Exam 3 Flashcards
(278 cards)
0
Q
Chemicals secreted by cells that aren’t neurons
A
Hormones
1
Q
The study of secretion of hormones from glands
A
Endocrinology
2
Q
Tissues that secrete a chemical
A
Glands
3
Q
Secretion OUTSIDE the body
A
Exocrine glands
4
Q
Secretion INTO the blood, acting on distant tissues
A
Endocrine glands
5
Q
Secretion acting on NEARBY cells
A
Paracrine glands
6
Q
Secretion acting on SAME cell
A
Autocrine glands
7
Q
Sweat glands are an example of what kind of glands?
A
Exocrine glands
8
Q
Exocrine and endocrine cells that secrete chemicals are called?
A
Glands
9
Q
Secreted chemicals act via _____ on the _____ ___
A
Receptors
Target cells
10
Q
When stimulated, endocrine cell secretes ____ into the blood
A
Hormone
11
Q
In a normal cell, no hormones lead to?
A
Disease
12
Q
In a normal cell, bad receptors lead to?
A
Disease
13
Q
What was the demonstration of the endocrine system?
A
Leptin
14
Q
If an animal has no hormone, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?
A
Cures the disease
15
Q
If an animal has no receptors or target cells, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?
A
Excess hormone
No effect on disease
16
Q
Leptin serves as a what?
A
Feedback signal
17
Q
Ob/Ob mutation’s extra stop codon terminates what?
A
Leptin transcript
18
Q
Hypoleptinemia is related to what mouse mutation?
A
Ob/Ob mutation
19
Q
db/db’s extra stop codon terminates what?
A
Leptin receptor
20
Q
Functional hypoleptinemia is related to what mutation?
A
db/db mutation
21
Q
ob/ob is missing?
A
Leptin hormone
22
Q
db/db is missing?
A
Leptin receptor
23
Q
When an ob/ob mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?
A
The Wildtype blood normalizes ob/ob
Therefore, Wildtype has hormone that ob/ob is missing
24
When a db/db mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?
db/db blood makes Wildtype anorexic
Therefore, db/db has excess hormone that Wildtype can detect
25
When a db/db mouse shares blood with an ob/ob mouse, what happens?
db/db blood makes ob/ob anorexic
Therefore db/db has excess hormone that ob/ob is missing
26
Since ob/ob has no Leptin hormone, it can't produce what?
Negative feedback signal
27
db/db has no Leptin receptors, so it can't detect what?
Negative feedback signal
28
What happens if you add or subtract Leptin in normal people?
Nothing
29
Pre-hormones circulate where?
In the blood
30
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing's Syndrome?
A. Wasting of muscles and most fat depots
B. Tumor of the adrenal medulla
C. Suppressed immune system
D. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
E. Changes in mood and sleep
Tumor of the adrenal medulla
31
```
_____, excreted by adipocytes, serve as negative feedback to the _____ in order to reduce feeding behavior.
A. Ghrelin; anterior pituitary
B. Thyroxine; posterior pituitary
C. POMC; adrenal medulla
D. Leptin; hypothalamus
E. Terraiodothyronine; thyroid gland
```
D. Leptin; hypothalamus
32
Steroid hormones must dissociate from ______ in order to pass through the cell membrane. Inside the cytoplasm, steroid hormones bind to the _____ of receptor proteins in order to influence gene expression.
A. transport proteins; DNA binding domain
B. Transit proteins; steroid binding domain
C. Transmission proteins; response element
D. Extracellular transient proteins; transcription factor
E. Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain
Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain
33
```
After the circulatory systems of two mice are surgically connects, one mouse remains obese while the second mouse becomes anorexic. One mouse is ___ and the anorexic mouse is ___.
