Exam 3 Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
A
To facilitate gas exchange, primarily oxygen intake and carbon dioxide expulsion.
2
Q
True or False: The respiratory system includes the lungs, trachea, and diaphragm.
A
True
3
Q
Fill in the blank: The _____ is the main organ of the respiratory system.
A
lung
4
Q
What structure connects the throat (pharynx) to the lungs?
A
Trachea
5
Q
Multiple Choice: Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of gases?
A) Trachea
B) Alveoli
C) Bronchi
D) Larynx
A
B) Alveoli
6
Q
What are the tiny air sacs in the lungs called?
A
Alveoli
7
Q
True or False: The diaphragm is a muscle that aids in breathing.
A
True
8
Q
What is the role of the nasal cavity in the respiratory system?
A
To filter, warm, and humidify the air we breathe.
9
Q
Fill in the blank: The _____ are the main branches of the trachea that lead into each lung.
A
bronchi
10
Q
Multiple Choice: Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?
A) Epiglottis
B) Larynx
C) Pharynx
D) Bronchi
A
A) Epiglottis
11
Q
What is the term for the process of breathing in?
A
Inhalation
12
Q
What is the term for the process of breathing out?
A
Exhalation
13
Q
True or False: The lungs are located in the abdominal cavity.
A
False
14
Q
What is the pleura?
A
A double-layered membrane that surrounds each lung.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: The _____ is the voice box located in the throat.
A
larynx
16
Q
Multiple Choice: What is the primary muscle responsible for breathing?
A) Intercostal muscle
B) Abdominal muscle
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoral muscle
A
C) Diaphragm
17
Q
What are the two main functions of the larynx?
A
To produce sound and to protect the airway during swallowing.
18
Q
True or False: The right lung has three lobes and the left lung has two lobes.
A
True
19
Q
What is the function of the bronchioles?
A
To distribute air to the alveoli.
20
Q
Fill in the blank: The _____ is a flap of tissue that covers the larynx during swallowing.
A
epiglottis
21
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract?
A) Nose
B) Pharynx
C) Larynx
D) Bronchi
A
D) Bronchi
22
Q
What is the primary gas exchanged in the alveoli?
A
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
23
Q
True or False: The respiratory system also plays a role in regulating blood pH.
A
True
24
Q
What is the term for the air that remains in the lungs after exhalation?
A
Residual volume
25
Fill in the blank: The _____ cavity is located behind the nose and above the mouth.
nasal
26
Multiple Choice: What structure is primarily involved in the filtration of inhaled air?
A) Alveoli
B) Trachea
C) Nasal cavity
D) Lungs
C) Nasal cavity
27
What are the two main zones of the respiratory system?
Conducting zone and respiratory zone.
28
True or False: The conducting zone is responsible for gas exchange.
False.
29
Fill in the blank: The primary function of the conducting zone is to ____ air.
filter, warm, and moisten.
30
Which structures are included in the conducting zone?
Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.
31
What is the main function of the respiratory zone?
Gas exchange.
32
True or False: The alveoli are part of the conducting zone.
False.
33
Which part of the respiratory system is primarily involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
Alveoli.
34
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT part of the conducting zone? A) Trachea B) Alveoli C) Bronchi
B) Alveoli.
35
What type of epithelium lines the conducting zone?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
36
Fill in the blank: The respiratory zone includes the ____ and respiratory bronchioles.
alveolar ducts.
37
True or False: The conducting zone helps in the humidification of air.
True.
38
What is the role of surfactant in the respiratory system?
To reduce surface tension in the alveoli.
39
Multiple Choice: Which structure is the site of gas exchange? A) Larynx B) Alveoli C) Bronchi
B) Alveoli.
40
What is the pathway of air starting from the nasal cavity?
Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli.
41
Fill in the blank: The ____ is the voice box located in the conducting zone.
larynx.
42
True or False: The bronchioles are part of the conducting zone.
True.
43
What is the primary gas exchanged in the alveoli?
Oxygen.
44
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a function of the conducting zone? A) Gas exchange B) Filtration C) Surfactant production
B) Filtration.
