Exam 3 Flashcards
(124 cards)
1
Q
What states of consciousness are associated with alpha, beta, and delta waves?
A
Alpha: associated with normal, awake mental activity
Beta: associated with heightened arousal and attention(shows Desynchrony)
Delta: associated with deep sleep (stages 3 and 4) –
2
Q
What are Characteristics of REM sleep?
A
Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep, got its name because the eyes dart back and forth during this stage. It is the stage during which narrative dreams occur; marked by “awake”-like EEG forms (e.g., beta activity); no muscle tone; 90 minutes after beginning of sleep
3
Q
***Describe activity in the reticular activating system during arousal, sleep, and REM.
A
Arousal: active RAS (Neurons in the RAS produce acetylcholine, then release it into the thalamus to activate it)
Slow Wave Sleep: inactive RAS
REM: active RAS (RAS contains neurons, called REM-On cells, that are active only during REM sleep)
4
Q
***What is the Activation-Synthesis hypothesis?
A
“Activate it, then put it together”
During dream sleep, increased neural firing in RAS activates the Thalamus—>Projection neurons in the Thalamus randomly activate different cortical regions—>Active cortical regions generate diverse sensory images and thoughts—>Other cortical areas (likely frontal cortex) tries to make sense of it all by synthesizing the diverse images into a narrative story or dream.
5
Q
***What is the role of the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA) in sleep?
A
The vlPOA, a group of GABAnergic neurons located in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus, promotes sleep; it becomes active at night and inhibits activity in the RAS; if damaged, it can lead to insomnia and death.
6
Q
***What is the role of orexin, histamine, and adenosine in sleep?
A
Histamine and orexin are stimulant neurotransmitters.
Histamine: Drugs that block histamine receptors (“Antihistamines”) cause drowsiness
Orexin: Damage to these neurons results in narcolepsy; contributes to “effortful wakefulness”
Adenosine is a hypnotic neurotransmitter:
-it builds up in the brain during the day and inhibits neurons
-caffeine is an adenosine antagonist
7
Q
How can you improve memory retention during sleep?
A
If learning occurs in the presence of a specific odor (or other stimulus such as an auditory stimulus), memory retention will be greater if that same stimulus is presented during hippocampal activation in slow wave sleep
Slow wave sleep consolidates declarative memories
REM consolidates non-declarative memories
8
Q
Describe circadian rhythms.
A
24 hour cycle in body temperature, activity, and hormone release.
- Body temp lowest in morning, highest at night
- Urination and bowel movements suppressed at night
- Cortisol levels highest in morning, lower at night
- Entrained mainly by light
9
Q
***What is the difference between organizational effects and activational effects of hormones?
A
Organizational “developmental” effects of hormones: influence or control the development of an organism; permanent change in brain and sex organs result from hormonal exposure during development
Activational effects of hormones: temporary change (eg. functional) in sexual behavior due to hormonal exposure during adulthood
10
Q
***Describe the development of primary sex organs and gender-specific brain
A
Gender based on sex chromosome (males = XY; female = XX)
Testes Determining Factor (or SRY) gene on Y chromosome causes testicular development in males
Nature produces female unless two hormones are released by testes:
1.) Mullerian-inhibiting hormone: Prevents development of female system (defeminization).
2.) Testosterone: Stimulates development of male (Wolffian) system (masculinization).
11
Q
Hormonal cascade during puberty
A
Hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH, which is controlled by kisspeptin)—->stimulates release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and lutenizing hormone (LH) from Pituitary—>stimulates estrogen (E) and progesterone (P) from ovaries or testosterone (T) from testes—>results in emergence of Secondary Sexual Characteristics
12
Q
Describe activational effects of hormones on female sexual behavior
A
Estrogen and Progesterone
- dictate sexual drive in most female mammals(fertility is highest when E & P are high)
- In HUMAN females, initiation of sexual activity is greater during ovulation (when E levels are high)
13
Q
***Further explain the following biological determinant of sexual orientation:
Activational effects of hormones (hormone levels during adulthood).
A
Females:
MAYBE an activational effect–T levels in lesbians are slightly higher than in straight women.
Males:
NO activational effect—T levels in gay and straight human males do not differ.
(However, gay rams do appear to have slightly lower T levels)
14
Q
***Pair bonding, oxytocin, and vasopressin in voles
A
Prairie Voles have higher levels of receptors for the neuropeptides oxytocin and vasopressin than do Montane Voles. Prairie Voles form Monogamous mating pairs while Montane Voles mate in a non-monogamus manner.
15
Q
Advantages to studying simpler organisms
A
- Mammalian brains are too big
- Most higher order forms of learning and memory are too complicated–>it is easier to study the simplest forms of learning and memory in the simplest nervous systems
- Roughly 16 million neurons in a mouse brain-100billion neurons in a human brain
16
Q
How to produce behavioral habituation and sensitization in Aplysia
A
Habituating Aplysia:
Touch the siphon, the gill withdraws.
