Exam 3 Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
When testing maximum speed, the athlete should have at least ___ of active recovery/rest between trials.
A
2 minutes
2
Q
Which 2 tests start in a 3 or 4 point stance ?
A
Pro-Agility test & Straight-line sprint test
3
Q
Which test requires you to sprint 10m than change direction & sprint 5m through finish line
A
505 agility test
4
Q
Which of the following is INCORRECT in a properly administered muscular endurance push-up test ?
A
The examiner should place his or her hand on the low back for support
5
Q
Which of the following is a valid test of local muscular endurance for a well-trained athlete?
A
Push-up test
6
Q
The T-test is an example of what type of test ?
A
Change of direction
7
Q
For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for the YMCA bench press test ?
A
80 lbs (36.4 kg) & 35 lbs (15.9 kg)
8
Q
How many trials does the athlete complete for the 505 agility test, pro-agility test, & sprint test ?
A
2 trials
9
Q
For the partial curl-up muscular endurance test, the metronome is set to ___ beats per minute & the athlete performs as many curl-ups as possible without pausing to a maximum of ____.
A
40; 75
10
Q
Muscular fitness refers to the
A
combination of muscular strength, endurance, & power
11
Q
Which is the most ACCURATE definition of “light” activity based on MET values ?
A
1.6-2.9 METs
12
Q
The most common exercise-related complication is
A
Musculoskeletal injury (MSI)
13
Q
Medical clearance is defined as
A
Approval from a health care professional to engage in exercise
14
Q
According to the AACVPR risk stratification criteria for individuals with known CVD, individuals at high risk for exercise participation may exhibit any one or a combination of the following EXCEPT
A
Presence of normal hemodynamics with exercise testing or during recovery
15
Q
Physical fitness is defined as ___
A
The ability to carry out daily tasks with vigor and alertness, without undue fatigue, and with ample energy to enjoy leisure-time pursuits and meet unforeseen emergencies
16
Q
Dyspnea can be defined as
A
Abnormally labored breathing
17
Q
Which of the following is an example of a self-guided screening for physical activity?
A
PAR-Q+
18
Q
Which is NOT considered a common method for estimating PA intensity?
A
Resting heart rate
19
Q
Regardless of participation in regular exercise, an exercise professional should advise an individual to seek medical clearance prior to participating in an exercise program under which of the following condition(s) ?
A
If the individual is symptomatic, yet has no cardiovascular, metabolic, or renal disease
20
Q
Benefits attributed to resistance training may include
A
All of the above:
-Improved management of Type 2 diabetes
-Improved blood lipids for those who are overweight
-Improved body composition
21
Q
If a coach is planning to schedule testing and it must all be performed on the same day, which is the most ideal sequence for testing ?
N.A.M.S.L.A.A
A
nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power, & strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity
22
Q
Which of the following combination of tests would be most relevant for an American football wide receiver?
A
Vertical jump & 30- to 100 yard (27-91 m) sprint
23
Q
One scorer for a group testing allowed a partial last repetition to count toward an athlete’s total score on the pull-up test, while another scorer did not count that repetition. This difference between scorers is related to which of the following ?
A
Interrater reliability
24
Q
Which of these is NOT a reason for completing exercise/sport testing ?
A
Diagnosing musculoskeletal injuries
25
An athlete Is able to identify that the back squat 1RM test is being used to test her maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following ?
Face validity
26
All of the following are athlete-related factors to consider when selecting tests EXCEPT
Sport skill level
27
Due to availability of the track, a coach testing her athletes' 5K time must test them in the early afternoon, which is the hottest part of the day in their location. Which of the following guidelines is LEAST effective for minimizing health risks and obtaining accurate results ?
Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for 2 hours before testing
28
What is the minimum length of the rest period recommended between trials that are close to an athlete's maximum?
3 minutes
29
Which of the following is LEAST helpful to record in order to aid in future testing sessions for an athlete?
Mental state of athlete on testing day
30
If an athlete's test result is high on one day and low the next day, which of the following aspects of test quality appears to be compromised?
Reliability
31
Muscular fitness
Muscular ENDURANCE is the muscle's ability to continue to perform successive exertions or many repetitions ( >12 repetitions to fatigue).
Muscular STRENGTH refers to the muscle’s ability to exert force ( <3 repetitions to fatigue).
Muscular POWER is the muscle’s ability to exert force per unit of time (Rate of performing work).
