Exam 3 Flashcards
(109 cards)
1
Q
Define adaptive immunity
A
induced resistance to a specific pathogen
2
Q
What is humoral immunity and what is cellular immunity
A
humoral: due to antibodies from B lymphocytes (B cells) that mature in the bone marrow(not born with these, we develop these as different antigens come)
cellular: T lymphocytes (T cells) mature in thymus and don’t produce antibodies but do produce specific signals (cytokines) that direct B cell specificity. (born with these)
3
Q
define serology
A
the study of reactions between antibodies and antigens
4
Q
define antiserum
A
the generic term for serum because it contains Ab (antibodies)
5
Q
define globulins
A
serum proteins
6
Q
define immunoglobulins
A
antibodies
7
Q
define Antigen (Ag)
A
a substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or sensitized T cells
8
Q
What is hapten
A
antigen is combined with carrier molecules
9
Q
What do antibodies (Ab) interact with
A
epitopes or antigenic determinants
10
Q
what does the number of antigen binding sites determine
A
the variable portions of the H and L chains.
11
Q
what are the classes of immunoglobulins
A
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
12
Q
what do IgG antibodies do and where are they located
A
fix complement and enhance phagocytosis; neutralize toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn
in blood lymph and intestine
13
Q
what do IgM antibodies do and where are they located
A
fix complement and agglutinates microbes; first Ab produced in response to infection
found in blood, lymph and on B cells
14
Q
what do IgA antibodies do and where are they located
A
in secretions (mucous, saliva, tears, breast milk)
mucosal protection
15
Q
what do IgD antibodies do and where are they located
A
on B cells, initiate immune response
in blood in lymph and on B cells
16
Q
what do IgE antibodies do and where are they located
A
allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms
on mast cells, on basophils and in blood
17
Q
How are B cells activated
A
major histocompatibility complex (MHC) expressed on mammalian cells act to recognize antigens (memory cells)
T-dependent antigens (stronger immune response)
18
Q
what are the results of Ag-Ab binding
A
antibodies bind to a specific region of the antigen referred to as the epitope (or antigenic determinant) the strength of binding is the affinity
foreign organims and toxins are rendered harmless by different types of antibodies
19
Q
define agglutination
A
antibodies cause antigens to clump together and they faciliate phagocytosis
20
Q
define opsonization
A
antibodies coat the foreign molecule and they facilitate phagocytosis
21
Q
define antibody-dependent cell mediated immunity
A
antibodies coat the foreign molecule resembling opsonization
destruction of the target cell is by immune systems that remain external to the target cell
22
Q
define complement fixation
A
bound antibodies activate complement
complement lysis the pathogen
23
Q
define neutralization
A
antibodies coat the pathogen and block the attachment to the host cell
24
Q
what do T cells specialize in
where do they mature
what do they respond to
what to T cells require
A
specialize in recognizing intracellular antigens
T cells mature in the thymus
T cells respond to Ag by T cell receptors (TCRs)
T cells require antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
pathogens entering the GI or respiratory tract pass through
25
what do T-helper cells (Th) do
cooperate with B cells in the production of antibodies mainly through the production of cytokines
T helper-> B cells (antibodies)
26
what do T cytotoxic cells (Tc) do
differentiate into effector cells called cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)
27
define apoptosis and how does it work
is a type of programmed cell death
cells first cut their genomes into fragments and external membranes bluge outward (blebbing)
signals expressed on surface attract circulating phagocytes
28
what do T Regulatory cells do
they combat autoimmunity by suppressing T cells that escape deletion in the thymus and have the potential to react with the bodys self molecules
this is how pregnant women by protecting the fetus from rejection as nonself
29
what do antigen-presenting cells do?