Keep touching the siphon, the gill withdrawal response habituates.
Habituation: a decline in an unconditioned response after repeated presentations of an unconditioned stimulus.
17
Q
***Action potentials in sensory and motor neurons of control and habituated Aplysia
A
The same reaction occurs in the sensory neurons of the control and habituated Aplysia, however, the motor neuron in the habituated Aplysia doesn’t create an action potential after habituation???
18
Q
***Describe the biochemical basis of habituation
A
Every tap on the siphon and action potential in the sensory neuron leads to less calcium entering the terminal—>which means that less neurotransmitter is released into the sensory-motor synapse.
19
Q
***“Lessons” regarding habituation and learning in Aplysia
A
Transient learning is based on short-term chemical changes (e.g. changes in Ca+) in terminal buttons.
Memory is located in the terminal button of sensory neuron.
Habituation is a presynaptic phenomenon.
Memories are not housed in a separate set of “memory” neurons.
Memories tend to be “housed” within the neurons that are directly involved in the behavior or thought process.
Brains do not tend to have separate “hard drives” for data storage. W
20
Q
***Action potentials in sensory and motor neurons of control and sensitized Aplysia
A
Before sensitization (Control), tactile stimulation to the siphon skin causes an action potential in the sensory neuron followed in time by an action potential in the motor neuron. After habituation (Sensitized), the sensory neuron maintains the same response to tactile stimulation but that the motor neuron response is now much larger. The recorded potentials are quantitatively larger in the motor neurons in the sensitized animals after taps to the siphon skin.
21
Q
List the biochemical steps involved in short-term sensitization
A
- Initial tail shock causes interneuron to release serotonin.
- Serotonin binds to receptors on sensory neuron terminal.
- Receptor activates second messengers known as kinases.
- **Kinases bind to calcium channels.
- Few minutes later, tap to siphon produces action potential in sensory neuron.
- When action potential arrives at terminal, more calcium enters the terminal because the kinases hold channels open longer.
More calcium = more neurotransmitter released
22
Q
List the biochemical steps involved in long-memory in Aplysia (kinases and genes)
A
Stronger tail shock causes even greater kinase levels in the siphon sensory neuron terminal. Kinases interact with DNA to promote gene transcription and synthesis of proteins, such as: growth factors (promote new membranes for more or bigger terminals) more kinases (keep calcium channels open even longer or perpetually keep kinase genes active).
23
Q
A learning procedure;
when a stimulus that initially produces no particular response is followed several times by an unconditional stimulus that produces a defensive or appetitive response (the unconditional response), the first stimulus (now called a conditional stimulus) itself evokes the response (now called a conditional response)
** learning associations between stimuli
One event predicts another.
A bell predicts that food is coming.
A
Classical conditioning
24
Q
A learning procedure whereby the effects of a particular behavior in a particular situation increase (reinforce) or decrease (punish) the probability of the behavior
- *One behavior predicts an outcome.
ex. A press on a bar yields a pellet of food.
A
Operant conditioning
25
The hypothesis that the cellular basis of learning involves strengthening of a synapse that is repeatedly active when the postsynaptic neuron fires.
Hebb rule
26
What is long-term potentiation (LTP) and how is it produced?
```
Long-term potentiation (LTP): a persistent increase in the responsiveness of a neuron to a specific synaptic input; this is caused by repeated high frequency activation of the specific input.
Pre-LTP:
PreSN--!--> PostSN--!-->
Stimulation:
PreSN--!!!!!--> PostSN--!!!!!-->
LTP:
PreSN--!--> PostSN--!!!!!-->
Hippocampus, NMDA, and Ca+2 are involved
```
27
What is some evidence that LTP is related to learning?
- It is long-lasting.
- There’s a practice effect - the more trials the more permanent it becomes.
- The increased response of the post-synaptic cell is like a memory - adaptive change to altered input (increased reactivity)
- It can be classically conditioned. ("neurons that fire together wire together" = HEBB RULE)
28
***Explain how weak synaptic connections are strengthened by activity at very strong synapses. (NMDA receptors)
At the strong synapse, a lot of glutamate is released.
Causes dendrites around the strong synapse to be depolarized.
At the weak synapse, at the same time, a little bit of glutamate is released (a subthreshold amount)
Little bit of glutamate binds to NMDA-type glutamate receptors that are voltage-dependent.
Little bit of glutamate and slight depolarization opens the NMDA receptor.
Calcium flows into dendrite adjacent to weak synapse.
29
***Explain how calcium may increase dendritic sensitivity to weak inputs.
NMDA receptors gate calcium.