45
What happens during inhalation?
Air is drawn into the lungs.
46
Fill in the blank: The respiratory zone begins at the ____.
respiratory bronchioles.
47
True or False: The trachea is a muscular tube.
False.
48
What is the main purpose of the cilia in the respiratory system?
To move mucus and trapped particles out of the airways.
49
Multiple Choice: What is the primary function of the alveolar walls? A) Filtration B) Gas exchange C) Sound production
B) Gas exchange.
50
What role does the diaphragm play in respiration?
It contracts to help pull air into the lungs.
51
Fill in the blank: The conducting zone ends at the ____.
terminal bronchioles.
52
True or False: The respiratory zone is involved in the conduction of air.
False.
53
54
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
To facilitate gas exchange, primarily oxygen and carbon dioxide.
55
True or False: The trachea is also known as the windpipe.
True
56
Fill in the blank: The __________ are the main organs of the respiratory system.
lungs
57
Which structure serves as the passageway for air to enter and exit the lungs?
The bronchial tubes.
58
What is the role of the diaphragm in breathing?
It contracts and relaxes to help draw air into and push air out of the lungs.
59
Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for filtering, warming, and humidifying the air?
The nasal cavity.
60
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract? A) Nose B) Pharynx C) Lungs D) Larynx
C) Lungs
61
What is the significance of alveoli in the lungs?
They are the sites of gas exchange between air and blood.
62
True or False: The left lung has three lobes.
False
63
What is the difference between the left and right lungs?
The right lung has three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes.
64
Fill in the blank: The __________ connects the pharynx to the trachea.
larynx
65
Multiple Choice: What is the primary muscle involved in inhalation? A) Intercostal muscles B) Diaphragm C) Abdominal muscles D) Pectoral muscles
B) Diaphragm
66
What is the role of surfactant in the lungs?
To reduce surface tension in the alveoli and prevent collapse.
67
True or False: The respiratory system is involved in vocalization.
True
68
What is the function of the epiglottis?
To prevent food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing.
69
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the primary site for gas exchange in the lungs.
alveoli
70
What are the two main processes of breathing?
Inhalation and exhalation.
71
Multiple Choice: Which of the following structures is NOT part of the lower respiratory tract? A) Bronchi B) Trachea C) Larynx D) Alveoli
C) Larynx
72
What is the term for the volume of air inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath?
Tidal volume.
73
True or False: The respiratory system does not play a role in regulating blood pH.
False
74
What is the purpose of the pleura?
To provide lubrication and reduce friction between the lungs and chest wall.
75
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the tube that carries air from the larynx to the bronchi.
trachea
76
Multiple Choice: Which gas is primarily expelled during exhalation? A) Oxygen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon Dioxide D) Helium
C) Carbon Dioxide
77
What is the role of cilia in the respiratory system?
To trap and move particles out of the airways.
78
True or False: The respiratory system is solely responsible for the exchange of gases.
False
79
What is the function of the nasal conchae?
To increase the surface area of the nasal cavity and enhance air filtration.
80
Fill in the blank: The __________ is the muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
diaphragm
81
What is the primary function of external respiration?
The primary function of external respiration is to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the lungs and the blood.
82
What is internal respiration?
Internal respiration refers to the exchange of gases between the blood and the body's tissues.
83
True or False: External respiration occurs in the tissues.
False
84
Fill in the blank: The process of oxygen moving from the alveoli into the blood is called __________.
external respiration
85
Which gas is primarily exchanged during internal respiration?
Oxygen
86
What is the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?
The oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve illustrates the relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen.
87
What effect does increased carbon dioxide concentration have on the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?
Increased carbon dioxide concentration shifts the curve to the right, indicating decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
88
True or False: A rightward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve indicates increased oxygen delivery to tissues.
True
89
What is the Bohr effect?
The Bohr effect describes how increased levels of carbon dioxide and decreased pH reduce hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
90
What is the primary factor that affects the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?
