Final Exam Flashcards
(292 cards)
1
Q
What is an Infectious Disease?
A
Damages or injures the host so as to impair host function, resulting from the presence and activity of one or more pathogenic microbial agents.
Pathogenic agents include bacteria, fungi, rickettsiae, viruses, and internal/external parasites.
2
Q
Define Contagious Disease.
A
An infectious disease that is capable of being transmitted from one person/species to another.
3
Q
What is a Zoonotic Disease?
A
A contagious disease that can be passed from animals to humans under natural conditions.
Examples include rabies, Hendra virus, influenza, ringworm, and salmonella.
4
Q
What natural barriers reduce the risk of disease spread in North America?
A
Oceans, rivers, mountains.
5
Q
What factors increase the risk of infectious diseases in horses?
A
Global movement of horses and products.
6
Q
How can we prevent Infectious Diseases in horses?
A
Through age and risk assessment, quarantine, vaccines, dewormers, and treatment with medications.
7
Q
What is the age classification for young horses?
A
Young horses are classified as those less than 1 year of age.
8
Q
When should vaccinations for young horses start?
A
Vaccinations should start at 4-6 months of age with a booster in 3-4 weeks.
9
Q
What immunity type is present in mature horses?
A
Innate and adaptive immunity.
10
Q
What are the implications of being a broodmare?
A
Disease can cause abortion, and sexually transmitted diseases are a concern.
11
Q
What is maternal passive transfer in broodmares?
A
Antibodies are transferred to the foal during the last 30-45 days of pregnancy and through colostrum in the last 2 weeks before birth.
12
Q
What concerns are associated with stallions?
A
They are involved in live cover vs. collection for AI and are at risk for sexually transmitted and communicable diseases.
13
Q
What role do normal flora play in bacterial and fungal infections?
A
Commensal bacteria provide benefits without harm, but their disruption can lead to disease through opportunistic pathogens.
14
Q
What factors contribute to the success of an Infectious Disease?
A
- Virulence of the organism
- Microbial resistance (e.g., nosocomial infections, MRSA)
- Inoculum size (exposure amount)
- Host immune system.
15
Q
What is the vaccination purpose?
A
To produce or artificially increase immunity of the host to a particular disease.
16
Q
Name the core vaccinations for horses.
A
- Tetanus
- Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis
- West Nile Virus
- Rabies.
17
Q
What is Tetanus caused by?
A
Clostridium tetani, which produces an exotoxin (neurotoxin) leading to spastic paralysis.
18
Q
What are the clinical signs of Tetanus?
A
- Prolapsed third eyelid
- Hypersensitivity to light/sound
- Stilted gait
- Seizures.
Poor prognosis is common.
19
Q
What is the required condition for Tetanus to occur?
A
An anaerobic wound.
20
Q
What is the treatment for Tetanus?
A
- Tetanus toxoid
- Tetanus antitoxin.
21
Q
What viruses cause Eastern/Western Equine Encephalitis?
A
Toga viruses.
22
Q
What are the clinical signs of Eastern/Western Equine Encephalitis?
A
- Neurologic signs
- Ataxia
- Depression
- Head-pressing.
23
Q
What is the mortality rate for Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE)?
A
95%.
24
Q
What is the transmission vector for West Nile Virus?
A
Mosquitoes.
25
What are the clinical signs of West Nile Virus?
* Neurological factors
* Ataxia
* Depression/stupor.
## Footnote
Case fatality rate is between 28.4% to 38%.
26
What is the rabies virus type?
Rhabdovirus.
27
What are the phases of rabies clinical signs?
* Prodromal
* Excitatory
* Paralytic.
28
What is the mean survival time after onset of rabies clinical signs?
4.47 days.
29
What is the rabies vaccination protocol for foals/weanlings?
Start at 3-6 months with a booster in 4-6 weeks.
30
What are the clinical signs of Equine Herpesvirus (EHV 1 and 4)?
* Upper respiratory signs
* Neurologic signs
* Abortion.
31
What is the vaccination schedule for foals/weanlings against EHV?
Start at 4-6 months with a booster in 4-6 weeks and 10-12 months old.
32
What are the clinical signs of Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?
* Fever
* Anorexia
* Limb edema.
## Footnote
May also cause abortion.
33
What are the types of vaccines available for Influenza?
* Killed virus: IM
* Modified live virus: IN.