Influx of calcium increases kinase activity in dendrite.
Kinases can activate other non-NMDA type glutamate receptors (AMPA)
Makes the dendrite more sensitive to input.
Kinases can enhance gene expression to change receptor number or dendritic shape.
30
Compare short-term vs. long-term memory
Short-term memories:
Appear to involve changes in neurotransmitter release or the sensitivity of neurotransmitter receptors (LOCAL changes).
Long-term memories:
May involve changes in gene expression (DISTRIBUTED changes) that create STRUCTURAL changes in neurons.
31
***What are causes of narcolepsy? (Ch.8 p. 194-196)
It is caused by a hereditary autoimmune disorder involving a gene found on chromosome 6
- people with narcolepsy are born with orexinergic neurons, but during adolescence, the immune system attacks these neurons, and the symptoms of narcolepsy begin
* Unknown environmental factors may be involved as well.
32
What are functions of slow wave sleep and REM sleep? (Ch.8 p. 197-201)
Functions of Slow-wave Sleep:
1. lower the brain's metabolism
2. permit the brain to rest
3. facilitates declarative learning
* seems to be the most important stage
Functions of REM Sleep:
1. may promote brain development
2. facilitates nondeclarative learning
* rebound effect makes up for lack of REM sleep
33
Explain the role of dopamine and basal ganglia regions in reinforcement (Ch.12 p. 313-317, Fig. 12.19)
Basal Ganglia:
The basal ganglia take over details of repetitive processes so we don't have to think about what we are doing
Regions include- neostriatum (caudate nucleus and putamen): receive sensory info from all regions of cerebral cortex and from frontal lobes about movements that are planned or in progress-----> outputs of this structure are sent to globus pallidus: sends outputs to premotor and supplementary motor cortex (plans movements) and the primary motors cortex (executes those movements)
Important in instrumental conditioning
Dopamine:
Induces the synaptic changes responsible for instrumental conditioning by facilitating associative long-lasting long-term potentiation.
The cell bodies of the most important dopaminergic neurons are located in the ventral tegmental area their axons project to the nucleus accumbens, prefrontal cortex, limbic cortex, and hippocampus
*PKM-zeta is essential for the dopamine-dependent establishment of L-LTP
It's pg 17
34
What is relational learning? (Ch.12 p.317-330)hm and hippocampus
H.M., a man who experienced anterograde amnesia due to a hippocampal lesion, Helped Milner and colleagues come up with the following conclusions about the role of the hippocampus:
1. ) the hippocampus is not the location of long-term memories; nor is it necessary for the retrieval of long term memories (H.M wouldn't have been able to remember events from early in his life, he wouldn't have known how to talk, dress himself, etc.)
2. ) the hippocampus is not the location of immediate (short-term) memories. (If it were, he would not have been able to carry on a conversation because he would not have remembered what the other person said long enough to think of a reply)
3. ) the hippocampus IS involved in converting immediate memories into long term memories (H.M couldn't make a permanent record of new information...due to lack of making permanent biochemical or structural changes in neurons
The hippocampal formation is also involved in spatial memory, even though it is non declarative (declarative memories--specifically episodic memories--are usually controlled by hippocampus). Relational learning is used for spatial navigation
35
What is slow-wave sleep?
a. The EEG shows synchronous firing. Muscle tone is moderate. Eye movements are not rapid. Genital activity is not seen
b. The EEG shows regular firing. Muscle tone is slack. Eye movements are rapid. Genital activity is seen in females but not in males.
c. The EEG shows asynchronous firing. Muscle tone is moderate. Eye movements are frequnetly rapid. Genital activity is not seen.
d. The EEG shows erratic firing. Muscle tone is taut. Eye movements are completely absent. Genital activity is seen in males but not in females.
a. The EEG shows synchronous firing. Muscle tone is moderate. Eye movements are not rapid. Genital activity is not seen
36
How long does it take for a typical person to experience REM sleep for the first time in an evening?
a. about 90 minutes
b. about 45 minutes
c. about 30 minutes
d. about 3 hours
a. about 90 minutes
37
What is the significance of desynchrony in EEG recordings of sleep?
a. Desynchrony shows a person is responsive and awake
b. Desynchrony usually reflects less active thinking and less awareness.
c. Desynchrony shows that a person is asleep.
d. Desynchrony typically shows that a variety of neural circuits are highly active and a person is actively thinking.
d. Desynchrony typically shows that a variety of neural circuits are highly active and a person is actively thinking.
38
How might slow-wave sleep be helpful to people?
During the down state of each oscillation of slow-wave sleep, enormous numbers of neurons are inhibited, allowing them to rest and be replenished in a meaningful way
39
Which of the following identifies the lowest frequency form of sleep?
a. Stage 2 sleep
b. Theta activity
c. Stage 4 sleep
d. REM sleep
c. Stage 4 sleep?
