exam 3 Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
advantages of sexual reproduction (2)
A
- quick evolutionary adaptations to evolutionary changes
- corrects genetic errors and disadvantageous mutations
2
Q
Mendel’s laws of inheritance (3)
A
law of dominance
law of segregation
law of independent assortment
3
Q
(mendel) law of dominance
A
some alleles are dominant, some are recessive. dominant alleles overcome the recessive
4
Q
(mendel) law of segregation
A
each gamete carries only one allele for each gene (because the alleles segregate)
5
Q
(mendel) law of independent assortment
A
in the formation of gametes, genes of different traits segregate independently
6
Q
sex-linked genes
(occurs usually on which chromosome?)
A
genes located on the sex chromosomes
usually on the x-chromosome
7
Q
sex-limited genes
examples?
A
genes present in both sexes, but have a greater effect in only one (occurs due to hormones throughout development)
ex: chest hair, breast size
8
Q
SRY gene
on which chromosome?
does what?
A
on the y-chromosome
causes gonads to become testes
9
Q
what hormones do testes produce
A
androgenes
10
Q
testes producing androgens that in turn increase the growth of testes is known as what kind of loop?
A
positive feedback loop
11
Q
androgens cause (2):
A
growth of testes
growth of wolffian ducts
12
Q
what do wolffian ducts develop into (2)?
A
seminal vesicles & vas deferens
13
Q
what hormone (produced by testes) makes the mullerian ducts degenerate?
A
MIH hormone
14
Q
what happens if there is no SRY gene (3)?
A
gonads become ovaries
wolffian ducts degenerate
mullerian ducts develop
15
Q
what hormone do ovaries produce?
A
estrogens
16
Q
what do mullerian ducts develop into?
A
uterus, oviducts, etc. (female reproductive system)
17
Q
similarity across all steroids?
A
same chemical backbone, 4-carbon rings
18
Q
what is a steroid?
A
sex hormones (androgens, estrogens, etc)
19
Q
where are steroids produced?
A
adrenal glands
20
Q
organizing effects of hormones
occur when?
determine what?
A
occur during sensitive periods of development (before birth & puberty)
they determine the development of female or male characteristics
21
Q
activating effects of hormones
occur when?
do what?
A
occur at any time of life
they temporarily activate a particular response (pregnancy, menstruation, etc.)
22
Q
progesterone
what does it do (2)?
A
prepares uterus for fertilized ovum
promotes maintenance of pregnancy
23
Q
other word for intersex
A
hermaphrodite
24
Q
most common cause of intersex
A
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
25
what happens with CAH (3)?
overdevelopment of adrenal glands from birth
extra testosterone production
female becomes partly masculinized
(little effect on males)
26
androgen insensitivity syndrom (AIS) is a condition of what?
intersex
27
what happens with AIS (3)?
lack of receptor that enables chemicals from XY cells (the cells don't respond to androgens)
males(XY) have smaller penis / female genital appearance
still have testes, so may develop breasts but will not menstruate
28
sex difference in the medial preoptic area (hypothalamus)?
more dendritic spines and synapses in males
BECAUSE: testosterone and estradiol increase production of prostaglandin E2
29
sex difference in the ventromedial nucleus (hypothalamus)?
more widely branched dendrites in males
BECAUSE: estradiol activates P13 kinase, which increases glutamate release
30
sex difference in arcuate nucleus and anteroventral periventricular nucleus (hypothalamus)?
more dendritic spines and synapses in females
BECAUSE: estradiol increases GABA production, which acts on astrocytes to decrease dendritic branching
31
alpha-fetoprotein
found where and when?
binds to?
prevents?
found in the blood during sensitive periods
binds to estradiol
prevents estradiol from entering developing cells
32
alpha-fetoprotein during pregnancy
(to males and females)
females are not exposed to the protein because estradiol binds to it
males receive masculinizing effects as the alpha protein freely enters cell and gets converted to estradiol
33
what controls menstrual cycle?
the ovaries, which are controlled by the hypothalamus & the pituitary gland
34
what hormone is released at the end of a menstrual period?
where is it released from?