A. db/db; Wildtype
B. db/db; ob/ob
C. ob/ob; db/db
D. A or B
E. B or C
D. A or B
```
D. A or B
34
Addison's Disease is caused by:
A. Excess ACTH secretion
B. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
C. Loss of the adrenal cortex
D. Transection of the infundibulum
E. Secretion of ACTH by a lung cancer tumor
Loss of the adrenal cortex
35
Negative feedback in a hypothalamic-pituitary axis involves:
A. An elevation in hypothalamic releasing hormones
B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary
C. A drop in blood glucose
D. Comparison in hypothalamic releasing hormones
E. Unpleasant systems of hormone release
B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary
36
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a db/db mouse?
A. No Leptin receptors
B. No Leptin hormone
C. Can't detect negative feedback signal from fat
D. Overproduction of Leptin hormone
E. Functional hypoleptinemia
B. No Leptin hormone
37
The long-term response to stress includes:
A. The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
B. an increase in heart rate
C. Parasympathetic nerve activation
D. Fear
E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood
E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood
38
```
After transection of the infundibulum, the secretion of most pituitary hormones goes down, but secretion of _____ increases.
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. ADH
C. Prolactin
D. ACTH
E. ACTH
```
C. Prolactin
39
```
This second messenger molecule releases Ca++ from the endoplasmic reticulum after it is converted from phospholipids by phospholipase C.
A. Tyrosine
B. IP3
C. cAMP
D. DAG
E. Calmodulin
```
B. IP3
40
What are the three types of lipophilic hormones?
Steroids
Thyroid hormone
Retinoic acid
41
Steroids, thyroid hormone, and Retinoic acid are all what types of hormones?
Lipophilic hormones
42
Lipophilic molecules are usually bound in the blood to what kind of proteins?
Carrier proteins
43
Nuclear receptor hormones coordinate what two responses?
Peripheral physiological response
| Central neural response
44
Nuclear receptor hormones bind to specific sequences called _____ _____ in gene promoters.
Response elements
45
Nuclear receptor hormones are synthesized from lipid-soluble store by ______.
Enzymes
46
Steroid hormones are derived from ______.
Cholesterol
47
The adrenal gland converts ______ into _______.
Cholesterol into cortisol
48
Steroids are produced by what kind of glands?
Endocrine glands
49
Estrogen receptor in presence of estrogen binds to __________?
Estrogen response element (ERE)
50
_______ blocks estrogen receptors and is used se treatment for breast cancer
Tamoxifen
51
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are examples of what kind of hormones?
Second-messenger coupled hormones
52
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are coded for by _____.
Genes
53
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are packaged in _______.
Vesicles
54
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are hydrophilic/hydrophobic molecules?
Hydrophilic
55
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones circulate and act on what kind of receptors?
Plasma membrane receptors
56
What are the 3 common hormone receptor signaling pathways?
GPCR linked to cAMP
GPCR linked to phospholipase C and Ca++
Tyrosine Kinase Receptors
57
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it gets the message across the _______ to?
Membrane to inside the cell
58
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it amplifies the message by production of many of what kind of molecules?
cAMP molecules
59
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it spreads the message by _______ of ______ throughout the cell
Diffusion ; cAMP
60
Insulin, Leptin, and cytokines are examples of what?
Tyrosine receptor kinases
61
Tyrosine receptor kinases are located where?
Outside of the cell
62
When intracellular Ca++ acts as a second messenger it is located where?
Endoplasmic reticulum
63
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it is located where?
Plasma membrane
64
Brain region between brainstem and cerebellum that integrates sensory information and generates physiological responses to maintain homeostasis
Hypothalamus
65
The ______ is attached to the underside of the hypothalamus by the ______?
Pituitary gland ; infundibulum
66
The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by what kind of veins
Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal veins
67
The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by what kind of tract?
Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
68
Which lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete trophic hormones into the circulation that stimulate target organs in the body
Anterior lobe
69
The anterior lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete what into circulation?
Trophic hormones
70
What lobe contains axon terminals of ADH and oxytocin neurons that originate in the hypothalamus?
Posterior lobe
71
The posterior lobe contains axon terminals of what two types of neurons?