40
A technician is monitoring the EEG records for several sleep subjects in a laboratory. Which subject is likely to be in the transition stage between sleeping and waking?
a. A subject that has an EEG frequency of 3 Hz and considerable indication of sleep spindles or K complexes
b. A subject that has an EEG frequency of 14 Hz and no indication of sleep spindles or K complexes
c. A subject that has an EEG frequency of 5 Hz and no indication of sleep spindles or K complexes
d. A subject that has an EEG frequency of less than 1 Hz and no indication of beta activity
c. A subject that has an EEG frequency of 5 Hz and no indication of sleep spindles or K complexes
41
A researcher looks at EEG sleep records from a variety of different individuals. To find individuals who are likely to be intelligent, what should the researcher look for in EEG patterns?
a. The researcher should look for a high level of REM sleep
b. The researcher should look for a high level of K complexes
c. The researcher should look for a high level of sleep spindles
d. The researcher should look for a high level of slow-wave sleep
c. The researcher should look for a high level of sleep spindles
* Increased numbers of sleep spindles are correlated with increased scores on intelligence tests.
42
Which of the following provides the strongest evidence that sleep is necessary for good health and survival?
a. Human beings that suffer sleep deprivation are also prone to starvation
b. Though human beings can go without food for months, a sleep deprived person will be unable to resist sleep for more than a few days.
c. Organisms with total insomnia due to damage in the preoptic area or individuals with fatal familial insomnia cannot survive for very long without sleep.
d. All vertebrates, including fish, reptiles, and amphibians, go through a sleep period of quiescence every few hours.
c. Organisms with total insomnia due to damage in the preoptic area or individuals with fatal familial insomnia cannot survive for very long without sleep.
43
What comprises the ticking in a biological clock?
a. breakdown of a neurotransmitter in a synapse
b. production of a nucleic acid
c. production and breakdown of a protein
d. the number of times an enzyme uses its active site
c. production and breakdown of a protein
44
Where is the biological clock located?
a. in the suprachiasmic nuclei of the hypothalamus
b. in the prefrontal cortex
c. in the preoptic area
d. in the ventral portion of the right side of the primary visual cortex
a. in the suprachiasmic nuclei of the hypothalamus
45
Why are the lives of most people with even the most severe sleep apnea rarely threatened?
Without any oxygen being taken in, the blood of people with sleep apnea accumulates carbon dioxide, which triggers chemoreceptors that in turn stimulate gasping behavior, causing the person to wake up.
46
Which of the following is most likely to produce cataplexy?
a. being forced to stay awake by circumstances
b. eating rich food
c. a fit of laughter
d. needing to sit through a dull movie
c. a fit of laughter
47
What is the relationship between adenosine and glycogen?
During wakefulness, glycogen in astrocytes is consumed by active brain neurons. Prolonged wakefulness causes a decrease in the level of glycogen in the brain. A fall in the level of glycogen causes an increase in the level of adenosine.
48
A research scientist is able to measure activity levels for acetylcholine for a volunteer subject who had normal sleep patterns in the brain's arousal areas. The scientist finds high levels of ACh activity not only during the day, but also in the middle of the night. The scientist asked the volunteer how well he had slept during the night, and the volunteer claimed he had slept normally with no interruptions. What should the scientist conclude?
High levels of acetylcholine should be expected during active moments of wakefulness and also during REM sleep, so the subject was asleep during the time that ACh levels were high
49
The Circadian rhythm is a 24 hour cycle in body temperature, activity, and hormone release. Describe differences in each of these categories during the daytime and nighttime.
- Body temp is lowest in the morning, and highest at night
- Urination and bowel movements are suppressed at night
- Cortisol levels are highest in the morning and lower at night
50
Circadian rhythms are dependent on what brain structure?
Circadian rhythms are largely under control of a mechanism located in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the Hypothalamus.
51
What happens if the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus is removed?
lack of circadian rhythm entrainment by light
52
If a rat has damage to its ventrolateral preoptic area, what type of outcome could be expected?
a. It cannot sleep.
b. It will not be interested in sex.
c. It will not be able to form new memories.
d. It will spend all of its sleep cycle engaged in deep sleep.
a. It cannot sleep
53
Jennifer is receiving an EEG exam. The EEG indicates that large, infrequent waves are occurring in her brain. What state of consciousness is she likely experiencing and what is the wave form called that is associated with it?
a. dreaming; beta waves
b. alert; alpha waves
c. seizure; theta
d. deep sleep; delta
d. deep sleep; delta
54
Which of the following are true regarding narcolepsy?
a. Narcolepsy is a genetic disorder.