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
released from anterior pituitary
35
what does FSH do?
promotes growth of follicles in ovary
36
what do follicles in the ovaries do (2)?
nurtures ovum
produces estrogen
37
what increases in the middle of the menstrual period?
estradiol
38
what hormones are released after there is an increase in estradiol?
where do these hormones come from?
FSH and LH (luteinizing hormone)
released from anterior pituitary
39
what do FSH and LH do?
cause follicles to release ovum
40
what is the periovulatory period
ovulation, middle of menstrual cycle
highest level of fertility
41
brain regions important for male sexual arousal (3)?
they are all a part of what?
ventromedial nucleus (VMH)
medial preoptic area (mPOA)
anterior hypothalamus (AH)
all: hypothalamus
42
what does testosterone do for male sexual arousal?
it triggers the release of dopamine by the mPOA and other areas
43
how does serotonin decrease sexual activity?
serotonin inhibits dopamine release
44
what hormones increase gradually throughout pregnancy (2)?
estradiol and progesterone
45
what is prolactin necessary for?
milk production and general maternal behavior
46
oxytocin during pregnancy?
can improve contractions for birth
increases throughout pregnancy
47
what mating behavior does vasopressin promote?
monogamy
48
4 components of emotion
cognition
action
feeling
physiological changes
49
James-lange theory
autonomic arousal & skeletal actions come first (emotion is the label of such aka the person's perception)
50
schacter & singer's theory
physiological arousal is cognitively interpreted with context, which produces the emotional experience
(assess situation, emotion is called-upon, autonomic responses determine the intensity of this emotion)
51
what's the general area of the limbic system?
the forebrain areas surrounding the thalamus
52
is there localization of emotions in the brain?
no
53
behavioral activation system (BAS)
which hemisphere?
level of arousal?
can characterize __ & __
left hemisphere
low to moderate arousal -- tendency to approach
happiness or anger
54
behavioral inhibition system (BIS)
which hemisphere?
level of arousal?
inhibits __
stimulates emotions like __ & __
right hemisphere
increased arousal/attention
inhibits action
fear & disgust
55
describe fear
response to immediate danger
56
describe anxiety
response to future danger
57
describe the behavioral tests for fear and anxiety
if you pair a stimulus with shock, the animals will associate the stimulus with the shock, increasing the startle response. if you pair a stimulus in the absence of danger (pleasure), the stimulus becomes a safety signal and decreases the startle reflex
58
amygdala
important for?
damage?
important for the startle reflex
damage leads to impaired ability to recognize fear & anxiety
(sensory info --> central amygdala --> pons --> startle reflex)
59
(following BIS and BAS theories...)
people with more activity in the left hemisphere are __
while people with more activity in the right hemisphere are more __
happier
withdrawn (experience more unpleasant emotions?)
(key: you want a more active left hemisphere!)
60
the amygdala responds most strongly to
facial expressions that are hard to interpret
61
amygdala
input from..
output controls..
input from pain fibers, vision, hearing
output controls autonomic fear responses
62
describe monkeys with damage to the amygdala
they're tamer, display less fear to predators/threats
also have impaired social behaviors
63
urbach-weithe disease
fearlessness (damage to amygdala due to accumulation of calcium)
64
attack behaviors are controlled by which part of the amygdala?
corticomedial amygdala
65
describe anger
& does it lead to aggression?
an emotional response
only sometimes leads to aggression
66
describe aggression and label the 2 types
action or behavior, results in an attack
proactive & reactive
67
describe proactive aggression
predatory, related to social gain (like asserting dominance), and not always a result of anger
68
describe reactive aggression
unplanned, from retaliatory intent
69
predictors of violence (3)
past violent behavior, grew up in violent environment, exposure to lead
70
serotonin inhibits __
impulsive behavior
71
cortisol inhibits __
aggression
72
anxiety __ cortisol
increases
73
anger __ cortisol
decreases
74
aggression occurs from __ serotonin release (turnover)
low
(however, this is a weak correlation)
75
serotonin turnover
the amount of serotonin that neurons released, absorbed, and replaced
76
aggressive behavior depends on the ratio of __:__
testosterone to cortisol
77
aggression occurs from a __ of testosterone
burst
(not baseline!)