34
What are the clinical signs of Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?
Fever, anorexia, depression, serous nasal discharge, cough, conjunctivitis, lacrimation, palpebral edema, limb swelling, asymmetric painfulness, mild preputial, scrotal, ventral edema, abortion.
35
What is the treatment approach for Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?
Symptomatic treatment.
36
What are the prevention methods for Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA)?
Isolation and vaccination based on risk.
37
What is the vaccination protocol for colts against EVA?
1 dose at 6-12 months of age.
38
What is the vaccination protocol for stallions against EVA?
2-4 weeks prior to breeding season.
39
What is the vaccination protocol for mares against EVA?
Vaccinate when open (prior to breeding).
40
What is the recommendation regarding the use of MLV-EVA vaccine in pregnant mares?
Do not use in pregnant mares.
41
How long should vaccinates be isolated from non-vaccinates after receiving the EVA vaccine?
21 days.
42
What is the most common cause of viral diarrhea in foals?
Rotavirus.
43
What is the vaccination protocol for broodmares against Rotavirus?
3 dose series at 8, 9, and 10 months of gestation.
44
What bacterium causes Strangles in horses?
Streptococcus equi var equi.
45
What are the clinical signs of Strangles?
Lethargy, fever, enlarged lymph nodes, purulent nasal discharge.
46
Is the Strangles vaccine a strategy to mitigate an outbreak?
No.
47
What type of vaccine is used for Strangles?
Bacterial extract vaccine (IM) and modified live vaccine (intranasal only).
48
What is Botulism caused by?
Clostridium botulinum.
49
What are the clinical signs of Adult Botulism?
Loss of tail, tongue, eyelid tone, dysphagia, weak gait, muscle tremors, respiratory paralysis.
50
What is 'Shaker foal syndrome' associated with?
Foal Botulism.
51
What is the vaccination protocol for Botulism in primiparous mares?
8th, 9th, and 10th months of gestation, with a single booster in the 10th month of subsequent years.
52
What causes Potomac Horse Fever?
Neorickettsia risticii.
53
What are the clinical signs of Potomac Horse Fever?
Fever, leukopenia, diarrhea, laminitis, abortion.
54
What is the vaccination protocol for Potomac Horse Fever?
Initial and booster 3 to 4 weeks apart; revaccinate every 3 to 6 months.
55
What bacterium causes Anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis.
56
What is the vaccination protocol for Anthrax?
2 doses SQ 2-3 weeks apart for unvaccinated; annual for vaccinated.
57
What are the clinical signs of Leptospirosis in horses?
Pyrexia, icterus, periodic uveitis, renal disease, abortion.
58
What is the name of the test for Equine Infectious Anemia?
Coggins test.
59
What can cause vaccine failure?
Failure to mount immune response, exposure before vaccination, maternal antibodies interference, improper storage, waning immunity, manufacturing errors.
60
What are the overall objectives of vaccination?
Vaccinate only against agents with realistic exposure risk, against agents causing significant disease, no more frequently than necessary, protect public health, benefits outweigh risks.
61
What are the four types of vaccine categories?
* Attenuated
* Inactivated
* Recombinant
* Toxoid
62
What is the main cause of infectious parasitic disease in horses?
Equine Protozoal Myelitis (EPM).
63
What are the clinical signs of Equine Protozoal Myelitis?
Neurologic signs: ataxia, muscle atrophy.
64
What is the route of transmission for internal parasites?
Fecal to oral transmission.
65
What is the treatment approach for internal parasites?
Dewormers and management strategies.
66
What does biosecurity aim to achieve?
Keeping livestock and humans healthy and free from infectious diseases.
67
What are the components of the Infectious Disease Triad?
* Quarantine
* Vaccinate
* Test
68
What is the earliest age for administering the first dose of some noninfectious vaccines?
12 weeks
69
When does MDA interference to most bacterins become uncommon?
After 6–9 weeks of age
70
Why should noninfectious bacterins be given at ≥12 weeks of age?
The immune system is more mature
71
What is the recommended action if the interval between the initial two doses of a noninfectious vaccine exceeds 6 weeks?
Revaccinate, administering two doses, 2–6 weeks apart
72
What is the minimum time for protective immunity development in a naïve dog or cat after the first noninfectious vaccine dose?
3 weeks
73
What are core diseases in veterinary vaccination?