32
Muscular Endurance tests
-Partial Curl-up
-Push-up:
Army Standard
ACSM Standard
- YMCA Bench Press Test
33
Partial Curl-up
Curl-up
(a) Beginning position
(b) End position
Metronome: 40 beats per minute
Cues: Slow, controlled curl-ups to lift the shoulder blades off the mat in time with the metronome & Upper back must touch the floor before each curl-up.
Stop: The athlete performs as many curl-ups as possible without pausing, to a maximum of 75.
34
The partial curl-up test measures the muscular endurance of the abdominal muscles. It is favored over the sit-up test because it eliminates the use of the ___.
Hip flexor muscles
35
Partial curl up procedure
1. Assume supine position with 90 degree knee angle. arms at the sides, resting on floor, with fingers touching a 4-inch long piece of tape . A second piece of tape is determined by age: younger than 45; 4.7 inches (12cm) & 45 or older; 3.1 inches (8 cm).
2. Set metronome to 40 beats per minute & have individual do slow, controlled curl-ups to lift shoulder blades off the mat (30 degree angle) in time with metronome (20 curl-ups/minute). Upper back must touch the floor before each curl-up. Individual should avoid flexing the neck to bring chin close to chest.
3. perform as many curl-ups as possible without pausing, to a maximum of 75.
36
Push-up : Army standard
Push-up according to Army standard:
(a) Beginning position
(b) End position
Army Standard: Complete as many repetitions as possible within a timed
2-minute period.
37
Push-up : Army standard/ ACSM procedure
1. Both army & ACSM, men assume standard push-up starting position with hands shoulder-width apart & elbows & body straight. For army standard, women assume same position as men. For ACSM, women have knees instead of feet in contact with the ground (knees flexed at 90 degrees) & ankles crossed
2. For army standards, push-up low position is when arms are parallel to ground. For ACSM, low position for males is the chest making contact w/ recorder fist held vertically against ground. There's no criteria for female low position but, is suggested females make torso contact w/ foam roller rather than fist (ACSM). For either standard, reps that don;t achieve required low position are not counted.
3. For army standard, many reps as possible are done within 2 minute period. The individual may only pause in the up position. For ACSM, many reps as possible w/out failure.
38
Push-up: ACSM
Push up according to ACSM standard for females:
(a) Beginning position
(b) End position
ACSM Standard: Complete as many repetitions as possible until failure.
39
Push-up: ACSM procedure
1. Men starting in standard "down position" (fingers forward & under shoulder, back straight, head up, & toes as pivotal point) & women In "knee push-up" position (lower legs in contact w/ ankles planter flexed and using knees as pivotal point).
2. Individual must raise body by straightening elbows & return to "down" position, until chin touches mat - stomach does not touch the mat.
3. For both men & women, individual back must be straight at all times, and must push-up to straight arm position. Maximal number of push-ups performed w/out rest is counted as the score. Test is stopped when individual strains/unable maintain appropriate technique within 2 repetitions.
40
YMCA bench press test procedure
Resistance:
80 pounds for males
35 pounds for females
Metronome cadence:
o 60 beats per minute
o Establish a rate of 30 repetitions per minute (one beat up, one beat down).
Stop:
o Athlete can no longer perform repetitions with the metronome
41
YMCA bench press test procedure
1. Instruct proper bench press technique. Spotter/recorder stands at head end of bench to help in raising the bar on failed attempt & to help place bar back on the rack
2. Set resistance at 80 lbs (36 kg) for MALES & 35 lbs (16 kg) for FEMALES. set metronome at 60 beats/minute to establish rate of 30 reps/minute (1 beat up, 1 beat down).
3. Athlete grip bar shoulder-width, lifts bar off rack, & extends elbows. In time w/ metronome, bar is repeatedly lowered to chest and raised up again, so the elbows are extended, until athlete can no longer keep up w/ metronome. Movement should be smooth & controlled, with bar reaching its highest & lowest position with each beat of metronome.
42
Speed, Agility, & Change of Direction testing tests (5)
T-Test
Hexagon Test
Pro-Agility Test
505 Agility Test
Straight Line Sprint Tests
43
T-test
The athlete taking the test does the following:
o Begins at point A
o Sprints to point B and touches the base of the cone with the right hand.
o Shuffles left and touches the base of cone C with the left hand.
o Shuffles right and touches the base of cone D with the right hand.
o Shuffles left and touches the base of cone B with the left hand.
o Runs backward past point A.
