Exam 3 Flashcards
(104 cards)
A powerful person begins to lose power when ________.
A) leadership style changes
B) people begin to rely on themselves
C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees increase
D) employee rewards are encouraged
E) modes of assessing employee performance are reassessed
B: people begin to rely on themselves
Explanation: The more people rely or depend upon a powerful person (who controls something the others rely on or want), the more powerful that person becomes. When people begin to have more alternatives and options or begin to rely on themselves or different people, the powerful person loses power.
Which type of power is based on the fear of the negative results from failing to comply?
A) Legitimate
B) Coercive
C) Punitive
D) Referent
E) Abusive
B: Coercive
The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. It rests on the application, or the threat of application, of physical sanctions such as the infliction of pain, frustration through restriction of movement, or the controlling by force of basic physiological or safety needs.
The two bases of personal power are ________ and the respect and admiration of others.
A) legitimate
B) reward
C) emergent
D) expertise
E) coercive
D: expertise
Explanation: There are two bases of personal power: expertise and the respect and admiration of others.
At the PR firm where Gerald works, everyone considers him to be very good with his work and depends heavily on his knowledge to help the organization to solve its problems. Gerald is often seen teaching interns a simpler way to present an article, helping project managers with scheduling, and even the CEO often asks him for his opinion on important matters because of his experience and skill. Gerald’s specialized knowledge depicts his ________.
A) expert power
B) coercive power
C) legitimate power
D) referent power
E) reward power
A: expert power
Explanation: Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. As jobs become more specialized, we become increasingly dependent on experts to achieve goals. It is generally acknowledged that physicians have expertise and hence expert power: Most of us follow our doctor’s advice.
Joanna Mills has recently been promoted to the position of a project manager at Palmer Inc., a software development firm. As a project manager, she now has the authority to delegate work, provide supervision and feedback, and monitor employee performance. Ever since her promotion, she has been preparing herself to guide her subordinates in different project activities. However, she feels that the employees do not proactively approach her for help. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this situation?
A) Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs.
B) The sole criterion for Joanna’s promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets.
C) Employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager.
D) The managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance.
E) The company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system.
B: The sole criterion for Joanna’s promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets.
The fact that Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs does not explain why her team members do not approach her for help. The fact that the sole criterion for Joanna’s promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets does explain why her team members do not proactively approach her for help. While the promotion provided her with legitimate power, she does not enjoy referent power, which would encourage team members to reach out to her for help. The fact that the employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager does not explain the current situation. The fact that the managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance does not explain why her team does not approach her for help. The fact that the company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system does not explain why her team does not approach her for help.
Dependence would be low when ________.
A) the goods have very few suppliers
B) the goods have low accessibility
C) the goods in question are scarce
D) the products are important
E) the goods have substitutes
E: the goods have substitutes
Dependence increases when the resource you control is important, scarce, or non-substitutable. The fewer viable substitutes for a resource, the more power control over that resource provides.
________ involves increasing the target’s support by involving him or her in decision making.
A) Legitimacy
B) Rational persuasion
C) Consultation
D) Ingratiation
E) Pressure
C: Consultation
Explanation: The power tactic of consultation involves increasing the target’s support by involving him or her in decision making
Mike Ford is a senior accountant at Coleman and Co., which is a financial management company. Mike has wanted to be on the board of representatives of his company for a long time, but the company stipulates a minimum number of years an employee must work at the organization before he or she makes it to the board. Mike is unwilling to work two more years to reach that stipulated experience and so he found a way to transgress this rule. He met up with one of the existing board members who was having problems accounting for allocated funds that went missing and offered to settle that for him in his department provided he nominate Mike to the board. Which of the following power tactics is being used here?
A) Ingratiation
B) Legitimacy
C) Inspirational appeals
D) Pressure
E) Exchange
E: Exchange
The power tactic used here is exchange, which involves rewarding the target with benefits or favors in exchange for following a request
Which of the following “softer” power tactics can be used most effectively for exerting lateral influence?
A) Legitimacy
B) Inspirational appeal
C) Coalition
D) Ingratiation
E) Pressure
B: Inspirational appeal
In general, you are more likely to be effective if you begin with “softer” tactics that rely on personal power, such as personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation. If these fail, you can move to “harder” tactics, such as exchange and coalitions, which emphasize formal power and incur greater costs and risks.
For a person to be recognized as having a high degree of political skill, he or she must have the ________.
A) ability to recognize that power in an organization does not translate into success
B) ability to submit to the demands made by others at all times
C) ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives
D) ability to respect and consider the needs of others first
E) ability to make sacrifices for the betterment of others
C: ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives
Explanation: Political skills of people indicate their ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives.
Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy’s designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Timothy argued that he was only doing his job—a job in which he had responsibility for improving the welfare of employees. Which of the following, if true, would help Hartford Mills avoid such situations in the future?
A) Ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company
B) Holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected
C) Enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties
D) Engaging in collective bargaining as it is the only way to motivate employees to work efficiently
E) Specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee’s formal role in the organization
E: Specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee’s formal role in the organization
Explanation: Ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company is likely to cause problems for the company as it goes against EEOC directives. Holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected is not going to avoid such problems in the future; it may help control the present situation. Enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties is not a solution to this problem. Engaging in collective bargaining to motivate employees goes against the company’s policy of non-unionization and is not a solution. Specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee’s formal role in the organization is a solution as it would limit the scope and functions of the employee’s political actions.
Conflict that hinders group performance is destructive or ________ conflict.