* Wide-spread
* High morbidity +/- mortality
* Required by law
74
What characterizes noncore diseases in veterinary vaccination?
* Lifestyle
* Geographic location
* 'Lifestyle vaccines'
75
Which organizations provide canine vaccination guidelines?
AAHA
76
What are the canine diseases with available vaccines?
* Distemper
* Adenovirus 1 and 2
* Parvovirus
* Parainfluenza
* Bordetella
* Leptospirosis
* Lyme
* Canine influenza
* Coronavirus
* Crotalis Atrox
77
What is the rabies virus primarily spread by?
Saliva
78
What is the minimum age for rabies vaccination?
12 weeks
79
How often should rabies boosters be given after the initial vaccination?
Every 1-3 years depending on the vaccine used
80
What does the 2016 Rabies Compendium recommend for vaccine selection?
Vaccines should have at least a 3-year duration of immunity
81
What does the Micro RFFIT Screen (MRS) test evaluate?
Need for rabies boosters
82
What RVNA titer level is expected to provide greater assurance of protection?
0.5 IU/mL or above
83
What does a rabies titer indicate?
Response to vaccine or infection
84
What is the major characteristic of canine distemper virus?
Highly contagious
85
How is canine distemper primarily spread?
Via respiratory secretions
86
What are the symptoms of canine parvovirus?
* Vomiting
* Bloody diarrhea
* Severe dehydration
* Heart failure
* Sepsis
* Death
87
What is the vaccine schedule for DA2P or DA2PP?
* Start at 6-8 weeks of age
* Booster every 3-4 weeks
* End at ≥ 16 weeks of age
88
What is required for titers to be used in lieu of vaccination?
* Positive measurable blood antibody titer
* Paired with challenge studies
89
What are the leptospirosis symptoms?
* Fever
* Depression
* Kidney and/or liver failure
* Conjunctivitis
* Death
90
What is the vaccine schedule for leptospirosis?
* Start ≥ 9 weeks of age
* Booster in 3-4 weeks and then annually
91
What is the primary mode of transmission for Lyme disease?
Bite of Ixodes scapularis tick
92
What are the symptoms of Bordetella?
* Cough
* Eye and nasal discharge
* Gagging up white phlegm
* Pneumonia
93
What is the vaccine schedule for Bordetella?
* Series of 2 if no previous vaccination
* Start at ≥8 weeks of age
94
What are the symptoms of canine influenza?
* Fever
* Cough
* Eye and nasal discharge
* Pneumonia
* Death
95
What is the vaccine schedule for canine influenza?
* Start at ≥6 weeks of age
* Booster in 3-4 weeks then annually
96
What is a characteristic of canine coronavirus?
Mild, self-limiting disease in most dogs
97
What are the specific feline concerns regarding vaccines?
* Vaccine associated sarcomas (VAS)
* Adjuvant vs. nonadjuvant vaccines
* Vaccine locations
98
What is the incidence of feline injection site sarcomas (FISS)?
Varies by country depending on vaccine use
99
What do adjuvants in vaccines cause?
Inflammation
100
What should practitioners do regarding FISS?
Keep complete, accurate records
101
What factors likely contribute to the development of Feline Injection Site Sarcomas (FISS)?
Chronic inflammation, vaccine components, individual host factors
## Footnote
Choosing less inflammatory products or using intranasal routes may help reduce risk.
102
What should practitioners do with vaccine labels?
Peel off labels with vaccine information
## Footnote
Keeping accurate records of administration site and route is strongly advised.
103
What are the feline core vaccines?
* Rabies
* Panleukopenia
* Rhinotracheitis
* Calicivirus
* +/- FeLV
104
What is the vaccine schedule for rabies in cats?
≥12 weeks of age, booster in 1 year, revaccinate every 1 or 3 years
## Footnote
Schedule also influenced by state and local ordinances.
105
What are the symptoms of Feline Panleukopenia?
* Profound depression
* Vomiting
* Diarrhea
* Extreme dehydration
* Abortion
* Cerebellar hypoplasia
106
How is Feline Herpes Virus (FHV-1) transmitted?
Direct contact, ocular and nasal secretions, fomites
## Footnote
Upper respiratory disease symptoms include sneezing, cough, and conjunctivitis.
107
What is a key characteristic of Feline Calicivirus?
At least 40 different strains, highly contagious
## Footnote
Symptoms range from mild to severe disease.