b. Narcolepsy involves alterations in the activity of a peptide known as orexin (or hypocretin).
c. Narcolepsy is an intrusion of REM sleep components into the awake state.
d. All of the choices are correct.
d. All of the choices are correct
55
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming?
a. cortical areas are activated; thalamus is inactivated; RAS is activated, frontal lobe sequences patterns of RAS activity
b. basal forebrain is inactive; hypothalamus is active; RAS is inactive; cortex is dis-inhibited and random narrative occurs in dream
c. RAS is active; thalamus is active; various cortical areas are active; other cortical areas organize active images into story
d. Motor centers are inactivated; suprachiamatic nucleus activity increases, basal forebrain is inactivated, attention drops and random dreams occur
c. RAS is active; thalamus is active; various cortical areas are active; other cortical areas organize active images into story
56
Caffeine works in our brains to keep us awake by:
a. acting as an acetylcholine receptor agonist in the thalamus.
b. stimulating neurons in the VLPA.
c. blocking GABA receptors in the RAS.
d. blocking adenosine receptors in the hypothalamus and other brain regions.
d. blocking adenosine receptors in the hypothalamus and other brain regions.
57
How does the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN) control circadian rhythms and what type of genes do neurons in this region contain?
- The SCN receives direct input from the eye. Some retinal cells project only to SCN, and those same cells contain a specific form of opsin called melanopsin (*think melatonin)
- Neurons contain genes known as clock genes that are expressed at different levels across the day.
58
Describe activational effects of hormones on male sexual behavior
More testosterone in males = more sexual drive
59
What brain regions are larger in males than in females, indicating their involvement in sex drive in male mammals?
1. Olfactory Bulb
2. Medial Amygdala
3. Medial Preoptic Area (MPA) of the hypothalamus
60
What brain region is larger in females than in males, indicating its involvement in sex drive in female mammals?
Ventromedial Nucleus of the hypothalamus
61
What is the role of the Olfactory Bulb in male sex drive?
It sends odor information to the Amygdala
62
What is the role of the Medial Amygdala in male sex drive?
- It contains a high level of testosterone receptors
- It connects to the hypothalamus
- Lesions in this area decrease sex drive in males
63
What is the role of the Medial Preoptic Area (MPA) in male sex drive?
- Contains a larger sexually dimorphic nucleus
- Stimulation leads to copulatory behavior
- Copulation increases neural activity
- Lesions abolish male sexual behavior
64
What is the role of the Ventromedial Nucleus of the hypothalamus in female sex drive? What evidence supports this role?
Role: controls hormone release related to ovulation and lactation
Supporting Evidence: Lesions reduce sexual receptivity; Infusion of E & P directly into VMN elicits sexual behavior
65
Pair bonding, oxytocin, and vasopressin in people
Human males who have a single nucleotide polymorphism (have more 334 alleles) in the vasopressin receptor gene are more likely to score lower in pair bonding and have marital problems
Studies suggest that couples undergoing counseling for marital conflict report more positive relationship behaviors and lower levels of cortisol after intranasal oxytocin exposure.
66
A researcher is investigating the possibility of preventing persistent Mullerian duct syndrome. She has been able to synthesize anti-Mullerian hormone and administer it to developing embryos. The protocol works perfectly for some of the cases, but has no effect in others. What is likely to be the problem?
Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome can be caused by failure to produce the hormone or failure to have receptors for the hormone. The cases that do not show results must be the individuals who lack hormone receptors.
67
What is a sexually dimorphic behavior?
a. a behavior that is the same in males and females
b. a behavior that only males perform but not females
c. a behavior that only females perform but not males
d. a behavior that differs in males and females
d. a behavior that differs in males and females
68
What kind of effect does anti-Mullerian hormone have?
a. an activating effect of helping the sex organs develop
b. an activating effect of helping male sex organs to become active
c. a feminizing effect of helping the female sex organs develop
d. a defeminizing effect, preventing the female system from developing
d. a defeminizing effect, preventing the female system from developing
69
What causes androgen insensitivity syndrome?
a. An XX individual produces androgen and androgen receptors but fails to produce anti-Mullerian hormone so masculinization fails to occur.
b. An XY individual produces androgen, androgen receptors, and Mullerian hormone so feminization fails to occur.
c. An XY individual produces androgen receptors but fails to produce androgen hormones so masculinization fails to occur.
d. An XY individual produces androgen but fails to have androgen receptors so masculinization fails to occur.
d. An XY individual produces androgen but fails to have androgen receptors so masculinization fails to occur.