78
enzyme MAOa responsible for
preventing accumulation of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine
low activity here is linked to aggression
79
adrenal glands release
norepinephrine, cortisol, and aldosterone
80
link between hippocampus and PTSD
smaller hippocampus could predispose people to PTSD
81
what does norepinephrine do (in relation to stress)
stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
82
what does cortisol do (in relation to stress)
increases blood glucose = extra energy
83
what does aldosterone do (in relation to stress)
maintains blood/salt volume; suppresses the less urgent bodily activities
84
describe one's tendency to anxiety
it remains fairly consistent over time
(aka, you don't suddenly become a highly anxious person)
85
panic disorder/attacks are linked to abnormalities in which part of the brain
hypothalamus
86
people with panic disorders/attacks have decreased __ and increased __
decreased GABA
increased orexin
87
the most commonly used anti-anxiety drugs
and what do they do
benzodiazepines
they bind to GABA receptors and facilitate the effects
88
alcohol has similar effects in regards to
benzodiazepines (anti-anxiety)
89
what 2 bodily systems does stress activate
1. sympathetic nervous system
2. the HPA axis
90
what's in the HPA axis (3)?
hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal cortex
91
describe HPA axis path
activation of hypothalamus --> anterior pituitary secretes ACTH --> ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex --> adrenal cortex secretes cortisol --> cortisol enhances metabolic activity, elevates blood sugar levels, increases alertness
92
results of the HPA axis path (3)
enhanced metabolic activity
elevated blood sugar levels
increased alertness
93
what is the dominant response to prolonged stressors
HPA axis
94
what is the sympathetic nervous system for
fight or flight, brief emergency responses
95
the immune system uses what kind of cells?
leukocytes
96
what are leukocytes?
white blood cells
97
B-cells
mature where?
secrete what?
2 types?
mature in bone marrow
secrete antibodies
2 types: antibodies & antigens
98
antibodies
y-shaped proteins that attach to particular kinds of antigens
99
antigens
surface proteins that are antibody-generator molecules
100
T-cells (2)
attack intruders directly
help other T/B cells to multiply
101
natural killer cells
attack what?(2)
attack tumor cells & cells infected w viruses
102
3 kinds of leukocytes
B-cells
T-cells
natural killer cells
103
what happens during a bacterial infection?
leukocytes/others produce cytokines
cytokines release prostaglandins
104
stressful situations cause the production of __ cytokines and prostaglandins
MORE
105
prolonged stress leads to a __ immune system
weakened
106
prolonged stress damages which part of the brain?
(at least this one lol)
hippocampus
107
depression has a huge sex difference when it comes to the changes in immune response
true or false
true
108
describe classical conditioning
like Pavlov's dogs
involves..
conditioned stimulus (sound)
unconditioned stimulus (meat)
unconditioned response (salivate)
conditioned response (salivate)
sometimes the CR resembles the UCR, sometimes it doesn't
109
describe operant/instrumental conditioning
response leads to either reinforcer or punishment
110
what's an engram
a physical representation of what had been learned
111
describe the engram studies with lashley
performed several knife cuts in rat cortices that were trained in a variety of mazes
none of the cuts actually impaired rats' performance
112
lashley's principles after engram studies (2)
equipotentially: all parts of cortex contribute to things equally
mass action: cortex works as a whole (more cortex=better)
113
Thompson's engram studies (modern)
suggested that the engram could be located in cerebellum
results: showed cells in LIP were consistently activated
114
red nucleus receives input from __
the LIP and cerebellum
115
what happens, in regards to learning, if you suppress the red nucleus?