Partial pressure of oxygen
91
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions would shift the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve to the left? A) Increased pH B) Increased temperature C) Increased carbon dioxide D) Increased 2,3-BPG
A) Increased pH
92
Fill in the blank: Hemoglobin saturation is influenced by __________ and __________.
pH; temperature
93
What is the effect of temperature on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
Increased temperature decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.
94
True or False: The oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve is a straight line.
False
95
What role does 2,3-BPG play in oxygen transport?
2,3-BPG decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, promoting oxygen release to tissues.
96
What happens to oxygen saturation at high altitudes?
Oxygen saturation decreases due to lower partial pressure of oxygen.
97
Short Answer: Name two factors that can shift the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve.
pH and carbon dioxide concentration
98
What is the significance of the steep portion of the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?
The steep portion allows for efficient oxygen unloading in tissues where it is most needed.
99
Multiple Choice: What physiological condition would likely cause a leftward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve? A) Acidosis B) Hypercapnia C) Hypothermia D) High altitude
C) Hypothermia
100
What is the primary gas involved in external respiration?
Oxygen
101
True or False: Internal respiration occurs in the lungs.
False
102
Fill in the blank: The exchange of carbon dioxide for oxygen in the alveoli is part of __________.
external respiration
103
What physiological process is characterized by the uptake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide?
Respiration
104
True or False: The oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve is affected by the presence of carbon monoxide.
True
105
What does a leftward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve indicate?
Increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
106
What are central chemoreceptors primarily sensitive to?
Central chemoreceptors are primarily sensitive to changes in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood.
107
Where are central chemoreceptors located?
Central chemoreceptors are located in the medulla oblongata of the brain.
108
What do peripheral chemoreceptors measure?
Peripheral chemoreceptors measure levels of oxygen (O2), carbon dioxide (CO2), and pH in the blood.
109
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?
Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the carotid bodies and aortic bodies.
110
True or False: Central chemoreceptors respond directly to oxygen levels.
False: Central chemoreceptors do not respond directly to oxygen levels.
111
Fill in the blank: The primary role of peripheral chemoreceptors is to detect changes in _____ levels.
oxygen
112
Which type of chemoreceptor has a faster response time to changes in blood gas levels?
Peripheral chemoreceptors have a faster response time.
113
What physiological response occurs when CO2 levels increase?
Increased CO2 levels result in increased respiratory rate.
114
How do peripheral chemoreceptors influence respiratory rate?
Peripheral chemoreceptors increase respiratory rate in response to low oxygen levels.
115
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a function of central chemoreceptors? A) Detect CO2 levels B) Detect O2 levels C) Regulate pH
B) Detect O2 levels
116
True or False: Peripheral chemoreceptors can directly stimulate the respiratory center in the brain.
True: Peripheral chemoreceptors can directly stimulate the respiratory center.
117
What is the effect of decreased pH on respiratory rate?
Decreased pH typically leads to an increased respiratory rate.
118
Fill in the blank: Central chemoreceptors primarily respond to changes in _____ concentration.
carbon dioxide
119
Which type of chemoreceptor is more sensitive to changes in oxygen levels?
Peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to changes in oxygen levels.
120
What happens to respiratory rate if peripheral chemoreceptors detect high CO2 levels?
The respiratory rate increases.
121
Multiple Choice: Where are the carotid bodies located? A) In the brainstem B) In the neck C) In the chest
B) In the neck
122
True or False: Central chemoreceptors are directly influenced by blood pH changes.
True: Central chemoreceptors are influenced by blood pH changes.
123
What is the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals?
The primary stimulus for breathing is the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.
124
Fill in the blank: The aortic bodies are part of the _____ chemoreceptors.
peripheral
125
How do changes in blood oxygen levels affect central chemoreceptors?
Changes in blood oxygen levels have little direct effect on central chemoreceptors.
126
What is the role of the medulla oblongata in respiratory regulation?
The medulla oblongata houses the central chemoreceptors and regulates the respiratory rate.
127
True or False: Peripheral chemoreceptors are more important for detecting CO2 than central chemoreceptors.
False: Central chemoreceptors are more important for detecting CO2.
128
What type of feedback mechanism is involved in the regulation of respiratory rate by chemoreceptors?