ADH and oxytocin
72
Which type of pituitary (anterior or posterior) has an extra step of regulation?
Anterior pituitary
73
The _______ regulates the pituitary function with releasing and release-inhibitory hormones.
Hypothalamus
74
Releasing hormones cause the pituitary to release what?
Stimulatory hormones
75
Stimulatory hormones increase/decrease target glands activity
Increase
76
Inhibitory hormones cause the pituitary to suppress/release Stimulatory hormones.
Suppress
77
Inhibitory hormones increase/decrease target gland activity
Decrease
78
The transection of infundibulum causes a decrease of all pituitary hormones except ______ increases
Prolactin
79
Target hormones: _____ feedback to hypothalamus and pituitary
Negative
80
Target hormones: _____ levels of releasing hormones and Stimulatory hormones
Decreased
81
If you're producing a lot of milk then it might be a ______ problem.
Dopamine
82
In a feed forward loop the releasing hormone goes from the _____ to the _____
Hypothalamus -----> pituitary
83
In a feed forward loop the trophic hormone goes from the ______ to the ______
Pituitary -------> target glans
84
Tumors, lack of negative feedback, and inappropriate synthesis/degradation can lead to what?
Hypersecretion
85
Lack of releasing/trophic hormone, lack of synthetic enzymes, and lack of receptors can lead to what?
Real or functional hyposecretion
86
Long-term, transcriptional stress response are mediated by?
Glucocorticoids
87
What hormone is associated with long term stress?
ACTH
88
The hypersecretion of _______ is a symptom of PTSD and depression
Cortisol
89
_______ levels are highest in highest the morning which is why you are supposed to draw blood in the morning.
Cortisol
90
What are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex?
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
91
The adrenal medulla releases ____ and _____ into the blood
Norepinephrine and epinephrine
92
Zona glomerulosa produces what steroid?
Aldosterone
93
Zona fasciculata produces what steroid?
Cortisol
94
Zona reticularis produces what steroid?
Androgens
95
Glucocorticoids contain the _____ response
Stress
96
Glucocorticoids suppress ____ and suppress the _____
Swelling ; the immune system
97
Glucocorticoids reduce ________.
Tissue damage
98
Glucocorticoids mobilize energy from ____ and ______.
Muscle ; fat
99
Glucocorticoids induce ________ for detoxification
Liver enzymes
100
In negative feedback of cortisol: if cortisol synthesis is blocked them ACTH levels stay ____
Elevated
101
If excess glucocorticoids are administered, HPA detects __________, so then ACTH and cortisol levels should ____.
High negative feedback ; fall
102
The _________ test administers an artificial glucocorticoid to confirm that HPA responds to negative feedback.
Dexamethasone suppression test
103
In the HPA axis, negative feedback: cortisol feeds back to the ______ and the _____
Pituitary ; hypothalamus
104
In HPA axis, negative feedback: the pituitary inhibits _____ release
ACTH
105
In HPA axis, negative feedback: the hypothalamus inhibits ____ release
CRH
106
In the HPA axis, if you remove negative feedback then the ____ and ____ levels will increase
ACTH and CRH
107
In HPA axis, enhanced negative feedback: a Dex pretreatment will cause blunted ______ response to ____.
ACTH ; CRH
108
Tumors can ______ hormones
Oversecrete
109
Tumors of the adrenal gland can produce too much ________.
Cortisol
110
Tumors of the pituitary gland or lung can produce too much _______.
ACTH
111
Tumors of the adrenal medulla produce too much _____.
Epinephrine
112
Hyper-epinephrine -------> increase/decrease heart rate
| Hyper-norepinephrine -----> increase/decrease heart rate
Increase ; decrease
113
What disease is caused by autoimmune or infectious destruction of adrenal cortex?
Addison's disease
114
In Addison's disease there are no _______.
Glucocorticoids
115
In Addison's disease there are low ____ and high ____.