108
What is the mortality rate associated with virulent systemic calicivirus?
Up to 60% mortality rate
109
What types of FVRCP vaccines exist?
* Parenteral (MLV, killed, ultra hybrid)
* Intranasal (MLV)
110
What does FVRCP vaccination provide in terms of immunity?
Non-sterilizing (incomplete) immunity
## Footnote
Vaccinated cats may still show clinical signs of disease.
111
What is the recommended vaccination schedule for FVRCP?
Start 6-8 weeks, booster every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks, then annually or every 3 years
## Footnote
MLV parenteral is preferred for initial series.
112
What does a titer for FVRCP indicate?
Reliability for FPV protection; less reliable for FHV and FCV
113
What are the non-core feline vaccines?
* FeLV
* FIV
* FIP
* Bordetella
* Chlamydia
114
How is Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) transmitted?
* Grooming
* Sharing food/water bowls
* Bite wounds
* Blood transfusions
* Mating
* In utero
115
What is the vaccination schedule for FeLV?
Start at 8 weeks, booster in 3-4 weeks, then annually or biannually
## Footnote
Recommended as core for all kittens.
116
What is the main transmission method for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
Bite wounds, blood transfusions
## Footnote
Less likely through mating and in utero.
117
Why was the FIV vaccine discontinued in the U.S.?
Controversial due to interference with testing and lack of cross-protection
118
What symptoms are associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica?
* Sneezing
* Fever
* Nasal discharge
* Cough
119
What is the vaccination schedule for Bordetella?
Intranasal, ≥8 weeks, single dose, annual revaccination
## Footnote
Not routinely used in pet cats.
120
What conditions does Chlamydia (Chlamydophila felis) primarily cause?
Conjunctivitis, sneezing, nasal discharge
121
What is the FIP vaccine schedule?
Start at 16 weeks, booster in 3-4 weeks, then annually
## Footnote
Not generally recommended due to uncertain efficacy.
122
What is a key conclusion regarding vaccination?
Many fatal diseases are preventable through vaccination
123
What is the optimal interval for vaccinating kittens and puppies?
Minimum 2 weeks, maximum 4 weeks between doses
124
How long can a reconstituted MLV vaccine remain at room temperature?
2 to 3 hours before losing immunizing ability
125
What should be done to control infection of diseases?
Isolate sick animals, disinfect contaminated surfaces, handle young animals first
126
What should be done if an animal is bitten by a suspected rabid animal?
Rabies vaccine should be boostered within 96 hours
127
What are the additional methods to control/prevent infection?
* Isolate sick animals
* Disinfect surfaces
* Use flea/tick control
* Keep pets current on vaccines
128
Where can one find a list of licensed vaccines in the United States?
www.aphis.usda.gov/aphis/ourfocus/animalhealth/veterinary-biologics/ct_vb_licensed_products
129
Why discuss parasites in pets?
They can cause life-threatening disease, some are zoonotic, and parasite products are big business
## Footnote
Zoonotic parasites can transmit serious diseases to humans.
130
What are roundworms?
Ascarids: Toxocara canis, Toxocara sp., and Toxascaris leonina
## Footnote
Affects dogs and cats; some species affect both.
131
How are roundworms acquired?
Ingestion of larvated egg from the environment, earthworms, vertebrate hosts, milk (transmammary), or in utero (transplacental)
## Footnote
Toxocara sp. can be transmitted via milk; T. canis can be transmitted in utero.
132
What is the prepatent period for roundworms?
2-4 weeks up to 8-10 weeks
## Footnote
Varies by species and method of acquisition.
133
What are the symptoms of roundworm infection?
Vomiting, diarrhea, bloated abdomen, GI impaction, pneumonia, failure to thrive, unthrifty appearance, death
## Footnote
Young animals are most severely impacted.
134
What is the prevalence of roundworms in the population?
Up to 30%; assumed that all young puppies and kittens are infected
## Footnote
Recommended to start deworming at 2 weeks of age.
135
How many eggs can a female roundworm lay in one day?
85,000-200,000 eggs per day
136
What are hookworms?
Parasites affecting dogs and cats
## Footnote
Some species affect both, others only dogs or cats.
137
How are hookworms acquired?
Ingestion of infective larvae, skin penetration, or via milk (transmammary)
## Footnote
Also can be acquired from larvae-carrying cockroaches.
138
What is the prepatent period for hookworms?