Negative feedback mechanism.
129
Fill in the blank: The _____ chemoreceptors respond to a drop in blood oxygen levels.
peripheral
130
What is an aquaporin?
a membrane protein that contains a channel for water movement
131
Select the statement that describes an aspect of extrinsic renal regulation.
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II causes secretion of aldosterone
132
Which hormone directly stimulates sodium reabsorption in the kidneys?
aldosterone
133
How does the osmolarity of urine change in response to changing levels of water intake?
urine osmolarity decreases as water intake increases
134
How does an increase in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) decrease urine volume?
ADH increases the collecting duct's permeability to water
135
What causes the concentration gradient in the interstitial fluid as the nephron loop dips into the medulla of the kidney?
transport of Na+ and Cl- from the loop filtrate to the interstitial fluid
136
Where is the majority of NaCl and water reabsorbed within the nephron?
proximal convoluted tubule
137
Identify the major function of tubular reabsorption.
to recover glucose and sodium from the filtrate into the blood
138
Which of the statements describes the alimentary canal?
the tubular passage through which food enters, is digested, and unused waste is secreted
139
Which process is an example of mechanical processing?
chewing food into smaller pieces
140
What is the function of the pharynx?
provides a passageway for food and air
141
What is the digestive function of the liver?
production of bile
142
What is the function of the hepatic portal circulation?
transports deoxygenated, nutrient-rich blood to the liver, which processes blood contents
143
Which are component(s) of bile?
bile salts, triglycerides
144
Select the chemical that converts chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin.
trypsin
145
What is a nutrient?
a chemical substance that helps with body growth and cell maintenance
146
Which of these describes a catabolic pathway?
a pathway that breaks down molecules into smaller subunits
147
Which of the statements correctly contrasts anabolic and catabolic pathways?
Anabolic pathways are synthesis pathways, whereas catabolic pathways are degradation pathways.
148
Which carbohydrate is most readily absorbed and metabolized by the tissues?
glucose
149
A substance loses an electron in a chemical reaction. Which term describes this reaction?
oxidation
150
What is the role of NAD+ in metabolism?
a coenzyme that plays a role in redox reactions
151
In glycolysis, adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is generated from the breakdown of which molecule?
glucose
152
What are the product(s) of the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle, tricarboxylic acid [TCA] cycle)?
4 reduced coenzymes, 1 ATP, 2 CO2
153
What is gluconeogenesis?
conversion of amino acids to glucose
154
What is beta oxidation?
the process by which fatty acids are broken down in the mitochondria to generate acetyl CoA
155
Which phrase best defines the term ketogenesis?
Excess acetyl CoA is converted to ketone bodies.
156
Which process takes place during the absorptive state?
increased glycogen synthesis
157
What is a post‑absorptive state?
a fasting state
158
Which process(es) help maintain blood glucose levels during the post‑absorptive state?
glycogenolysis in the skeletal muscle, catabolism of cellular proteins, gluconeogenesis in the liver
159
Why is excessive intake of lipid‑soluble vitamins more likely to adversely affect people than excessive intake of water‑soluble vitamins?
Excess lipid‑soluble vitamins can build up in fatty tissues and reach toxic levels.
160
Select the minerals that are required in the diet in order to maintain homeostasis in the body.
calcium, chloride
161
What effect does glucagon have on metabolism during the post-absorptive state?
increases blood glucose concentration, stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver, stimulates lipolysis in the adipose tissue
162
How is water moved in living organisms?
Through passive transport
163
Which way will water want to move via osmosis?
Towards the capillaries/blood
164
Movement of solutes against their concentration gradient is an example of:
Active transport
165
Use the following laboratory test results to calculate the patient's GFR. Urine Flow Rate = 1ml/min, Urine Inulin concentration = 100mg/ml, Plasma Inulin concentration = 2mg/ml, Urine urea concentration = 50mg/ml, Plasma urea concentration = 2.5mg/ml
50ml/min
166
What is the function of saliva?
All of the above
167
Do you think swallowing is...