Corticosteroids ; ACTH
116
The hypersecretion of cortisol describes what syndrome?
Cushing's syndrome
117
TRH stands for?
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone
118
The hypothalamus secretes _____ into short portal vessels
TRH
119
TRH stimulates thyrotroph cells in the pituitary to secrete _____ into the blood
TSH
120
What does TSH stand for?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
121
TSH stimulates _____ to synthesize and release ______.
Thyroid gland ; thyroxine
122
Thyroxine binds to nuclear thyroid hormone recoveries to upregulate ______.
Metabolism
123
Lack of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____
Small
124
Increase of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____.
Large
125
______ are follicular cells surrounding colloid
Spherical follicles
126
Iodide is concentrated in follicular cells by _____
Na+/I- cotransporter
127
I- is concentrated in the colloid by transporter _____.
Pendrin
128
The synthesis of thyroxin occurs in the ____
Colloid
129
Hypertrophy of the thyroid gland describes what disease?
Goiter
130
Endemic goiter is caused by a lack of _____ in the diet
Iodine
131
Mental retardation due to hypothyroidism during pregnancy and after birth is what disease?
Cretinism (an example of hypothyroidism)
132
Graves' disease is another symptom of _____
Hyperthyroidism
133
Hypothyroid treatment includes what 2 things?
Iodized salt, T4 injections
134
Hyperthyroid treatment includes what?
Radioactive iodine to kill thyroid gland cells
135
The auditory sound referred to as a heart beat is produced by pressure differences between the _____ that closes the AV valve. Likewise, the pressure difference between _____ closes the semilunar valves.
A. Diastole and systole; systole and diastole
B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery
C. Bicuspid valve and tricuspid valve; pulmonary valve; aortic valve
D. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the aorta/pulmonary artery; atria and ventricles
E. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the atria; atria and ventricles
B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery
136
The opening of _________ channels result in the rapid depolarization of myocardial cells in the ventricles; whereas the opening of ______ channels results in the slow plateau of the AP. ________ efflux then hyperpolarizes the cell.
A. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow K+; Na+
B. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow Na+ channels; K+
C. Fast Na+ channels; slow K+; Ca2+
D. Fast K+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; Na+
E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+
E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+
137
Blood pressure, measured by mm Hg, is lowest in the ______; however, blood is prevented from back flow by ______.
A. Capillaries; fenestra
B. Ventricles; valves
C. Veins; valves
D. Lungs; systole
E. Arteries; skeletal muscle contractions
C. Veins; valves
138
According to an electrocardiogram, the ___ wave is created by atrial depolarization, the ___ wave is due to the spread of depolarization to the ventricles, and the S-T interval is due to the _____.
A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
B. T; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
C. PQR; S; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
D. P; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
E. PQR; S; hyperpolerization of the myocardial cell
A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
139
Damage to the Purkinje fibers due to ischemia can result in:
A. Circus rhythms
B. Out of synch heart contractions
C. Death
D. Lack of proper coordination of refractory periods
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
140
In response to ACh, HCN channels open ____; which _____ heart rate due to the opening of more ___ channels.
A. Slower; increases; Ca2+
B. Quicker; slows; Na+
C. Slower; slows; K+
D. Slower and then quicker; ultimately increases; NE
E. Quicker; increases; Ca2+
C. Slower; slows; K+
141
The pacemaker cells are different than neurons because:
A. Pacemaker cells both depolarize and hyperpolarize; whereas neurons do not
B. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results due to the opening of voltage-gated ion channels in response to a slight depolarization, as opposed to hyperpolarization in neurons
C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons
D. Neurons both hyperpolarize and depolarize; whereas pacemaker cells do not
E. Pacemaker cells are in the heart and neurons are in the brain
C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons
142
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A fenestrated capillary is _____ to compounds found in Horne blood; however, the majority of capillaries in the brain have _______.