2-3 weeks, up to 28 days
139
What are the symptoms of hookworm infection?
Severe anemia, dark tarry stools, diarrhea, emaciation, dermatitis, pneumonia, failure to thrive, unthrifty appearance, death
## Footnote
Young are most severely affected.
140
What is the prevalence of hookworms in the population?
Up to 36%; most young puppies and kittens are assumed infected
## Footnote
Recommended to start deworming at 2 weeks of age.
141
How many eggs do hookworms lay per day?
25,000 eggs per day
142
What are whipworms?
Parasites primarily affecting dogs; uncommon in cats in North America
143
How are whipworms acquired?
Ingesting eggs containing infective larvae from the environment
144
What is the prepatent period for whipworms?
74-90 days
145
What are the symptoms of whipworm infection?
Diarrhea streaked with mucous and fresh blood, weight loss, dehydration, anemia, death
146
What is the prevalence of whipworms in the population?
10-14%
147
How many eggs do whipworms lay per day?
2,000 eggs/day, intermittently
148
What are tapeworms?
Parasites affecting dogs and cats, including Taenia, Dipylidium, and Echinococcus sp.
149
How are tapeworms acquired?
Ingesting larval cysts from intermediate hosts, such as rodents or fleas
150
What is the prepatent period for tapeworms?
2-3 weeks up to 1-2 months
151
What are the symptoms of tapeworm infection?
Often asymptomatic, mild GI signs, itchiness, rare impaction
152
What is the prevalence of tapeworms in the population?
Up to 50-60%
153
What is the treatment for tapeworms?
Oral and topical medications; only one drug (praziquantel) for Echinococcus
154
Are tapeworms zoonotic?
Uncommon for most species, but Echinococcus is zoonotic
155
What are coccidia?
Parasites affecting dogs and cats; several species are host-specific
156
How are coccidia acquired?
Ingestion of cysts from the environment or transport hosts
157
What is the prepatent period for coccidia?
Variable between species; 4-23 days
158
What are the symptoms of coccidia infection?
Diarrhea (sometimes bloody), weight loss, dehydration, anorexia, vomiting, depression, death
159
What is the prevalence of coccidia in the population?
3-38%
160
Is coccidia zoonotic?
No
161
What is Giardia?
Parasite affecting dogs and cats; several species are generally species-specific
162
How is Giardia acquired?
Ingestion of infective cysts from the environment
163
What is the prepatent period for Giardia?
Variable between species; 3-10 days
164
What are the symptoms of Giardia infection?
Diarrhea, weight loss, dehydration, malabsorption, maldigestion, vomiting, poor-doer
165
What is the prevalence of Giardia in the population?
Regional differences; 10-15% of those with clinical signs
166
Is Giardia zoonotic?
Possible, but rare from pets
167
What are general guidelines for control and prevention of intestinal parasites in puppies and kittens?
Deworm starting at 2 weeks of age, repeating every 2 weeks until 8 weeks; then monthly products
168
What is the recommended preventive measure for parasites in dogs and cats?
Keep on broad spectrum monthly deworming products
169
What is the prepatent period for heartworm?
6-7 months
170
How is heartworm acquired?
Bite from a mosquito carrying infective larvae (L3)
171
What are the symptoms of heartworm infection?
Cough, weight loss, exercise intolerance, respiratory distress, acute collapse, distended abdomen, vomiting, neurologic signs, death
172
What is the treatment for heartworm in dogs?
Yes; for cats, no great options
173
Is heartworm zoonotic?
Not directly from pets, but there are reported human cases
174
What are fleas?
External parasites affecting dogs and cats; many species
175
How are fleas acquired?
From the environment or other animals
176
What is the prepatent period for fleas?
13 days to 50 weeks
177
What are the symptoms of flea infestation?
Itching, hair loss, skin infection, anemia, death
178
Are fleas zoonotic?
Yes; can transmit diseases like cat scratch disease and some forms of typhus
179
What are ticks?
External parasites affecting dogs and cats; many species
180
How are ticks acquired?
From the environment, shaded areas, or other animals
181
What are the symptoms of tick infestation?
Pruritus, hair loss, skin infection, anemia, paralysis, death
182
Are ticks zoonotic?
Yes; can cause diseases like Lyme and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
183
What are ear mites?
Parasites affecting dogs and cats, acquired through close contact
184
What are the symptoms of ear mite infestation?