44
T-test procedure
1. Arrange 4 cones (points A, B, C, D). Have athlete warm up/stretch before test. They may run courser with submaximal effort for practice.
2. Test begins standing at cone A. On signal, sprint forward to cone B & touch base of cone w/ right hand. Then, facing forward & not crossing feet, shuffle to left & touch base of cone C w/ left hand. Then shuffle to the right and touch base of cone D w/ right hand. Then shuffle to left & touch base of cone B w/ left hand and next run backwards past cone A, at which time is stopped.
3. For saftey, a spotter & gym mat should be positioned several feet behind cone A to catch athlete who falls while running backwards. 2 trials is recorded to nearest 0.1 seconds.
Reasons for disqualifications: Athlete fails to touch base of any cone, crosses one foot in front of other instead of shuffling feet, or fails to face foward for entire test
45
Hexagon test
The athlete double-leg hops from the center of the hexagon over each side and back to the center, starting with the side directly in front
of the athlete
Continues in a clockwise sequence until all six sides are covered three times (A total of 18 jumps).
46
Hexagon test procedure
1. Using tape, create a hexagon w/ 24 inch (61 cm) sides meeting to form 120 degree angles. Warm up/ practice at submaximal speed. Test begins with athlete standing in middle of hexagon.
2. On signal, begin double-leg hopping from the center of hexagon over each side & back to the center, starting with side directly in front of athlete, in a continuous clockwise sequence until all 6 sides are covered three times (18 total jumps) & is standing at center. remain facing same direction throughout test.
3. If individual lands on side of hexagon instead of over it, or loses balance & takes extra step/COD in which is facing, the trial is stopped and restarted after allowed full recovery. 3 trials is recorded to nearest 0.1 seconds.
47
Pro-agility test
The athlete straddles the centermost of the three parallel lines using a three-point stance.
On the signal:
o Athlete sprints 5 yards (4.6 m) to the line on the L
o COD - sprints 10 yards (9.1 m) to the line on the R
o COD - sprints 5 yards (4.6 m) to the center line.
Foot contact must be made with all indicated lines & the best time of two trials is recorded to the
nearest 0.01 second.
48
What's another name for the pro-agility test ?
20 - yard shuttle
49
Pro-agility test procedure
1. Straddle center in a 3 point stance. On signal, sprint 5 yrds to line on the left, then change direction & sprints 10 yrds to the line on the right, then again change directions & sprint 5 yrds to the center line.
2. Hand/foot must be made with all indicated lines. (important that this is kept consistent for both trials). 2 trials is recorded to nearest 0.1 seconds.
50
505 agility test
The athlete taking the test does the following:
o Sprints forward 10 m to the first set of timing lights
o Sprints an additional 5 m past the timing lights to the turning line (with one foot on or going over the line)
o Turns back toward the first set of timing lights
o Sprints 5 m back to (and then past) the timing lights
-The best time of two trials is recorded to the nearest 0.1 second.
51
505 agility test procedure
1. Arrange cones . Warm up/stretch before the test . individual may practice course w/ submaximal effort.
2. Test begins with athlete standing at start line. On signal, sprint forward 10m to first set of timing lights, then sprint a further 5m to the turning line (one foot must be on or over the line), where he/she is required to turn & accelerate off the line.
3. Slow down only after passing timing lights for the second time. 2 trials is recorded to the nearest 0.1 second. Individual completes trials turning off preferred leg. Alternatively, trials (at least 2) can be given turning off either leg.
52
Straight - line sprint tests
Have the athlete warm up and dynamically stretch for several minutes.
Allow at least two practice runs at submaximal speed.
The athlete assumes a starting position using a three- or four-point stance. On an auditory signal, the athlete sprints the specified distance at maximal speed.
The best split times of two trials are recorded to the nearest 0.1 second. Allow at least 2 minutes of active recovery or rest between trials.
53
___is a format on how you can write your evaluations ?
S.O.A.P Notes
54
What goes into each category (S.O.A.P) ?
S- Subjective (What they tell you)
Things that would be in this data: Chief complaint (CC or c/o), history of chief complaint (hx of c/o), past medical history (pmh), pain rating, & demographic data (sex, gender, age).