A. Permeable; high oxygen levels
B. Impermeable; mitochondria
C. Permeable; mitochondria
D. Impermeable; tight junctions
E. Permeable; tight junctions
```
E. Permeable; tight junction
143
Lidocaine and Verapamil are different from Propranolol in which of the following ways?
A. Lidocaine binds to an Adrenergic receptor; whereas Propranolol and Verapamil bind to voltage-gated channels
B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability
C. Lidocaine and Verapamil are released by the sympathetic nervous system, Propranolol from the parasympathetic vagus
D. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel antagonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel agonist
E. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel agonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel antagonist
B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability
144
The ______ is the origin of the action potential that spreads from the pacemaker cells located at the top of the right atria. Due to fibrous skeleton of the heart, this action potential must then pass through the _____ in order to depolarize the ventricles of the heart.
A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node
B. Atrioventricular bundle; AV node
C. Purkinje fibers; SA node
D. His node; HCN channel
E. AV node; atrioventricular bundle
A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node
145
What receives incoming blood and then passes it to the ventricle?
Atrium
146
What is the muscular pump that sends blood to a separate circulation?
Ventricle
147
What are the vessels that carry blood from the heart towards the capillaries?
Arteries
148
Arteries are high in ________.
Oxygen
149
What carries blood from capillaries back to the heart?
Veins
150
Veins are low in _______.
Oxygen
151
What are very small vesicles that perfuse all the tissues?
Capillaries
152
When you hear "lub-dub" the "lub" is the sound of what?
Closing of AV valves
153
When you hear "lub-dub" the "dub" is he sound of what?
The closing of the semilunar valves
154
The Cardiac Cycle: Where are the chambers relaxed, where blood can flow in?
Diastole
155
The Cardiac Cycle: where is the atria contracting, pushing blood into ventricles?
Atrial systole
156
The Cardiac Cycle: where do ventricles contract with high pressure, pushing blood into the lungs and systemic circulation?
Ventricular systole
157
The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle is relaxed is called?
Diastolic pressure (bottom number)
158
The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle contracts and pumps is called?
Systolic pressure (top number)
159
AP starts from pacemaker cells in ______.
Sinoatrial node
160
Myocardium forms a functional ______, via _____
Syncitium ; gap junctions
161
Myocardial AP has slow _____ channels
Ca2+
162
Tissue damage due to lack of oxygen is called?
Myocardial infarction
163
Which wave is this describing: AP spreads rapidly across atria to cause depolarization and atrial systole contraction
P wave
164
AP cannot cross directly to ventricles. It must pass through ________.
Atrioventricular node
165
What wave is this?: ventricles depolarize and contract
QRS wave
166
What wave is this?: ventricles repolarize
T wave
167
What segment/internal is this? Time for AP to spread from atrial to ventricles
P-Q segment
168
What interval/segment is this?: time for ventricles to depolarize and repolarize
S-T interval
169
Slow heart beat
Bradycardia
170
Rapid heart beat
Tachycardia
171
Loss of rhythm
Arrhythmia
172
Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow, leads to cell damage and death
Ischemia
173
"Quivering" of myocardium; uncoordinated contraction
Fibrillation
174
During an AV node block,you can observe __ waves without ___ wave
P waves
| QRS wave
175
Electrical shock depolarized all of he myocardial cells at the same time, and synchronize in refractory state so SA node can restart contract - what is this?
Defribillator
176
Continuous recycling of AP around ventricles when refractory periods of myocardial cells become desynchronized - what is this?
Circus rhythms
177
When you see depression of ST interval (swoops down low on the graph) that means there is damage to the ________
Myocardium
178
Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow
Ischemia
179
Which nervous system decreases heart rate?
Parasympathetic nervous system
180
Which nervous system increases heart rate?
Sympathetic nervous system
181
Which drug blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels?
Lidocaine
182
Which drug is a "beta blocker" which blocks norepinephrine from binding beta-Adrenergic receptors?
Propranolol
183
Which drug blocks the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels?