Head shaking, scratching at ears, odor, dark discharge, scabby skin
185
Are ear mites zoonotic?
Rare cases
186
What are lice?
Species-specific parasites affecting dogs and cats
187
How are lice acquired?
Close contact with infected animals or fomites
188
What are the symptoms of lice infestation?
Restlessness, pruritus, scratching, ruffled coat, hair loss
189
Are lice zoonotic?
No; species-specific
190
What is cutaneous myiasis?
Infestation caused by female flies laying eggs in wounds or damp areas
191
What are the symptoms of cutaneous myiasis?
Foul smell, visible moving larvae, depression, lethargy, loss of appetite
192
What is Cuterebra?
A bot fly causing infections in dogs and cats as accidental hosts
193
How is Cuterebra acquired?
Eggs laid around rabbit burrows; larvae enter through various openings
194
What are the symptoms of Cuterebra infection?
Distinctive subcutaneous cyst, neurologic and respiratory signs
195
What is sarcoptic mange?
Caused by Sarcoptes scabiei, affecting dogs and rarely cats
196
What are the symptoms of sarcoptic mange?
Thickened skin, hair loss, pruritus, secondary infections
197
Is sarcoptic mange zoonotic?
Can cause skin lesions in humans, but cannot complete life cycle
198
What is demodectic mange?
Caused by Demodex mites; affects dogs and cats
199
How is demodectic mange acquired?
Skin-to-skin contact with mother (long-bodied) or direct contact (short-bodied)
200
What are the symptoms of demodectic mange in dogs?
Patchy hair loss, pruritus, red skin
201
What are the symptoms of demodectic mange in cats?
Pruritus and hair loss from overgrooming
202
What is the prepatent period for Demodectic mange?
20-35 days
203
What are the symptoms of Demodectic mange in dogs?
Patchy hair loss, pruritus, red skin
204
What are the symptoms of Demodectic mange in cats?
Pruritus and hair loss from overgrooming
205
What is the prevalence of Demodectic mange in dogs and cats?
Dogs: Common, especially young and immunocompromised; Cats: Uncommon (long) and rare (short)
206
What is the treatment for Demodectic mange in dogs?
Series of dips, off-label systemic products, only treat generalized infections
207
What is the treatment for Demodectic mange in cats?
Often a series of dips for short-bodied, systemic products for long-bodied
208
Are Demodectic mange mites zoonotic?
No
209
How are Chiggers acquired?
Laying or walking in grass, low-lying vegetation, forests
210
What is the prepatent period for Chiggers?
50-70 days
211
What are the symptoms of Chigger infestation?
Red bumps on skin, pruritus, secondary bacterial skin infection
212
What is the treatment for Chigger infestation?
Many flea/tick products will kill them; best to use repelling products
213
What are preventive measures for external parasites?
Topical or oral medications, premise treatment, treat secondary infections, keep animals groomed and checked daily
214
How many pet dogs are there in the U.S. according to 2024 AVMA statistics?
89.7 million
215
How many pet cats are there in the U.S. according to 2024 AVMA statistics?
73.8 million
216
What percentage of U.S. households own a pet?
66%
217
What is the most common insurance claim for dogs in 2024?
Skin allergies
218
What is the most common insurance claim for cats in 2024?
Gastroenteritis
219
List three top physical exam findings in pets.
* Obesity
* Dental disease
* Otitis
220
What is the toxic component in chocolate?
Theobromine and caffeine
221
What are the clinical signs of chocolate toxicity?
* GI upset
* Muscle tremors
* Cardiac arrhythmias
* Seizures
222
What is the treatment for chocolate toxicity?
* Decontaminate – induce vomiting
* Treat clinical signs
* Activated charcoal for severe cases
223
What are the clinical signs of lily toxicity in cats?
* Lethargy
* Decreased appetite
* Vomiting
* Drooling
224
What is the treatment for lily toxicity in cats?
* Induce vomiting
* +/- activated charcoal
* IV fluids
* Supportive care
225
What is the risk associated with Vitis spp. (Grapes/Raisins) in dogs?
Acute kidney injury
226
What are the clinical signs of Vitis spp. toxicity?
* Lethargy
* Vomiting
* Increased drinking
* Anorexia
227
What are the treatments for Vitis spp. toxicity?