Both
168
In general metabolic terms, food digestion is a form of ______, while building new protein molecules is a form of ______.
catabolism; anabolism
169
What converts pepsin to pepsinogen?
HCl
170
Generally, lipids are:
Non-polar
171
Bile catalyzes the breakdown of triglyceride into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids.
False
172
During the absorptive state, the body makes use of stored nutrients for energy.
False
173
During the post-absorptive state, the pancreas releases ________________ which leads to the ________________ of glycogen.
Glucagon, breakdown
174
During the absorptive state, the pancreases releases _______________ which leads to the ____________ of glycogen.
A. Insulin, breakdown
B. Insulin, synthesis
C. Glucagon, breakdown
D. Glucagon, synthesis
B. Insulin, synthesis
175
Metabolic rate is a measurement of the:
A. total number of calories consumed per hour.
B. amount of oxygen consumed per kilogram of body weight.
C. energy used in a given period of time.
D. heat given off by contracting muscles.
C. energy used in a given period of time.
176
176
177
178
179
180
181
182
183
184
What are the primary functions of the kidneys?
Regulation of extracellular fluid volume, blood pressure, osmolarity, ion balance, pH, excretion of wastes, hormone production.
185
What components make up the urinary system?
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra.
186
What is the primary function of the kidneys?
Filter blood, remove waste, and produce urine.
187
What role do the ureters play in the urinary system?
Transport urine from kidneys to urinary bladder.
188
What is the function of the urinary bladder?
Stores urine, can hold up to 1 liter.
189
What role does the urethra play in the urinary system?
Eliminates urine from the body.
190
What hormone does the kidney produce in response to low blood oxygen?
Erythropoietin (EPO).
191
What enzyme is released by the kidney to regulate blood pressure?
Renin.
192
What is gluconeogenesis in the kidney?
Production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources during starvation.
193
What are the structural components of a nephron?
Glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, Collecting duct.
194
What is the role of podocytes in the glomerulus?
Form filtration slits for filtering blood.
195
What are the three pressures that influence filtration in the renal corpuscle?
Hydrostatic pressure, colloid osmotic pressure, capsule fluid pressure.
196
What process moves Na+ from the tubule lumen into proximal tubule cells?
Active transport via Na+-K+-ATPase.
197
What is the primary site of glucose reabsorption in the nephron?
Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
198
What is the countercurrent multiplier?
Mechanism in nephron loop that creates an osmotic gradient for water reabsorption.
199
What hormones regulate Na+ concentration in the blood?
Aldosterone, ADH, ANP.
200
What is the role of ADH in the kidneys?
Increases water reabsorption, decreases urine output.
201
What does the RAAS system regulate?
Blood pressure and fluid balance.
202
What are the primary types of diuretics?
Osmotic, loop, and K+-sparing diuretics.
203
How do loop diuretics work?
Inhibit Na+ reabsorption, disrupting the medullary gradient.
204
What causes metabolic acidosis?
Excess H+ or loss of HCO3- (e.g., diarrhea).
205
What causes metabolic alkalosis?
Loss of H+ or excess HCO3- (e.g., vomiting).
206
What is the role of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
Regulates GFR and releases renin.
207
What triggers the release of aldosterone?
Low Na+, high K+, or activation of RAAS.
208
What is the primary function of the renal corpuscle?
Filtration of blood plasma.
209
What is the function of the vasa recta?
Maintain medullary osmotic gradient.
210
What hormone increases Na+ reabsorption in the kidney?
Aldosterone.
211
What happens if blood osmolarity increases?
ADH is released, increasing water reabsorption.
212
What structure primarily reabsorbs water in the nephron?
Descending limb of the loop of Henle.
213
How does alcohol act as a diuretic?
Inhibits ADH release, reducing water reabsorption.
214
What is the renal threshold?
Plasma concentration at which substance reabsorption saturates.
215
What is the main buffer system in the extracellular fluid?
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) system.
216
What cells respond to acidic conditions in the kidney?
Type A intercalated cells.
217
What cells respond to alkaline conditions in the kidney?
Type B intercalated cells.
218
What is the primary driver of filtration at the glomerulus?