digest antigen
present Ag fragments on their surface with MHC
After taking up antigen, APCs migrate to the lymph nodes and lymphoid centers on the mucosa where they present antigen to T cells
30
How do antigen-presenting cells present Ag fragments on their surface with MHC
B cells
Dendritic cells
Activated macrophages
31
what do natural killer cells do
kill virus-infected and tumor cells
important in attacking parasites
they are not immunologically specific
cause pores to form in the target cell and cause lysis or apoptosis
granular leukocytes destroy cells that dont express MHC 1, they are not CTLs
32
what is the function of T Helper (TH1) cell
activates cells related to cell-mediated immunity, macrophages, Tc cells and natural killer cells
33
what is the function of T Helper (TH2) cell
stimulates production of eosinophils, IgM and IgE
34
what is the function of Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte (CTL)
destroys target cells on contact; generated form T cytotoxic (Tc)
35
what is function of T Regulatory (Treg) cell
regulates immune response and helps maintain tolerance
36
what is the function of activated macrophage
enhanced phagocytic activity; attacks cancer cells
37
what is the function of natural killer (NK) cell
attacks and destroys target cells; participates in antibody-dependent cell-medicated cytotoxicity
38
what is immunological memory
it is how our body remembers and responds to antigens
39
what is antibody titer
is the amount of Ab in serum; is reflective of intensity of antibody mediated humoral response
40
immunological memory
what is primary response
occurs after the initial contact with Ag
41
immunological memory
what is the secondary (memory or anamnestic) response
occurs after second exposure
42
remember this and understand it
43
explain naturally acquired active immunity
resulting from infection
44
explain naturally acquired passive immunity
transplacental or via colostrum
45
explain artificially acquire active immunity
injection of Ag (vaccination)
46
explain artificial acquired passive immunity
injection of Ab
47
what is a extremophiles
live in extreme environments (pH, temp, salinity)
48
what is the definition of symbiosis
two differing organisms living together in close association that is beneficial to one or both of them
49
what is mycorrhizae
fungi living in close association with plant roots
extend surface area of roots and increase the absorption of nutrients, especially phosphorous
50
biogeochemical cycles
per 1 gram of soil how much bacteria
1 gram of soil may contain up to 1 billion bacteria
51
biogeochemical cycles
per 1 mL of ocean water how much bacteria
1 mL of ocean water can contain up to 1 million bacteria
52
what does biogeochemical cycles do
involved in the recycling (oxidation and reduction) of chemical elements
many are symbionts of plants (rhizobia)
microbes in soil metabolize organic matter, form detritus (non-living particulate organic matter)
53
define topography
the chemical composition of the soil
presence of living organisms determines the quality of soil
54
explain the microbiology of soil (what does it contain)
soil contains 40-45% inorganic matter, 5% organic matter, 25% water and 25% air
55
what is humus and what is it composed of
the organic material in soil
composed of microorganisms (dead and alive) and decaying plants
56
what is the inorganic material of soil
composed of rock, which is broken down into small particles of sand silt and clay
57
What is the O horizon
AKA topsoil
is made of decaying organisms and plant life; it is responsible for plant production
58
what is the A horizon
mixture of organic material and inorganic products of weathering; it is the beginning of true mineral soil
59
what is the B horizon
AKA subsoil
is a dense layer of mostly fine material that has been pushed down from the topsoil
60
what is the C horizon
AKA soil base
is located just above bedrock and is made of parent, organic, and inorganic material
61
what are the factors affecting microbial abundance in soils (7)
moisture content
oxygen
pH
temp
nutrient availability
microbial populations present in the soil
microbes perform a number of functions
62
soil microbiology
what is more favorable for moisture content
moist soils support microbial growth and diversity better than dry soils
63
soil microbiology
how does oxygen factor in soil
oxygen dissolves poorly in water
moist soils are lower in oxygen than dry soils
anaerobes predominate in waterlogged soils
64
soil microbiology
what is the pH in soil
highly acidic and highly basic soils favor fungi
65
soil microbiology
how does temp affect soil
most soil organisms are mesophiles
live well in areas without extreme summer or winter
66
soil microbiology
how does nutrient availability affect soil
most soil microbes utilize organic matter
microbial community size determined by how much organic material is available
67
soil microbiology
how does microbial populations present in the soil affect it
bacteria are numerous and found in all soil layers
archaea present but are difficult to culture and study
fungi are also populous group of microorganisms
animal viruses are rarely found free in soil; bacteriophage are highly abundant in soil; bacteriophage are highly abundant in soil
algae live on or near the soil surface
most protozoa require oxygen and remain the topsoil
68
soil microbiology
how do microbes perform a number of functions
cycle elements and convert them to usable form
degrade dead organisms and their wastes
produce compounds with potential human uses
69
explain the carbon cycle
the primary biogeochemical cycle
carbon fixation- any process in which gasious carbon dioxide is converted into a solid organic compound
photosynthetic fixation---photoautotrophs
6CO2+6H20------->C6H12O6+6O2
light
70
how does the carbon cycle affect the atmosphere
the return of CO2 to the atmosphere by respiration closely balances its removal by fixation. however, the burning of fossil fuels adds more CO2 resulting in a steady increase
71
explain the nitrogen cycle
molecular nitrogen (N2) makes up almost 80%