Verapamil
184
NE increases/decreases cAMP?
Increases
185
ACh increases/decreases cAMP?
Decreases
186
When NE effects pacemaker cells, HCN/Ca2+ channels open ______.
Faster
187
The effect of NE on pacemaker cells means that there is a ________ heart beat
Faster
188
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, HCN channels open _______.
Slower
189
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, more ____ channels open.
K+
190
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, there is a ____ heart beat
Slower
191
Arteries are high in ______
Oxygen
192
________ can regulate blood flow to capillaries or bypass through shunt.
Pre-capillary sphincters
193
Most capillaries are _____ which means they have channels.
Fenestrated
194
Because veins have low blood pressure, they have two adaptions, which are?
1. Contraction of skeletal muscle surrounding the veins
| 2. Valves that prevent the flood from flowing backwards
195
When you're arm is swelling after cutting off the circulation, what exactly is the swelling?
Blood backing up against the one-way valves
196
The greater the SA of blood vessels, the greater the ______.
Resistance (blood flow slows down!)
197
Increased blood in the ventricles of the heart results in greater strength during contraction (Frank Starling Law) because:
A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomeres have less overlap due to the stretch
B. The heart has more O2 available to it
C. The AV valves are more tightly shut
D. More blood in the ventricle means higher blood pressure in the ventricle
E. More K+ channels are open
A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomere have less overlap due to stretch
198
```
An increase in the following will decrease the resistance of a blood vessel:
A. Oxygen
B. Viscosity
C. Radius
D. Length
E. Carbon dioxide
```
C. Radius
199
```
Exercise ______blood flow to skeletal muscles, ____ blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract and liver, and ______ blood flow to the brain.
A. Increases; decreases; increases
B. Increases; decreases; does not change
C. Increases; does not change; decreases
D. Does not change; decreases; increases
E. Increases; increases; increases
```
B. Increases; decreases; does not change
200
```
A healthy heart has an ejection volume that is maintained at _____ of end-diastolic volume (EDV):
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
E. 100%
```
A. 60%
201
When blood flow and pressure is reduced in the renal artery, the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes ______ into the blood. This enzyme cleaves _____ into ______.
A. Alsosterone; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
B. Thrombin; fibrinogen; fibrin
C. Renin; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
E. Aldosterone; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
202
After lying down, you sit up and notice your vision starts turning black. You come to the conclusion that your blood pressure was too low to adequately supply your brain with oxygenated blood. Which of the following is NOT a part of orthostatic regulation of blood pressure?
A. Sympathetic innervation
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid sinus
E. The medulla oblongata
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
203
Baroreceptors detect changes in ______; whereas osomoseceptors detect changes in _____.
A. Oxygen concentration; carbon dioxide concentration
B. Sympathetic input; parasympathetic input
C. Oncotic pressure; resistance of blood flow
D. Blood osmolality; vasoconstriction
E. Blood pressure; blood concentration
E. Blood pressure; blood concentration
204
Which of the following is TRUE about the lymphatic system?
A. The lymphatic system prevents the formation and spread of cancer in the human body
B. The lymphatic system has no connections with the intestines
C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
D. Lymphatic capillaries make up a closed circulatory system
E. Because the lymph ducts lack a heart-like organ, lymph can only passively move in the lymphatic system
C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
205
```
Which of the following does NOT contribute to an increase in end-diastolic volume?
A. Skeletal muscle lumps
B. Breathing
C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation
D. Tissue-fluid volume
E. Negative intrathoracic pressure
```
D. Tissue-fluid volume
206
```
_______ is secreted from the left atrium; ______ is secreted from the posterior pituitary.
A. Renin; aldosterone
B. Norepi; Epi
C. ANP; ADH
D. Water; NaCl
E. AngII; ACTH
```
C. ANP; ADH
207
What is the correct terminology for blood clotting?