70
The gene for androgen receptors is located on ____.
a. the X chromosome
b. chromosome 4
c. the Y chromosome
d. chromosome 6
a. the X chromosome
71
The Mullerian System consists of the _____.
a. seminal vesicles
b. uterus and fallopian tubes
c. fimbriae and the fallopian tubes, the uterus and the inner two-thirds of the vagina
d. fallopian tubes, the uterus and the outer two-thirds of the vagina
c. fimbriae and the fallopian tubes, the uterus and the inner two-thirds of the vagina
72
Which of the following would be likely to reduce sexual activity in human males?
a. A gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist that stimulates the production of testosterone
b. An estradiol hormone antagonist that prevents production of female hormones
c. A gonadotropin-releasing hormone that prevents production of testosterone
d. A gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonist that prevents production of testosterone
d. A gonadotropin-releasing hormone antagonist that prevents production of testosterone
73
Which of the following is true regarding sexual orientation?
a. The concordance rate for identical male twins for homosexuality is greater than the rate for fraternal twins.
b. The concordance rate for fraternal male twins for homosexuality is greater than the rate for identical twins.
c. Genetic factors do not influence female sexuality.
d. Homosexual males have few if any male brothers.
a. The concordance rate for identical male twins for homosexuality is greater than the rate for fraternal twins.
74
A scientist first abolishes estrous cycles in female rats by housing them together. Then the scientist introduces a male into the cage. The introduction of the male results in synchronized cycling among the females. This is called the ____.
a. Vandenberg effect
b. Coolidge effect
c. Lee-Boot effect
d. Whitten effect
d. Whitten effect
75
Which treatment elicits the greatest sexual response in female rats?
a. Estradiol alone
b. Estradiol followed by Progesterone
c. Progesterone alone
d. Progesterone followed by Estradiol
b. Estradiol followed by Progesterone
76
Which system do humans employ in detecting Pheromones?
a. The "standard" olfactory system
b. The vomeronasal system
c. The accessory olfactory system
d. The visual system
a. The "standard" olfactory system
77
According to the Coolidge effect, what rejuvenates a male who is sexually exhausted?
a. An attractive female
b. Love between the male and the female
c. A new female
d. A familiar female
c. A new female
78
Brain activity in some cases of vegetative states
.
79
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the role of genes in sexual orientation?
a. There is a specific gene that explains much of the variability in sexual orientation in human males.
b. The concordance rate for homosexuality in identical male twins is around 50%.
c. There seems to be less of a genetic influence on the sexual orientation of women.
d. Turning on specific genes in flies can alter their sexual orientation.
a. There is a specific gene that explains much of the variability in sexual orientation in human males.
80
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the role of development in sexual orientation?
a. If a male has high number of older biological brothers, the likelihood that he will be gay rises by 1% for each older brother he has.
b. Males who are insensitive to androgens in utero are likely to develop feminine physical characteristics and be attracted to men during adulthood.
c. Over-exposure of female fetuses to high levels of androgens is associated with a greater likelihood of homosexuality during adulthood.
d. If any sibling has a higher number of older biological brothers, the likelihood that this individual will be gay rises by 1% for each older brother the person has.
d. If any sibling has a higher number of older biological brothers, the likelihood that this individual will be gay rises by 1% for each older brother the person has.
81
Which of the following phenomena seem to be critical for the establishment of habituation in the gill withdrawal reflex in Aplysia to repeated siphon skin stimulation?
a. Less calcium entry into the sensory neuron terminals after repeated skin stimulation
b. More neurotransmitter release from the sensory neuron after repeated skin stimulation.
c. Less action potentials in the siphon skin sensory neuron after repeated skin stimulation.
d. More calcium entry into the dendrite of the gill motor neuron after repeated skin stimulation.
a. Less calcium entry into the sensory neuron terminals after repeated skin stimulation
82
Richard the prairie vole is madly in love with his partner, Elizabeth, and they have been mates for life. What type of treatment might cause Richard to start “ playing the field” and seek other mates?
a. Increasing his vasopressin receptors in his frontal cortex
b. Electrical stimulation of his medial amygdala
c. Infusion of a vasopressin antagonist into his ventral pallidum
d. An infusion of an oxytocin agonist into his nucleus accumbens
c. Infusion of a vasopressin antagonist into his ventral pallidum
83
Albert is an Aplysia that has just been trained to experience long-term sensitization. What type of protein is likely increased in his sensory neuron terminals and what does this protein do?
a. protease; breaks down vesicles and stimulates neurotransmitter release
b. calmodulin; increases the likelihood of action potentials in the sensory neuron
c. endocannabinoid; heightens the sensitivity of receptors on the motor neuron dendrite
d. kinase; increase the expression of genes for growth factors and additional kinases
d. kinase; increase the expression of genes for growth factors and additional kinases
84
In instrumental conditioning, favorable consequences are referred to as __________ stimuli, whereas unfavorable consequences are referred to as __________ stimuli.
a. punishing, reinforcing
b. operant, response
c. positive, negative
d. reinforcing, punishing
d. reinforcing, punishing
85
Learning supposes that experiences can alter neuron structure in such a way as to alter future behavior. One idea that was proposed over 60 years ago, and that might explain these changes is the _____
a. classical conditioning paradigm.
b. Hebb rule.
c. instrumental conditioning process.
d. stimulus-response rule.
b. Hebb rule.