for plants to assimilate and use nitrogen it must be fixed- taken up and combined into organic compounds
72
what is nitrogen fixation in lichens
symbiotic relationship between a fungus and: cyanobacteria and algae
73
how is seawater microbiota divided and what does it include
divides into zones based on light and O2 availability
includes abyssal zone dominated by archaea
74
what is phytoplankton and what are they composed of
microscopic photosynthetic organisms
mostly cyanobacteria and single cell aglae
form basis of oceanic food chain
75
how do microbes create water pollution
microbes are filtered from water that percolates into groundwater
some pathogens are transmitted to humans in drinking and recreational water
76
how do chemicals create water pollution
resistant chemicals may be concentrated in the aquatic food chain
mercury is metabolized by certain bacteria into a soluble compound, which is concentrated in animals
77
what is eutrophication and how does it affect the environment
eutrophication is excessive richness of nutrients in a lake or other body of water
overabundance of nutrients in lakes and streams
caused by addition of organic matter or inorganic matter like phosphates, nitrogen, which cause algal blooms
78
what is Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
bacterial decomposition of organic matter uses up O2 in water
BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed for aerobic biological organisms in a body of water to break down organic material present in a given water sample at certain temp over a specific time period
79
what do water purity tests do and what is MPN
indicate organisms
used to detect fecal contamination, coliforms, and enterococcus
MPN: most probable number/ 100 mL of water
80
what are coliforms
aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, gram -, non-endospore forming rods that ferment lactose to acid plus gas within 48 hours at 35 degrees Celsius
81
explain what the wastewater treatment oxidation ponds are for
for small communities
pond 1: settle solids, pump water to pond 2
pond 2: bacterial decomposition of dissolved organic matter in water
82
for municipal sewage treatment what is the primary, secondary, tertiary treatment
primary treatment: removal of solids, disinfection
secondary treatment: removal of much of the BOD, disinfection, water can be used for irrigation
tertiary treatment: removal of remaining BOD, N, and P, disinfection, water is drinkable.
83
what does secondary effluent contain
residual BOD
50% of the original nitrogen
70% of the original phosphorus
84
how does tertiary treatment remove the secondary effluent
filtration through sand and activated charcoal
chemical precipitation
85
what does the urinary system contain
two kidneys
two ureters
one urinary bladder
one urethra
86
how does urine transport
urine is transported from the kidneys through ureters to the urinary bladder and is eliminated through the urethra
87
how to prevent urinary infection
valves prevent backflow to urinary bladder and kidneys
acidity of urine
mechanical flushing
88
what does the female repro system consists of
two ovaries, two uterine tubes, the uterus, the cervix, the vagina, and the external genitals
89
what does the male repro system consist of
two testes, ducts, accessory glands, and the penis; seminal fluid leaves the male body through the urethra
90
true/ false
is the urinary bladder sterile under normal conditions?
false, recent studies have shown the urinary bladder has a specific (yet sensitive) microbiome
91
what is the normal microbiota of the vagina during the repro years
lactobacilli
produce H2O2. grow on glycogen secretions
92
true/ false
the male urethra is not considered sterile
true the male urethra is no longer considered normally sterile
93
what is the most commonly reported STI
chlamydia
94
the prevalence of genital herpes among 14-49 year olds in US in ________
1-6
95
what can cause UTIs
bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites
96
true/ false
UTI have become increasingly resistant to first line antibiotic therapy
true
97
where are lower UTIs occur
are men or women more likely to get them and why
urethra or bladder
most common in women than in men
because the female urethra is much shorter and provides less of a barrier to bacterial invasion
98
where are upper UTI occur
who is more likely to get a upper UTI men or women?
how do people get upper UTIs
involve kidneys (pyelonephritis), ureters (urethritis) or both
upper UTIs can occur in both men and women as a complication of a lower UTI
99
what is the common organism that causes upper UTI and what are the symptoms
symptoms of an upper UTI include fever, chills, lower back pain, nausea, and vomiting
the most common organism is e. coli
100
what is cystitis
an inflammation of the urinary bladder
101
what is urethritis
an inflammation of the urethra
102
what is pyelonephritis
an inflammation of one or both kidneys
103
in regards to cystitis what is the usual causative agent, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment
usual causative agents: e. coli, staphylococcus saprophyticus
symptoms: dysuria (difficult or painful urination), pyuria (pus in urine)
diagnosis: >1000 CFU/mL potential pathogens and a positive LE test
treatment: antibiotics
104
what causes pyelonephritis, what are the symptoms diagnosis and treatment
can result from lower UTI or from systematic bacterial infections
causative agent: usually e. coli
symptoms: fever, back or flank pain
diagnosis: 10^5 CFUs/mL and a positive LE test
treatment: antibiotics
105
true/ false
most diseases of the repro system are STI
true
106
how does a person prevent STI
use of condoms and are treated with antibiotics
107
what are signs and symptoms of chlamydia in males
causes inflammation of the urethra
symptoms mimic gonorrhea; discharge and painful urination
untreated infections may lead to epididymitis (inflammation of the tube that stores and carries sperm)
108
what are signs and symptoms of chlamydia in females
cervicitis
discharge
salpingitis (PID- pelvic inflammatory disorder which is inflammation of the fallopian tubes)
109
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