Hydrostatic pressure.
219
What is the purpose of tubuloglomerular feedback?
Adjusts GFR based on NaCl concentration in the DCT.
220
What is the main function of the collecting duct?
Final concentration of urine.
221
What is the purpose of aquaporins in the collecting duct?
Facilitate water reabsorption.
222
How do kidneys regulate blood pH?
By excreting H+ and reabsorbing HCO3-.
223
What is aerobic cellular respiration?
A process requiring oxygen and removing carbon dioxide, essential for life.
224
What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
Gas exchange between atmosphere and body cells.
225
What structures are involved in air passageways?
Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.
226
What is the conducting zone?
Passageways that transport air, including the nose to terminal bronchioles.
227
What is the respiratory zone?
Sites of gas exchange, including respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli.
228
What is the role of the larynx?
Air passageway, sound production, and protection from ingested materials.
229
What is the trachea commonly known as?
Windpipe.
230
What are alveoli?
Small air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs.
231
What cells line the alveoli?
Type I (squamous) and Type II (cuboidal) alveolar cells.
232
What is the function of alveolar type II cells?
Secrete pulmonary surfactant to reduce surface tension.
233
What is Boyle’s Law?
Pressure of a gas decreases as volume increases, and vice versa.
234
What is the role of the diaphragm in respiration?
Contracts to increase thoracic volume during inspiration.
235
What is tidal volume?
The amount of air per breath, typically 500 mL.
236
What is pulmonary ventilation?
Amount of air moved in and out of the lungs per minute.
237
What is alveolar ventilation?
Amount of air reaching alveoli per minute, excluding dead space.
238
What is the primary muscle of quiet breathing?
Diaphragm.
239
What is the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?
Graph showing the relationship between PO2 and hemoglobin saturation.
240
What effect does elevated temperature have on hemoglobin?
Decreases hemoglobin’s ability to bind oxygen.
241
What is the Bohr effect?
Decreased hemoglobin affinity for O2 due to increased H+ binding.
242
What is the role of carbonic anhydrase?
Converts CO2 and H2O to carbonic acid (H2CO3).
243
What causes hyperventilation?
Increased rate or depth of breathing beyond metabolic needs.
244
What is the function of the pleurae?
Produce fluid to reduce friction and assist in lung expansion.
245
What is intrapleural pressure?
Pressure within the pleural cavity, lower than intrapulmonary pressure.
246
What is hypoxia?
Inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues.
247
What are the types of hypoxia?
Anemic, ischemic, histotoxic, hypoxemic.
248
What is carbon monoxide poisoning?
CO binds to hemoglobin with 200x affinity compared to O2, leading to hypoxia.
249
What is lung compliance?
The ability of lungs to expand, affected by tissue elasticity and surface tension.
250
What is surfactant?
Substance that reduces surface tension within the alveoli.
251
What is the respiratory membrane?
Thin barrier between alveoli and capillaries where gas exchange occurs.
252
What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?
Matching airflow to blood flow in the lungs for efficient gas exchange.
253
What is Henry’s Law?
The solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.
254
What factors affect hemoglobin saturation?
PO2, temperature, pH (Bohr effect), CO2 levels, 2,3-BPG.
255
What is the primary method of CO2 transport?
As bicarbonate (HCO3-) in plasma (70%).
256
What is the chloride shift?
Exchange of HCO3- and Cl- across red blood cell membranes.
257
What is quiet inspiration?
Inhalation driven mainly by diaphragm contraction.
258
What is quiet expiration?
Passive exhalation driven by lung recoil.
259
What is hyperpnea?
Increased depth of breathing during exercise without changing rate.
260
What is the effect of hyperventilation on CO2 levels?
Decreases CO2, causing respiratory alkalosis.
261
What is the role of the medulla in respiration?
Controls rhythm and depth of breathing.
262
What is the Haldane effect?
Deoxygenation of blood increases its capacity to carry CO2.
263
What is the primary site of action for Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)?
The collecting ducts of the nephron in the kidneys.
264
What triggers the release of ADH?
Increased plasma osmolality or decreased blood volume.