"Neurons that fire together wire together"
86
Learning about the relationships between stimuli is referred to as _____
a. motor learning.
b. perceptual learning.
c. episodic learning.
d. relational learning.
d. relational learning
87
Formation of the protein _______is an essential part of long-lasting, long-term potentiation.
a. enzymatic deactivation
b. sodium-potassium
c. PKM-zeta
d. AChE
c. PKM-zeta
88
An action potential that occurs in some type of pyramidal cells, and plays a role in learning, is called a _____
a. potential spike.
b. monotypical spike.
c. dendritic spike.
d. associative spike.
c. dendritic spike.
89
Which of the following is NOT part of the hippocampal formation of the medial temporal lobe?
a. Perirhinal cortex
b. Entorhinal cortex
c. Amygdala
d. Parahippocampal cortex
c. Amygdala
90
Low-frequency stimulation of synaptic inputs to a cell can __________ their strength in a phenomenon known as ________________
a. decrease; short-term depression.
b. increase, long-term depression.
c. increase, short-term depression.
d. decrease, long-term depression.
d. decrease, long-term depression.
91
The dorsal stream of the visual cortex continues into the ___________ and carries information relating to _______________
a. primary visual cortex, object shape and color.
b. posterior parietal cortex, object location.
c. inferior temporal cortex, object recognition.
d. posterior parietal cortex, object recognition.
b. posterior parietal cortex, object location.
92
In the visual cortex, the dorsal stream is involved with ______ whereas the ventral stream is involved with ______.
a. object recognition, object location.
b. object location; object recognition.
c. memory; learning.
d. learning; memory.
b. object location; object recognition.
93
An example of _____ involves the study of eye-blink responses in the rabbit elicited by delivery of an air-puff to the eye.
a. instrumental learning
b. instrumental conditioning
c. classical conditioning
d. motor learning
c. classical conditioning
94
One would expect that application of painful somatosensory stimuli activate strong synapses within the _______.
a. medulla.
b. cerebellum.
c. central nucleus of the thalamus.
d. lateral nucleus of the amygdala.
d. lateral nucleus of the amygdala.
95
Humans are able to acquire episodic memories and to develop complex behaviors that involve deliberation or instruction. These abilities are a function of the _______
a. transcortical connections.
b. basal ganglia.
c. brain stem.
d. amygdala.
a. transcortical connections.
96
______ can be impaired by damage to the basal ganglia.
a. Relational learning
b. Instrumental conditioning
c. Classical conditioning
d. Motor learning
b. Instrumental conditioning
97
A reinforcing system must perform two functions. First, the reinforcing stimulus must be recognized, and second, the connection between the neurons that _______ and the neurons that ________, must be strengthened.
a. change the stimulus; eliminate the response
b. detect the stimulus; eliminate the response
c. change the stimulus; produce the response
d. detect the stimulus; produce the response
d. detect the stimulus; produce the response
98
James Olds and Peter Milner reported that rats would lever-press in order to deliver a series of electric pulses to their brains. This suggested that electrical brain stimulation _____.
a. acted as an aversive stimulus.
b. can suppress eating and drinking.
c. could have reinforcing effects.
d. could have punishing effects.
c. could have reinforcing effects.
99
Which of the following would be an example of a natural reinforcer?
a. Nicotine
b. Food
c. Praise
d. Cocaine
b. Food
100
The Morris water maze requires which of the following types of learning?
a. Relational
b. Motor
c. Situational
d. Incidental
a. Relational
101
An example of a(n) _______ memory task would be recognizing a melody.
a. implicit
b. declarative
c. explicit
d. nondeclarative
d. nondeclarative
102
Semantic dementia is caused by degeneration of the neocortex of the _______
a. anterolateral temporal lobe.
b. inferior occipital lobe.
c. posterior temporal lobe.
d. medial occipital lobe.
a. anterolateral temporal lobe.
103
Changes in an old memory after connection to newer memories is termed _______
a. reconsolidation.
b. consolidation.
c. memory fabrication.
d. PTP.
a. reconsolidation.