* Induce vomiting
* Supportive care with IV fluids
228
What are the types of rodenticides that can cause poisoning in pets?
* Bromethalin
* Anticoagulants
* Cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)
229
What are common side effects of NSAIDs in pets?
* GI erosions
* Acute kidney injury
* Vomiting
* Lethargy
230
What is Xylitol and its effect on pets?
A sugar substitute that promotes insulin release, causing hypoglycemia
231
What are the clinical signs of Xylitol toxicity?
* Ataxia
* Lethargy
* Seizures
* Death
232
What are the clinical signs of marijuana toxicity in pets?
* Dribbling urine
* Bradycardia
* Stumbling
* Low respiratory rate
233
What are the effects of onions and garlic on pets?
Oxidative damage to red blood cells and GI irritation
234
What is the toxic dose of onions for cats?
5 g/kg
235
What is the treatment for onion toxicity?
* Decontamination
* Supportive care
236
What is the main toxin in Sago palm seeds?
Cycasin
237
What are the clinical signs of Sago palm toxicity in dogs?
* Vomiting
* Depression
* Diarrhea
* Anorexia
238
What are common insecticides that can poison pets?
* Snail Bait Poisoning
* Over-the-counter flea/tick products
* Garden products
239
What is Permethrin and its effects on cats?
A synthetic pyrethrin causing drooling, muscle tremors, seizures
240
How can vomiting be induced in dogs?
* Apomorphine
* Hydrogen peroxide
* Some opioids
241
What is the ASPCA Animal Poison Control Center resource?
Aspca.org/pet-care/animal-poison-control
242
What is Ropinirole ophthalmic solution marketed as?
Clevortm
243
What is a risk associated with hydrogen peroxide use in pets?
GI ulceration/upset
244
Which sedative is mentioned as sometimes used in cats?
Xylazine
245
What is a common treatment for inducing vomiting in dogs, but not effective in cats?
Apomorphine
246
What are common symptoms of Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome?
* Open mouth breathing
* Wheezing or noises and grunts when breathing normally
* Lifting head to breathe better
* Gagging
* Food regurgitation
* Snoring/sleep apnea
* General breathing difficulty
* Inability to exercise well
* Heat intolerance
247
What are the anatomical changes involved in Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome?
* Stenotic nares
* Elongated soft palate
* Everted laryngeal saccules
* Hypoplastic trachea
248
What is the definition of a benign mass?
Does NOT invade surrounding tissue or spread to distant locations
249
What is a malignant mass?
Invades surrounding tissue and/or spreads to distant locations
250
What are some common benign masses in dogs?
* Lipoma
* Perianal adenoma
* Histiocytoma
* Sebaceous adenoma
* Epulis
251
What are some common malignant masses in cats?
* Lymphoma
* Squamous cell carcinoma
* Fibrosarcoma
252
What is the purpose of a Fine Needle Aspirate (FNA)?
Cells are removed with a needle, placed on a microscope slide, stained and evaluated under the microscope
253
What are the pros and cons of a biopsy?
* Pros: More representative, less often inconclusive, May be curative
* Cons: More expensive, generally requires anesthesia, longer turn around time
254
What is a heart murmur?
Abnormal extra heart sound caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart
255
What are the different grades of heart murmurs?
* Grade I—barely audible
* Grade II—soft, but easily heard
* Grade III—intermediate loudness
* Grade IV—loud murmur that radiates widely
* Grade V—very loud, audible with stethoscope barely touching the chest
* Grade VI—very loud, audible with stethoscope barely touching the chest and felt through the chest wall
256
What is endocardiosis also known as?
Mitral valve disease
257
What is the estimated percentage of overweight or obese cats and dogs in the United States?
* 59.5% of Cats
* 55.8% of Dogs
258
What are some health risks associated with obesity in pets?
* Respiratory compromise
* Heat intolerance
* Hypertension
* Diabetes
* Liver disease
* Osteoarthritis
* Increased surgical risk
* Lowered immune function
* Decreased life expectancy
259
What is the calculation for Daily Resting Energy Requirement (RER)?
70 X (_________BW kg) 0.75 = ___________Kcal/day (RER)
260
What are the top three causes of recurrent ear infections?
* Allergies
* Allergies
* Allergies
261
What is the clinical sign of otitis?
* Scratching at ears
* Shaking of head
* Being head shy
* Redness to ear skin
* Discharge out ear
* Head tilt
* Odor
262
What are the three main categories of allergies in pets?