265
What is the effect of ADH on the kidneys?
Increases water reabsorption by making the collecting ducts more permeable to water.
266
How does ADH affect aquaporins?
Stimulates insertion of aquaporins into the apical membrane of collecting duct cells.
267
What receptor does ADH bind to in the kidney?
V2 receptors on the basolateral membrane.
268
What intracellular second messenger is activated by ADH?
cAMP (cyclic AMP).
269
What protein kinase is activated by ADH?
Protein kinase A (PKA).
270
What effect does ADH have on urine concentration?
Increases urine concentration by reabsorbing more water.
271
Which hormone primarily increases blood volume and pressure?
Aldosterone.
272
What triggers the release of aldosterone?
Low blood pressure, high potassium levels, or activation of RAAS.
273
What role does renin play in blood pressure regulation?
Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
274
What does angiotensin II do?
Causes vasoconstriction and stimulates aldosterone release.
275
What hormone opposes the actions of ADH and aldosterone?
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
276
What effect does ANP have on blood pressure?
Lowers blood pressure by promoting sodium and water excretion.
277
What effect does epinephrine have on blood pressure?
Increases blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction.
278
What is the primary function of diuretics?
Increase urine production to reduce blood volume and pressure.
279
How do loop diuretics work?
Inhibit Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
280
What is the effect of thiazide diuretics?
Inhibit Na+-Cl- cotransport in the distal convoluted tubule.
281
What are potassium-sparing diuretics?
Diuretics that do not promote potassium excretion.
282
How does spironolactone function?
Blocks aldosterone receptors to reduce sodium reabsorption.
283
What is a common use of osmotic diuretics?
Reduce intracranial or intraocular pressure.
284
What condition can thiazide diuretics treat besides hypertension?
Edema related to heart failure.
285
What condition results from insufficient ADH production?
Diabetes insipidus.
286
What happens if aldosterone production is deficient?
Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may occur.
287
How would excessive ADH affect urine output?
Decreased urine output and concentrated urine.
288
What might cause excessive aldosterone production?
Adrenal hyperplasia or a tumor.
289
What syndrome results from chronic excess cortisol?
Cushing's syndrome, leading to hypertension.
290
What disorder results from insufficient cortisol production?
Addison's disease.
291
What is plasma osmolality?
Concentration of solutes in the blood, primarily sodium.
292
What is the normal range for plasma osmolality?
275-295 mOsm/kg.
293
How does the body maintain plasma osmolality?
Through regulation of water intake (thirst) and output (urine).
294
What role does ADH play in osmolality control?
Promotes water reabsorption to decrease osmolality.
295
What role does aldosterone play in osmolality control?
Promotes sodium reabsorption to increase osmolality.
296
What is the respiratory compensation for acidosis?
Increase in respiratory rate to expel CO2.
297
How do the kidneys compensate for respiratory acidosis?
Excrete more H+ and reabsorb more bicarbonate.
298
What is the metabolic compensation for respiratory alkalosis?
Decreased bicarbonate reabsorption.
299
What is the renal compensation for metabolic acidosis?
Increase bicarbonate reabsorption and H+ secretion.
300
What causes metabolic alkalosis?
Loss of H+ (e.g., vomiting) or gain of bicarbonate.
301
What is the primary extracellular buffer?
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) system.
302
What is the primary intracellular buffer?
Phosphate and proteins.
303
What is the role of hemoglobin in buffering?
Binds to H+ to minimize pH changes in blood.
304
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation used for?
Calculating pH from bicarbonate and CO2 levels.
305
What does the protein buffer system use as a buffering agent?
Amino acid side chains, particularly histidine.
306
What happens to the bicarbonate buffer system during hyperventilation?
Decreased CO2 lowers H+ concentration, increasing pH.
307
What buffer system is most important in the kidneys?
Phosphate buffer system.
308
What effect does acidosis have on potassium levels?
Hyperkalemia due to H+ exchange with K+.
309
What is respiratory acidosis typically caused by?
Hypoventilation or lung disease.
310
How do buffers minimize pH changes?
By neutralizing excess H+ or OH-.