-Differential Diagnoses *All possibilities*
O-Objective (What you see), “Just data of what happened or what you saw.”
Things that would be in this data: Tests & measures, day-to-day what you did, & GAIT analysis
A-Assessment
Need to include: Deductive reasoning, Tender to palpation (TTP), Manual Muscle Testing (MMT), Range of Motion (ROM), Edema (Check for swelling), SMART goals
Included dx (diagnoses); EX. Decrease ROM, increase balance deficits, & increase pain
P-Plan
Need to include: SMART goals, short term goal/long term goals, & what you’re going to work on
55
How to write an assessment (Key components & Deductive reasoning)
Assessment Need to include: Deductive reasoning, Tender to palpation (TTP), Manual Muscle Testing (MMT), Range of Motion (ROM), Edema (Check for swelling), SMART goals.
Included dx (diagnoses); EX: Decrease ROM, increase balance deficits, & increase pain
Key Components:
-Summarize key Subjective and Objective findings.
-Identify patterns (link symptoms to measurable data).
-Provide a professional judgment (diagnosis, problem list, or status update).
-Determine progress toward goals or note barriers.
Deductive Reasoning:
-Start broad: Consider all possible explanations.
-Narrow down based on evidence (facts from S & O).
-Eliminate unlikely options.
-Conclude the most logical explanation based on facts.
56
How to write a plan
Plan need to include: SMART goals, short term goal/long term goals, & what you’re going to work on .
-Outline specific next steps (treatments, exercises, interventions).
-Set short-term and long-term goals.
-Include frequency, intensity, duration, and type (especially for exercise plans).
-Address any referrals needed (specialist, imaging, etc.).
-Plan for monitoring progress (retesting, reassessments).
57
How do SOAP notes differ throughout treatment?
Early Stages:
-Subjective: Focus on initial symptoms, goals, medical history.
-Objective: Baseline testing and observations.
-Assessment: Identify primary problems/diagnosis.
-Plan: Develop a broad initial treatment or exercise plan.
Middle Stages:
-Subjective: Updates on symptoms, progress, new concerns.
-Objective: Compare new measurements to baseline.
-Assessment: Re-assess effectiveness, identify barriers or improvements.
-Plan: Modify or advance treatment based on response.
Later/Discharge Stages:
-Subjective: Final feedback on condition or satisfaction.
-Objective: Final tests and outcome measures.
-Assessment: Summarize overall progress, note remaining issues.
-Plan: Discharge instructions, home programs, future referrals if needed.
58
Reasons for testing (test selection)
Assess athletic talent:
o For athletes and coaches:
* Assess athletic talent and physical abilities and areas for improvement
o Does the candidate have the needed basic physical abilities that, in combination with technique training
and practice, can produce a competitive player?
Identify physical abilities in need of improvement:
o Which physical qualities of an athlete can be
targeted in prescribed exercise programs?
Set goals:
o Allows coaches to set specific goals for individual athletes that help to accomplish group or team objectives.
Evaluate progress
59
Test definition
A procedure for assessing ability in a particular endeavor
60
Field test definition
A test used to assess ability that is performed away from the laboratory using minimal equipment
61
Measurement definition
The process of collecting test data
62
Evaluation definition
Process of analyzing test results to make decisions
63
Mid-test definition
A test administered one or more times during the training to assess progress & modify program as needed to maximize benefit
64
Formative evaluation definition
Periodic reevaluation based on mid-tests administered during the training, usually at regular intervals
65
Post-test definition
after training period evaluate success of training program in achieving the training objectives
66
When selecting tests, what should match the sport's demands?
-Metabolic energy system specificity:
o Consider the energy demands
(phosphagen, glyco-lytic, and oxidative) of the sport when choosing or designing tests.
-Biomechanical movement pattern specificity:
o The more similar the test is to an
important movement in the sport, the better.
67
Which system is NOT typically considered in test selection ?
Digestive
68
For a test to be valid...
It must mimic the energy & movements of the sport for which ability is being tested.
69
Athlete experience affects test selection because
Beginners may not perform complex techniques correctly
o Consider athlete’s ability to perform the technique.
o Consider athlete’s level of strength and endurance training.
70
Test selection: Age & Sex
Both may affect athletes’ experience, interest, and ability
71
Test selection: Environmental factors
o High temperature and high humidity can impair performance, pose health risks, and lower the validity of aerobic endurance tests.
o Temperature fluctuations can reduce ability to compare test results over time.
o Altitude can impair performance on
aerobic endurance tests, although not on tests of strength and power.