* Flea
* Food
* Atopy
263
What is atopic skin disease?
Inherited predisposition causing pruritic inflammation of the skin
264
What is the gold standard for allergy testing?
Intradermal skin testing
265
What is the treatment approach for food allergies?
Food trial with hydrolyzed or novel protein diets
266
What is the primary diagnostic method for determining the cause of otitis?
Cytology
267
What is the primary method of treatment for bacterial otitis?
Empirically choose antibiotic vs culture
268
What are common dermatologic diseases in pets?
* Allergies
* Parasites
* Infections
* Neoplasia
* Immune mediated disease
* Inherited conditions
269
What is the recommended body condition score (BCS) for weight control in pets?
4 – 5 out of 9
270
What is the purpose of anti-inflammatory medications in managing lameness?
To decrease inflammation
271
What are the signs of a cranial cruciate ligament rupture?
Sudden non-weight bearing lameness
272
What are the surgical options for cranial cruciate rupture?
* Tibial Plateau Leveling Osteotomy (TPLO)
* Tibial Tuberosity Advancement (TTA)
* Extracapsular repair
273
What is the gold standard for allergy testing?
Skin testing
## Footnote
Skin testing is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing allergies.
274
What does serum testing identify?
High circulating allergen specific IgE antibodies
## Footnote
Serum testing is an alternative to skin testing, especially useful before antigen desensitization therapy.
275
True or False: Intradermal and serum allergy testing are accurate for food allergy testing.
False
## Footnote
These tests are not accurate for diagnosing food allergies.
276
Name two treatments for allergies.
* Eliminate allergen
* Medications
## Footnote
Treatment includes dietary changes and various medications.
277
What is Apoquel?
Inhibitor of JAK1 and JAK3 dependent cytokines
## Footnote
Apoquel (oclacitinib) is used to treat allergic conditions.
278
What are the common clinical signs of Feline Herpes Virus?
* URI (sneezing/congestion)
* Conjunctivitis
* Eye discharge
* Nasal discharge
* Eye ulcers
* Chemosis
* Squinting
## Footnote
These symptoms are typically observed in affected cats.
279
What is the typical duration for Feline Herpes Virus symptoms?
7-10 days
## Footnote
Symptoms generally resolve within this timeframe.
280
What is the main source of Microsporum canis?
Cats
## Footnote
This species is a primary cause of ringworm in dogs and cats.
281
How is ringworm acquired?
From spores contacting broken/abraded skin
## Footnote
Direct contact with infected animals also contributes to transmission.
282
What is the main treatment for ringworm?
* Oral medication
* Shampoos/lotions
* Lyme sulfur dip
* Clean and disinfect environment
## Footnote
Treatment involves both systemic and topical approaches.
283
What is dental calculus?
Plaque that is calcified by the minerals in saliva
## Footnote
It starts to mineralize within 24-48 hours of plaque formation.
284
What percentage of dogs and cats have periodontal disease by age 3?
* 80% of dogs
* 70% of cats
## Footnote
This statistic highlights the prevalence of dental issues in pets.
285
Define gingivitis.
Inflammation of the gums
## Footnote
It is characterized by redness, swelling, and pain.
286
What is the best prevention for dental disease?
At home care
## Footnote
Regular dental care at home can significantly reduce the risk of dental disease.
287
What is the primary cause of gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)?
Stomach fills with gas, fluid, and/or food and twists
## Footnote
GDV is a critical condition that primarily affects larger, deep-chested dogs.
288
What are two risk factors for GDV?
* Eating/drinking quickly
* Exercising after eating
## Footnote
Other factors include genetics and anxiety.
289
What is the treatment for GDV?
* Stabilize and treat shock
* Decompression of stomach
* Surgery and gastropexy
## Footnote
These steps are crucial for managing GDV and preventing recurrence.
290
What is a common symptom of tooth resorptive lesions?
* Decrease appetite
* Change in eating habits
* Weight loss
## Footnote
Other signs include drooling and pawing at the face.
291
What is the prognosis for untreated complicated crown fractures?
Painful and can lead to pulp necrosis
## Footnote
Immediate treatment is essential to prevent severe complications.
292
What is the primary goal of GDV prevention?
Prophylactic gastropexy
## Footnote
This procedure can be done during spaying or neutering to prevent GDV.