motor response is suppressed
but not the learning
116
what happens, in regards to learning, if you suppress the LIP?
no learning occurs
117
short memory
memory of events that have just occurred
(Hebb)
118
long memory
memory of events from times further back
(Hebb)
119
working memory
involves the retention of information for a period of time sufficient for a cognitive process to occur
(delayed response task shows this type of memory)
120
can you always turn short memory to long?
no
121
is there variation in the time needed to consolidate memories?
yes
122
memories can consolidate quickly if they are __
emotionally significant
(flashbulb memories)
123
why are emotional experiences remembered more easily?
they arouse the locus coerleus and eventually increase epinephrine & cortisol, which activates the amygdala and hippocampus
124
which part of the brain stores working memory?
prefrontal cortex
125
episodic memory
personal events
126
explicit memory
declarative
127
implicit memory
learned habits, etc.
128
semantic memory
factual information
129
procedural memory
development of motor skills and habits
130
which part of the brain consolidates declarative memory?
hippocampus
131
what happens with a bilateral lesion in the hippocampus?
(patient HM)
moderate retrograde amnesia & severe anterograde amnesia
most specifically impairs explicit/declarative memory
*impaired storage of long-term
*severe impairment of episodic
*working memory in-tact, unless distracted
overall, has better implicit memory
132
3 cells important for spatial memory
place cells
time cells
grid cells
133
place cells
tuned to particular spatial locations
(some are also time cells)
134
time cells
respond at a particular point in a sequence of time
135
grid cells
hexagonal grid of neurons, respond to different sets of locations
give input to place cells
136
striatum consists of (2)
and is part of the
caudate nucleus and putamen
part of the basal ganglia
137
striatum important for
learned habits or learning what will likely happen (concluding/making a decision informedly)
138
hippocampus: __ memory
striatum: __ memory
h: explicit
s: implicit
139
hippocampus
speed of learning?
type of behavior?
based on what type of feedback?
can learn in a single trial
flexible responses
sometimes connects info over a delay
140
striatum
speed of learning?
type of behavior?
based on what type of feedback?
learns gradually over many trials
habits
generally require prompt feedback
141
cortisol leads to overstimulation of
the adrenal glands
(which leads to extra testosterone)
142
habituation
describe
what's the change at the synapse
decrease in response to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly and accompanied by no change in other stimuli
decreased release of neurotransmitters at the synapse
potassium gates are blocked in the sensory neuron
143
sensitization
describe
what's the change at the synapse
increased response of a mild stimuli after exposure to more intense stimuli
serotonin from the "facilitating neuron" blocks K+ channels in the presynaptic neuron, which then causes a prolonged released of transmitters, leading to prolonged sensitization
144
briefly described long-term potentiation
more responsive to new input of the same type
145
3 properties of long-term potentiation
1. specificity: only highly active synapses become strengthened
2. cooperativity: (simultaneous) 2 or more axons produce LTP stronger than just 1
3. associativity: pairing weak input with strong input enhances later responses to weak input
146
memories stored:
made and recalled in:
stored in cerebral cortex
made/recalled in hippocampus
147
as a synapse strengthens, another is weakened
true or false
true
148
LTP goes hand-in-hand with LT..