104
In the Morris water maze task, rats are placed into a water tank and must get their bearings from the relative locations of stimuli located outside the maze to navigate it. This type of maze assesses _____ learning.
a. relational
b. motor
c. emotion
d. perceptual
a. relational
105
________ amnesia refers to an inability to learn new information.
a. Anterograde
b. Impure
c. Semantic
d. Retrograde
a. Anterograde
106
Knowing the meaning of the word “up” is an example of ________ memory.
a. spatial
b. motor
c. perceptual
d. semantic
d. semantic
107
The anterograde amnesia suffered by Patient H.M. involved _____
a. facilitated stimulus-response learning.
b. impairment of perceptual memory.
c. impairment of complex relational learning.
d. an inability to recall childhood experiences.
c. impairment of complex relational learning.
108
Which of the following statements about Korsakoff's syndrome is accurate?
a. It is always the result of sleep deprivation.
b. It is always the result of chronic alcohol abuse.
c. It is usually, but not always, the result of chronic alcohol abuse.
d. It is never the result of chronic alcohol abuse.
c. It is usually, but not always, the result of chronic alcohol abuse.
109
What does an EEG measure?
The summation of action potentials within a given area of the cortex over time. Closely correlates with changes in state of consciousness
110
What brain regions and genes are involved in circadian rhythms?
Brain Regions:
Circadian rhythms are dependent the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) of the hypothalamus.
SCN receives direct input from the eye
Some retinal cells project only to SCN
Same cells contain specific form of opsin called melanopsin.
Removal of SCN leads to lack of circadian rhythm entrainment by light.
Genes:
Neurons contain genes known as clock genes that are expressed at different levels across the day.
111
***Further explain the following biological determinant of sexual orientation: Genetics
Data in Humans
-The concordance rate in monozygotic (identical) twins is 50%
22% in dizygotic (fraternal) twins and in unrelated adoptive brothers
-Much less genetic influence in females
*If sexual orientation is genetic, it likely involves many genes.
Flies: Altering the function of specific genes in flies elicits homosexual activity.
112
* **Further explain the following biological determinant of sexual orientation:
- Development effects of hormones
Females with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) are overexposed to testosterone-like hormones in utero.
1/3 of these women are homosexual or bisexual.
Genetic males with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS) fail to masculinize in utero and develop female primary sexual organs.
Almost all with have an orientation towards males.
113
***Further explain the following biological determinant of sexual orientation:
older brother effect
The greater the # of older biological brothers, the greater the likelihood of homosexuality in males
For each older brother, likelihood increases by a third
"Maternal immunization hypothesis": When a mother is carrying her first son, the placental barrier protects each from exposure to the other’s proteins. But inevitable mixing of blood upon delivery will expose the mother for the first time to male-specific proteins (blue triangles), including those encoded on the Y chromosome. If her immune system produces antibodies to these proteins, then the placenta may actively transport those antibodies to subsequent offspring in utero, potentially affecting development of later-born sons, but not later-born daughters.
114
***Further explain the following biological determinant of sexual orientation:
Brain activation as a function of orientation
Smelling androstendione (AND) (a type of T) activates anterior hypothalamus (HT) in gay males and women.
Estrogen (EST) smell activates anterior HT in gay males but posterior HT in straight males.
115
What is an NMDA receptor?
- Is it ionotropic or metabotropic?
- What type of channel does it gate?
- What neurotransmitter does it use?
- What is it critical for?
The N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor is called " the co-incidence detector."
- Ionotropic
- Gates a calcium channel
- uses glutamate as a neurotransmitter
- critical to LTP and to new learning
116
What two conditions must me bet for an NMDA receptor to open?
1. Glutamate must be bound to the NMDA receptor.
| 2. The inside of the dendrite must be depolarized.
117
List the four affects of pheromones on reproductive physiology and behavior.
Using what sensory system do mammalian species detect pheromones?
1. Lee-Boot effect
2. Whitten effect
3. Vandenbergh effect
4. Bruce effect
*olfactory system
118
The slowing and eventual cessation of estrous cycles in groups of female animals that are housed together; caused by a pheromone in the animals' urine; first observed in mice
Lee-Boot effect
119
The synchronization of the menstrual or estrous cycles of a group of females, which occurs only in the presence of a pheromone in a male's urine
Whitten effect
120
The earlier onset of puberty seen in female animals that are housed with males; caused by a pheromone in the male's urine; first observed in mice
Vandenbergh effect
121
Termination of pregnancy caused by the odor of a pheromone in the urine of a male other than the one that impregnated the female; first identified in mice.
Bruce effect
122
Role of calcium in LTP
| CAM KII and NO
.
124
* How weak synaptic connections are strengthened by activity at very strong synapses (NMDA receptors)(see Fig. 12.9 for additional example)
* How calcium may increase dendritic sensitivity to weak inputs (see Fig. 12.13 for additional example)
* Comparison of short-term vs. long-term memory
.
125
What is the role of the dorsal hippocampus?
Memory consolidation
