Exam 3 Flashcards
(97 cards)
1
Q
What are the three types of production for sheep and goats?
A
Meat, Fiber, Dairy
2
Q
How many sheep farms were there in the US in 2017?
A
101,000 sheep farms
3
Q
What was the sheep population in the US in 2017?
A
5.23 million sheep
4
Q
How many goat operations are in the US?
A
152,000 operations
5
Q
What is the average number of goats per operation in the US?
A
20 head
6
Q
What was the lamb production in the US in 1945?
A
227 million pounds
7
Q
What percentage of US lamb consumption is imported from Australia and New Zealand?
A
50%
8
Q
In what year did US lamb production drop to 38.4 million pounds?
A
2006
9
Q
What was the per capita lamb consumption in the US?
A
¼ pound per capita
10
Q
What caused the decline in lamb consumption post-WWII?
A
Canned mutton fed to troops
11
Q
What is the wool production in the US as of 2010?
A
30.6 million pounds of wool
12
Q
Which country produced the most wool in 2010?
A
Australia
13
Q
What are the wool production characteristics for sheep?
A
Shorn once/year; Wool breeds 8-12 pound fleeces; Meat breeds 4-8 pound fleeces
14
Q
What are the two main types of dairy products produced from goats?
A
Cheeses, Milk
15
Q
What is the primary breed of sheep for meat production?
A
Suffolk
16
Q
Name two dairy breeds of goats.
A
- Nubian
- Alpine
17
Q
What is the estrous cycle length for sheep?
A
17 days
18
Q
What is the breeding season duration for sheep?
A
2 cycles or 34 days
19
Q
What is the ram:ewe ratio for breeding sheep?
A
1:40-50
20
Q
Fill in the blank: The gestation period for sheep and goats is approximately _______.
A
~ 5 months
21
Q
What is the ideal body condition score (BCS) for ewes at breeding?
A
3/5
22
Q
What disease is caused by Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency?
A
White muscle disease
23
Q
What is ‘flushing’ in sheep nutrition?
A
Increasing ovulation by improving nutrition before breeding season
24
Q
What is the primary cause of urolithiasis?
A
Struvite, Apatite, Silicate, Calcium carbonate
25
What condition is known as 'twin lamb disease'?
Pregnancy Toxemia
26
What causes polioencephalomalacia?
Thiamine deficiency
27
True or False: Enterotoxemia is caused by Clostridium perfringens type D.
True
28
What is the prevention method for infectious diseases in sheep and goats?
Vaccination and proper management
29
What is the primary concern with copper toxicity in sheep?
Accumulation of copper in liver and sudden release to bloodstream
30
What are the signs of mastitis in sheep?
* Hot, painful udder
* Abnormal discharge
* Off-feed, fever
31
What is the primary cause of contagious ecthyma?
Parapox virus
32
Which disease is characterized by abscessation of lymph nodes?
Caseous Lymphadenitis
33
What is the primary treatment for pneumonia in sheep?
Antimicrobials
34
What is the primary pathogen involved in ovine progressive pneumonia?
Nononcogenic retroviruses (lenti)
35
What is the typical age for lambs affected by Pasteurella pneumonia?
2 weeks to 2 months
36
How can you prevent urolithiasis in goats?
Ensure fresh water and manage diet
37
What is the main management strategy to prevent mastitis?
Ensure adequate milk production and proper shelter
38
What is the most common type of copper toxicity in sheep?
Acute Copper Toxicity
39
What is the ideal Ca:P ratio in the diet to prevent urolithiasis?
2:1 Ca:P ratio
40
What is Caseous Lymphadenitis?
A contagious disease affecting sheep and goats, characterized by abscess formation in lymph nodes.
## Footnote
Highly contagious and primarily affects adults.
41
What are the prevention methods for Caseous Lymphadenitis?
Preventive measures include:
* Don’t buy infected animals
* Quarantine and cull affected animals
* Disinfect equipment
* Do not open abscesses.