72
Enviromental factors like heat can:
impair performance & health safety
73
What environmental factor primarily impairs aerobic endurance tests but not strength tests ?
Altitude
74
Experience, training status, age,
& sex, and Environmental factors
can affect test performance, so these factors should be considered in test selection.
Environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, and altitude can also influence test performance, so testers should try to standardize environmental conditions as much as
possible.
75
What should testers try to standardize as much as possible ?
Enviromental conditions
76
Test Administration: Health and safety considerations....
o Be aware of testing conditions that can threaten the health of athletes (high heat and humidity).
o Be observant of signs and symptoms of health problems that warrant exclusion from testing.
o Be observant of the health status of athletes before, during, and after maximal exertions.
77
Health and safety considerations during testing include:
Watching for signs of serious health problems
78
Test Administration: Aerobic endurance testing in the heat
o During the weeks before the test, athletes should engage in enough training to establish baseline of fitness in the activity being tested.
o Avoid testing under extreme combinations of heat & humidity.
o on days when the temperature is high, indoor facilities should be used, or testing should be conducted morning or early evening hours.
o the athletes should be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for at least one week before testing.
o Athletes should make sure they are well hydrated in the 24-hour period preceding aerobic endurance testing in the heat.
o Athletes should be encouraged to drink during exercise in the heat.
o Athletes should wear light-colored, loose- fitting tank top & shorts, preferably of a mesh material.
79
How long should athletes acclimatize to heat before endurance testing ?
1 week
80
What should athletes wear during aerobic testing in hot environments?
Light-colored, loose-fitting mesh clothing
81
Aerobic endurance testing in the heat symptoms
Look for symptoms of heatstroke or heat exhaustion:
* Cramps
* Nausea
* Dizziness
* Difficulty in walking or standing
* Faintness
* Garbled speech
* Lack of sweat
* Red or ashen skin
* Goose bumps
82
Aerobic endurance testing in the heat symptoms of hyponatremia
Be aware of the symptoms of hyponatremia or water intoxication:
* Extremely dilute urine
* Bloated skin
* Altered consciousness
* Loss of consciousness
* No increase in body temperature
83
What type of medical support should be available during aerobic tests in heat?
Proficient medical coverage
84
Test administration: Selection and training of testers
o Provide testers with practice and
training to ensure consistency among testers.
85
Test administration: Recording forms
o Prepare scoring forms ahead of time to increase efficiency and reduce recording errors.
86
Test administration: Test format
o Consider whether athletes will be tested all at once or groups.
o the same tester should administer a given test to all athletes if possible.
o Each tester should administer one test at a time.
87
When administrating tests to large groups, what can help manage time better?
Duplicate test setups
88
Test administration: Testing batteries and multiple testing trials
Rest should be at least 2 minutes between attempts that aren't close to the athlete’s maximum
Rest should be at least 3 minutes between attempts that are close to the maximum
Rest should at least be 5 minutes between different test batteries
89
Test Administration: Sequence of testing types
o Nonfatiguing tests
o Agility tests
o Maximum power and strength tests
o Sprint tests
o Local muscular endurance tests
o Fatiguing anaerobic capacity tests
o Aerobic capacity tests
90
Why is the sequence of tests important ?
To avoid one test negatively another
91
What should be done well before the actual test day ?
Pretest practice session & announcements
92
Clear & simple ___should be provided during test preparation
Instructions
93
After each trial, athletes should be
Given their scores
94
What should be organized before starting the test ?
Warm-up
95
After testing, athletes should
be provided with a supervised cool-down
96
RELIABILITY definition
A measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test
97
WHY CAN THE RELIABILITY DIFFER BETWEEN GROUPS?
Differences:
* Skill level
* Age
* Physical Maturity
* Emotional Maturity
98
TYPES OF RELIABILITY
Inter-rater
* Between 2 testers/raters
Intra-rater
* Within the same tester/rater
Test-retest
* Consistency of results when repeating
the test
99
INTRACLASS CORRELATION COEFFICIENT
* Descriptive statistic that can be used when quantitative measurements are made on units
that are organized into groups
Level of Reliability:
* < .5 = Poor
* .5 - .75 = Moderate
* .75 - .9 = Good
* > .9 = Excellent
100
A TEST MUST BE RELIABLE TO BE...