D! Depression
149
the 2 glutamate receptors linked to LTP
AMPA and NMDA
150
what kinds of receptors are AMPA and NMDA
ionotropic
151
which glutamate receptor depends on the degree of potentiation
NMDA
152
describe process of LTP with the AMPA and NMDA receptors
1. sodium enters thru AMPA as glutamate is attaching, magnesium is blocking NMDA
2. AMPA gets depolarized, activating NMDA receptor which throws off the magnesium
3. glutamate enters thru both AMPA and NMDA, but CALCIUM now also enters but only thru NMDA
153
__ is key to LTP
calcium
154
after calcium enters NMDA, then more __ are created (+ dendritic branching), leading to future responsiveness
more AMPA
155
__ synapses are absolute after LTP establishment
NMDA
156
extensive stimulation of post-synaptic neuron causes the release of
retrograde transmitters
157
what happens after the retrograde transmitters reach the presynaptic neuron?(4)
1. decrease in AP threshold
2. increase in neurotransmitter release
3. expansion of axons
4. transmitter release from more sites
158
retrograde amnesia
memory loss of the past
159
anterograde amnesia
memory loss in the present
160
Korsakoff's syndrome
associated with alcoholism
vitamine B1 (thiamine) deficiency
impairs brain metabolizing glucose
loss-shrinkage of neurons
involves confabulation: guessing to fill in memory gaps
161
alzheimer's disease
gradually progressive
primarily associated with old age
early onset most likely due to genes
associated proteins: (1)amyloid beta & (2)tau
(1) creates plaques & widespread atrophy
(2) creates tangles
162
today's belief of the mind-brain relationship
monism
163
categories of monism
materialism
mentalism
identity position
164
describe the threshold of consciousness
you're either conscious of something or you're not (no in-between)
165
binocular rivalry
slow and gradual shifts of the eye sweeping from one side to the other
166
stimulus must be identified as __ before you become conscious of it
meaningful
167
phi phenomenon
construction of a conscious experience after the event (change in perception)
we are capable of becoming conscious of something after it's gone
168
decreased spread of brain activity leads to loss of
consciousness
169
top-down attention
intentional
170
bottom-up attention
something grabbing your attention
171
broca's aphasia
confluent aphasia
impairment of language production, speech is meaningful but sparse
172
wernicke's aphasia
fluent aphasia
impairment of language comprehension, appears to speak smoothly but is actually speaking nonsense
173
dyslexia
several genes are linked, everyone experiences it differently
174
decisions based on values made in: (2)
basal ganglia
ventromedial prefrontal cortex
175
what kind of learning does the basal ganglia do
slower learning
176
what kind of learning does the ventromedial prefrontal cortex do
faster learning
177
which part of the brain monitors confidence in decisions
VMPC (ventromedial prefrontal cortex)
178
decision info is relayed the
orbitofrontal cortex
179
what does the orbitofrontal cortex do
it compares expected rewards
180
how psychological diseases are classified
DSM 5
ICD 10
181
antagonist
drug that blocks neurotransmitter
182
agonist
drug that mimics or increases a neurotransmitters' effects
183
affinity for a receptor
measure of drug's tendency to bind to receptor
184
efficacy of receptor
a drug's effectiveness
and side effects
185
what is the ALDH2 gene linked to
addiction
186
nucleus accumbens
where addictive drugs release dopamine or norepinephrine
187
name all antidepressants (that we care about in this class)
tricyclics
SSRIs
SNRIs
MAOIs
atypical/miscellaneous
188
tricyclics
blocks reabsorption of happy neurotransmitters -- encourages the use of these transmitters rather than the cell just giving up
side effects: drowsiness, dry mouth, difficulty urinating, heavy irregularities
189
SSRIs
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
examples: Zoloft, prozac
190
SNRIs
serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
ALSO improve certain aspects of memory
examples: Cymbalta, effexor
191
MAOIs
monamine oxidase inhibitors
usually only prescribed if SSRIs and tricyclics don't work
192
bipolar I
full blown episodes of mania
193
bipolar II
milder manic phases, called hypomania
194
schizophrenia diagnosed after how long
6 months
195
antipsychotic drugs
first gen
second gen aka atypical
196
first gen antipsychotic drugs
phenothiazines
butyrophenones
both block dopamine synapses
197
second gen antipsychotic drugs
(atypical)
they are anti-serotonin
side effects: weight gain, bad immune system
198
2 major dopamine pathways
mesolimbocortical system
mesostriatal system
199
glutamate hypothesis for schizophrenia
increased dopamine, leading to decreased glutamate (same effects)
200
PCP inhibits
NMDA glutamate receptors
supports glutamate hypothesis for schizophrenia
201
schizophrenia is typically diagnosed __ in life
later
