What kind of fracture is characterized by an angled break?
oblique
53
What type of fracture is characterized by multiple fracture lines and bone pieces?
comminuted
54
What kind of fracture is an incomplete break where bone is bent and only outer curvature of bone is broken, and is common in children due to minimal calcification?
greenstick fracture
55
What kind of fracture is common is osteoporosis and is characterized by bone crushing or collapsing into small pieces?
compression fractures
56
increased outward curvature of the thoracic spine?
kyphosis
57
What fracture complication is characterized by increased pressure in a compartment? What are the 6Ps?
compartment syndrome -pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, pallor, paralysis, and poikilothermia
58
Sprain
stretching or tearing of a ligament
59
strain
stretching or tearing of muscle or tendon
60
What type of of bone tumor begins in the bone cells?
osteosarcoma
61
what type of bone tumor has an unknown origin, and may begin in nerve tissue within the bone?
Ewing sarcoma
62
What are examples of ventilation conditions/alterations?
asthma, cystic fibrosis, COPD, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, lung cancer, pleural effusion, pneumothorax
63
What do the sinuses do in the respiratory system?
warm, moisten, and filter incoming air
64
What does alcohol do to respiratory cilia?
causes them to be hypoactive
65
What condition is associated with the term blue bloaters?
chronic bronchitis -weight gain and cyanosis
66
What condition is associated with the term pink puffers?
emphysema -pinkish and pursed-lip breathing
67
What is the treatment for pleural effusion?
chest drainage tube (remove fluid from pleural cavity)
68
What is a common cause of mediastinal shift?
pleural effusion
69
What is PRICE? What condition do we use this for?
protect, rest, ice, compression, elevation sprain (ligament)
70
Where are fractures common in individuals with osteoporosis?
wrist, hip, and spine
71
What manifestation is most significant with Paget disease?
hypercalcemia
72
What type of arthritis is pannus(extra growth) formation common in?
rheumatoid arthritis