42
What is Ringworm?
A highly contagious fungal infection affecting particularly young animals, also known as dermatophytosis.
## Footnote
Caused by species such as Trichophyton verrucosum, gypseum, mentragrophytes, and Microsporum canis.
43
How can Ringworm be prevented?
Preventive measures include:
* Isolate infected animals
* Clean all grooming equipment and do not share
* Ban from showing.
* Don’t visit other people’s lambs.
44
What is Footrot?
An infectious disease caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and Dichelobacter nodosus, damaging the hoof.
## Footnote
It spreads rapidly in warm, wet environments.
45
What are the symptoms of Footrot?
Symptoms include:
* Mild to severe lameness
* Many animals are usually affected.
46
What are the prevention strategies for Footrot?
Prevention strategies include:
* Regular, aggressive foot trimming
* Maintaining a dry environment
* Treating and removing affected animals
* Disinfecting trimmers and equipment.
47
Name some internal parasites affecting livestock.
Common internal parasites include:
* Strongyles
* Trichostrongyle spp.
* Nematodirus spp.
* Haemonchus spp.
* Whipworms
* Trichuris
* Capillaria spp.
* Tapeworms
* Monezia spp.
* Coccidia (Eimeria spp.)
48
What are the pasture factors for internal parasite control?
Key pasture factors include:
* Stocking density < 6-8 head/acre
* Dense canopy from Bermuda, brome, or improved pastures
* Sun-exposed fecal pellets reaching 155°F
* Sparse brush for heat and drying.
49
What animal factors influence internal parasite control?
Factors include:
* Young animals
* Genetics
* 20% of animals harboring 80% of worms
* New purchases and social stresses
* Immunosuppression and periparturient rise.
50
What are the drug factors related to internal parasite control?
Important drug factors include:
* No new drugs being developed
* Rotation of dewormers is not recommended
* No drug achieving 100% kill
* Drug resistance is a random event.
51
What is the goal of internal parasite treatment strategies?
The goal is to manage worm numbers, not eliminate them entirely, allowing susceptible populations to persist on pasture.
## Footnote
Refugia is important to dilute the population.
52
What role does nutrition play in sheep health regarding parasites?
Nutrition affects:
* Protein levels improving immunity
* Phosphorus inhibiting worm establishment
* Copper being essential for immunity against GI nematodes.
53
What are common terms associated with swine health?
Common terms include:
* PRRSV – Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus
* PEDV – Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus
* PCV2 – Porcine circovirus type 2
* SIV – Swine influenza virus.
54
What is the take-home message regarding swine health management?
Health management focuses on prevention rather than treatment.
## Footnote
Key areas include biosecurity, pig flow, and managing immunity.
55
What are biosecurity measures for swine health?
Measures include:
* Keeping disease out of the farm
* Specific protocols for introducing replacement animals
* Sanitation of people and equipment.
56
What is the All-in, All-out production system?
A system where pigs of similar age are moved in and out together, with facilities cleaned and disinfected between groups.
57
What are the categories of pig diseases?
Categories include:
* Reproductive
* Enteric
* Respiratory
* Systemic (septicemia).
58
What are common reproductive diseases in pigs?
Common diseases include:
* Leptospirosis
* Parvovirus
* PRRSV.
59
What are the clinical signs of PRRSV?
Signs include:
* Reduced farrowing rates
* Increased stillbirths
* Increased pre-weaning mortality.
* Affects all ages.
60
What is the primary symptom of E. coli infections in pigs?
Symptoms include rapid onset of diarrhea, often with high pH, and should respond to antibiotics if treated early.
61
What is Coccidiosis in pigs?
A protozoan parasite causing diarrhea and potentially up to 20% mortality in piglets.
## Footnote
Diagnosis typically occurs between 7-14 days of age.
62
What is Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea (PED)?
A viral disease causing severe diarrhea and vomiting in nursing and recently weaned pigs, often leading to high mortality rates.