Valid
101
VALIDITY definition
degree to which a test measures what is supposed to be measured
- Key component of testing
102
TYPES OF VALIDITY (7)
-Construct Validity
-Face validity
-Content validity
-Criterion-referenced Validity
-Concurrent Validity
-Predictive Validity
-Discriminant Validity
103
Construct validity
A test's ability to accurately measure the concept it is intended to represent, based on a theory that organizes and explains relevant knowledge and observations
104
Face validity
test appears to measure what it is intended to measure, based on the perspective of test-takers or experts
105
Content validity
Evaluates how well a test fully covers all relevant areas / skills of the construct it aims to measure
106
Criterion-referenced Validity
Measures how well a test predicts an outcome
107
Concurrent Validity
How well a new assessment agrees with an existing assessment
108
Predictive Validity
The extent to which the test score corresponds with future performance or behavior
109
Discriminant Validity
The ability of a test to distinguish between two different constructs
110
An athlete is having measurements taken to assess her body composition. The coach uses DEXA scan and a new method he is being asked to test. The purpose of using these two measurements is to establish what type of validity of the new test?
Concurrent
111
If an athlete's test result is high one day and low the next day, which of the following aspects of test quality appears to be compromised?
Reliability
112
1 scorer for a group testing allowed partial last repetition to count towards an athlete's total score on the pull-up test, which another scorer did not count that repetition. This difference between scorers is related to which of the following?
Interrater reliability
113
An athlete is able to identify that the back squat 1RM test is being used to test her maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following?
Face validity
114
What descriptive statistic can be used when quantitative measurements are made on units that are organized into groups?
Intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC)
115
Which of the factors below can affect reliability between groups?
Skill level, age, physical maturity
116
____is a measure of the degree of consistency or repeatability
Reliability
117
What does test-retest reliability assess?
The consistency of results over multiple administrations of the same test
118
Emily is conducting a survey to measure stress levels among college students. She develops a set of questions based on her own experiences and opinions. After administering the survey to a small group of students, she analyzes the results and claims that her survey is a valid measure of stress levels among college students. Evaluate the validity of Emily's survey and suggest improvements. What type of validity concern is evident in Emily's approach?
Content validity
119
Which of the answers below is NOT a consideration regarding testing conditions?
Sport performance
120
Select ALL of the clients below that would be eligible to complete a 1RM back squat. Clients have been categorized based on their weightlifting skill level
Advanced & Intermediate
121
You complete a 10RM test for your client. The client's 10RM for bench press is determined to be 225 lbs. What is their estimated 1RM?
300
122
According to the FITT principle, novice clients should work each major muscle group how many times per week ?
2
123
When calculating training load for a client that's working on building strength, your client should be lifting less than or equal to 6 reps at ___ for 2 to 6 sets.
>/= 85% 1RM
124
Which of the exercises below would not be appropriate for spotting ?
Power clean
125
When weightlifting you cue your client on proper breathing technique. The client should exhale on the ___ of a squat.
Concentric phase
126
What cues would you use to improve safety and stability for your client? (Bench press)
Place feet flat on the floor to maintain a 5-point position
127
When completing a symptom-limited maximal exercise test, which of the situations below would lead to immediate test termination ?
Pallor
128
When writing a SMART goal related to your findings on the 6 MWT an increase of ___ is considered significant
50m
129
The plus/minus error of using skinfold equations to predict percent body fat is:
3.5%
130
Which of the following is considered to be an anthropometric method of determining body composition?
Body Mass Index
131
Sarcopenia is best defined as:
The age-related loss of muscle mass and strength
132
The principle behind body composition assessment by using skinfold measurements is that:
The amount of subcutaneous fat is proportional to the total amount of body fat.
133
Excess body fat located where is associated with increased risk of metabolic diseases?
Centrally around the abdomen
134
The presence of android obesity increases the risk of which conditions?
All of the above :
hypertension, metabolic syndrome, & CVD
135
Hydrodensitometry is also commonly known as:
underwater weighing
136
Which of the following best describes the waist-to-hip ratio?
Circumference of the waist divided by the circumference of the hips
137
Android obesity is characterized by:
more fat on the trunk (abdominal fat)
138
Which is most true in regard to proper protocol when measuring circumferences?
Measures should be taken at least twice at each site