A) process
B) traditional
C) task
D) dysfunctional
E) dyadic
D: dysfunctional
Explanation: Conflict that hinders group performance is destructive or dysfunctional conflict. A highly personal struggle for control in a team that distracts from the task at hand is dysfunctional.
Studies demonstrate that ________ conflicts are almost always ________.
A) relationship; formal
B) relationship; informal
C) relationship; dysfunctional
D) relationship; functional
E) task; reactive
C: relationship; dysfunctional
Explanation: Studies demonstrate that relationship conflicts, at least in work settings, are almost always dysfunctional.
Mike and Keith are on the same team; they work well with other people in the same team but don’t get along with each other. This type of conflict can best be described as ________.
A) intragroup
B) bilateral
C) intergroup
D) dyadic
E) dual
D: dyadic
Explanation: Dyadic conflict takes place between two people. Intragroup conflict occurs within a group or team. Intergroup conflict is conflict between groups or teams.
Conservationists have had a perpetual conflict with the government of the United States over the fast and rampant depletion of Earth’s natural resources. They argue that the United States must reduce its consumption level significantly to rectify this problem. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conservationists’ argument?
A) The United States has been conserving forests for several years.
B) Most countries have not taken any measures to reduce their consumption levels of natural resources.
C) There are several countries that have more requirements for resources than the United States.
D) The United States accounts for one-third of the total world resource consumption.
E) New resource deposits are constantly being discovered.
D: The United States accounts for one-third of the total world resource consumption.
Explanation: The fact that the United States has been conserving forests for several years has nothing to do with the conservationists’ argument. Neither does the fact that there are several countries that have more requirements for resources than the United States nor the fact that new deposits are being discovered. The fact that most countries have not taken any measures to reduce the consumption level does not provide support for the conclusion. The fact that the United States consumes one-third of all resources used in the world supports the conclusion as the United States cannot increase consumption to more than one-third of the world’s resources or they risk depleting Earth’s resources even faster.
Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________.
A) perceived and felt
B) apparent and experienced
C) expressed and resolved
D) analyzed
E) internalized
A: perceived and felt
Explanation: The potential for opposition or incompatibility becomes actualized in the second stage. Because a conflict is a perceived conflict does not mean it is personalized. It is at the felt conflict level, when individuals become emotionally involved, that parties experience anxiety, tension, frustration, or hostility.
In the ________ stage of the conflict process intentions intervenes between people’s perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior.
A) potential opposition
B) intention
C) cognition
D) attribution
E) behavioral manifestation
B: intention
Explanation: Intentions intervene between people’s perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. They are decisions to act in a given way.
A person is using the conflict handling technique of ________ when the one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict.
A) competing
B) avoiding
C) accommodating
D) compromising
E) collaborating
A: competing
Explanation: When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, that person is competing.
The ________ conflict-handling intention is unassertive and uncooperative.
A) competing
B) collaborating
C) avoiding
D) compromising
E) accommodating
C: avoiding
Explanation: Avoiding intentions are unassertive and uncooperative.
A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflict-handling intention as ________.
A) collaborating
B) avoiding
C) compromising
D) competing
E) accommodating
E: accommodating
Explanation: A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflict-handling intention as accommodating.
Conflict becomes visible in the ________ stage of the conflict process.
A) outcomes
B) intentions
C) incompatibility
D) behavior
E) personalization
D: behavior
Explanation: When most people think of conflict situations, they tend to focus on Stage IV because this is where conflicts become visible. The behavior stage includes the statements, actions, and reactions made by the conflicting parties, usually as overt attempts to implement their own intentions.
According to a newly added office smoking regulation, only employees who have an enclosed office may smoke at their desks. This leads to a major conflict between various employees as virtually all employees with enclosed offices are higher-level managers and all other employees lack enclosed offices. Therefore, the lower-level employees who smoke argue that they should be offered enclosed offices. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the employees’ argument?
A) The company is a zealous supporter of the “Kick the Butt” campaign—a corporate anti-smoking campaign.
B) Higher-level managers, who have enclosed offices, are willing to share their offices with-lower-level employees.
C) The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee’s job level.
D) Employees at the higher level, who do not smoke, do not have enclosed offices.
E) The company has a limited budget for infrastructure modifications.
C: The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee’s job level.
Explanation: If the smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee’s job level, then the employees are justified in demanding enclosed offices. Hence, this strengthens their argument. If higher-level managers are willing to share, this only weakens the employees’ argument as they don’t need separate offices. The other options are all against rather than for the employees’ argument. The fact that the company is a zealous supporter of the “Kick the butt before you kick the bucket campaign” is out of scope.
Which of the following conflict management techniques is most likely to be used by a collectivist Chinese manager?
A) Direct confrontation
B) Authoritative command
C) Avoiding
D) Pressurizing
E) Competing tactics
C: Avoiding
Explanation: To preserve peaceful relationships, collectivists will avoid direct expression of conflicts, preferring to use more indirect methods for resolving differences of opinion. Whereas individualist U.S. managers are more likely to use competing tactics in the face of conflicts, compromising and avoiding are the most preferred methods of conflict management in China.
Which of the following is not a necessary condition for integrative bargaining to succeed in organizations?
A) Opposing parties have a zero-sum outlook.
B) Opposing parties are open with information.
C) Opposing parties are candid about concerns.
D) Opposing parties are sensitive to the other’s needs and trust.
E) Opposing parties maintain flexibility.
A: Opposing parties have a zero-sum outlook.
Explanation: For integrative bargaining to succeed in an organization, opposing parties must be open with information, candid about concerns, sensitive to the other’s needs and trust, and flexible.