## Footnote
Confirmed in the US on May 17, 2013.
63
What is PEDV?
A pig-only disease that does not affect other species or humans and is not a food safety concern.
## Footnote
PEDV has been present in Europe and Asia since 1971 but has never previously been reported in the US.
64
What is the mortality rate of nursing pigs affected by PEDV?
Likely near 100% in nursing pigs, 50-100% in nursery pigs, 1-3% in fattening pigs, negligible in adults.
65
What is the typical incubation time for PEDV?
Typically less than 36 hours.
66
How long is the virus shed in feces for PEDV?
Up to 11 days.
67
What type of virus is Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGEV)?
Enveloped RNA virus.
68
What is the incubation period for TGEV?
18 hours to 3 days.
69
What are the clinical signs of TGEV?
Severe scours, vomiting in sows, watery to yellow scours with a foul odor.
70
What is a recommended management practice for TGEV?
Wean pigs early (< 21 days) and isolate.
71
What is the causative agent of Rotavirus?
Virus of the Reoviridae family, genus Rotavirus.
72
What is the incubation period for Rotavirus?
12-24 hours.
73
What is the primary management issue for finisher pig enteric disease?
Ventilation - Temperature fluctuation.
74
What is the causative agent of Porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE)?
Lawsonia intracellularis.
75
What are the clinical signs of ileitis?
Sudden deaths, sometimes bloody scours, slow growth.
76
What are effective treatments for ileitis?
Tylosin, Tiamulin; water-soluble and injectable vaccines.
77
What is the quick test for ileitis?
If you can see your yellow Playtex posting glove through the ileum, you probably don’t have ileitis.
78
What is the major problem in the finishing segment of the swine industry?
Respiratory Disease.
79
What is the Porcine Respiratory Disease Complex (PRDC)?
A complex of viral and bacterial pathogens.
80
What are common respiratory diseases in pigs?
* PRRSV
* Swine influenza
* Mycoplasmal pneumonia
* Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
81
What are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae?
High morbidity, low mortality, dry nonproductive cough, difficulty breathing, fever, off-feed.
82
What is the treatment for Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae?
Vaccination available in the U.S.; 1 or 2 dose vaccines.
83
What is Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (APP) associated with?
Rapid, high mortality; stress-induced; acute or chronic forms.
84
What are the clinical signs of Swine influenza virus (SIV)?
Rapid onset, high morbidity, low mortality, significant respiratory symptoms.
85
What is the treatment for Swine influenza?
No specific treatment; supportive care and control of secondary infections.
86
What is Streptococcus suis associated with?
Meningitis, fever, respiratory disease, arthritis, neurological issues.
87
What is Glasserella parasuis also known as?
Glasser’s Disease.
88
What are the clinical signs of Glasserella parasuis?
Multiple swollen joints, meningitis, sudden death.
89
What is the causative agent of Erysipelas?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.
90
What are the clinical signs of Erysipelas?
Diamond-skin lesions, vegetative valvular endocarditis, severe arthritis.
91
What is Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2)?
A small non-enveloped DNA virus with a unique single-stranded circular genome.
92
What are the clinical signs of PCV2 infection?
Cough, listlessness, lymph node enlargement, rough hair coat.
93
What are the vaccination recommendations for gilts and sow herds?
* Core: PCV2, Parvo, Lepto, Erysipelas
* Situation specific: E. coli, Clostridia, Rotavirus feedback, Influenza, Glasserella parasuis
94
What are present challenges regarding antibiotic use in swine?
Increased oversight, consumer pressure to lower use, must justify health benefits.
95
What is the significance of weaning age and antibiotic use in pigs?
No interaction found; increasing weaning age improved growth performance.
96
What should be done in an isolation facility?
* Minimize external entry
* Isolate at least 48 days
* Test for antibodies
97
What is the main focus of health management in today's swine industry?
Prevention, focusing on biosecurity and managing immunity.