Hemostasis
208
In a damaged blood vessel, platelets bind to collagen and __________.
von Willbrand's factor
209
In a damaged blood vessel, platelets activate plasma clotting factors, converting soluble _____ to insoluble ______
Fibrinogen ; fibrin
210
In an intact blood vessel, prostaglandin and NO keep vessel ______
Dilated
211
In an intact blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.
Low
212
In intact blood vessels, platelets are _______.
Inactive
213
In a damaged blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.
High
214
In damaged blood vessels, platelets are ______
Active
215
In damaged blood vessels, activated platelets bind to _____ and ______
Collagen ; Von Willbrand's factor
216
A clot formation causes ____ formation to reinforce platelet plug
Fibrin
217
When blood clots on its own, what kind of pathway is that?
Intrinsic pathway
218
When damaged tissue releases tissue factor that accelerates clotting, what pathway is that?
Extrinsic pathway
219
In clotting, prothrombin is converted into ____.
Thrombin
220
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to ________.
Fibrin
221
__________ converts glutamate residues of clotting factors into gamma-carboglutamate
Vitamin K
222
Gamma-carboyglutamate increases binding of _____ to clotting factors
Ca++
223
Vitamin K deficiency or blockage by drugs lead to _______ clotting ability
Decreased
224
In clot dissolution, factor XII activated ________
Kallikrein
225
In clot dissolution, Kallikrein converts _______ into _______.
Plasminogen into plasmin
226
There is NO clotting in ________.
Hemophilia
227
Vitamin K helps ______
Blood clots
228
Hemophilia is genetic how?
X-linked recessive
229
If you mix hemophilia blood with normal blood you will get?
Blood clots
230
If you mix hemophilia A with hemophilia B what do you get?
Blood clots
231
Volume of blood pumped each minute by each ventricle
Cardiac output
232
Cardiac output is the product of _____ and ____
Cardiac rate x Stroke volume
233
Cardiac output that is too low to maintain blood supply to the body leads to?
Cardiac failure
234
SA node and AV node are _______
Chronotropic
235
Atrial muscle and ventricular muscle are ______
Inotropic
236
Amount of blood in vesicles right before they contract
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
237
Strength of ventricle contraction
Contractibility
238
Frictional resistance of arteries to increased blood flow
Total peripheral resistance
239
The frank-starling law is what kind of control?
Intrinsic
240
Stroke volume is the product of what divided by what?
(EDV x Contractibility)/total peripheral resistance
241
Ejection fraction in healthy heart is maintained at ___%
60%
242
The more blood in a ventricle, the more the ventricle _____.
Contracts
243
The return of blood to the heart via the veins
Venous return
244
Veins have higher compliance
Capacitance vessels
245
_________ capillaries are closed end but very porous vessels in interstitial space
Lymphatic
246
In the Lymphatic system, capillaries merge to form _________, similar to veins with valves.
Lymph ducts
247
Lymph is moved by _____ contractions of smooth muscle of lymph ducts.
Peristaltic
248
Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via _______ and _______
Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
249
Excessive interstitial fluid
Edema
250
Pressure at which blood can first get past cuff gives ______ pressure
Systolic
251
Pressure at which all blood can get past cuff gives _______ pressure
Diastolic
252
Smaller, longer vessels have _______ resistance
Greater
253
Wider vessels have ______ resistance
Lower
254
When there is a greater resistance pressure has to ______.
Drop
255
_______ control blood flow to different areas
Sphincters
256
During excercise, you need to increase the delivery of _____ and _____ to skeletal muscle.
Oxygen ; glucose
257
During exercise, in order to increase the delivery of oxygen, you need to increase ______.
Cardiac input
258
One solution of increasing oxygen and glucose to skeletal muscle during exercise is to ______ the blood to target heart and skeletal muscle.
Reroute
259
Increasing blood flow to heart and skeletal muscle is done by ________
Vasodilation
260
Decreasing blood flow to some organs is done by ________.
Vasoconstriction
261
In order to increase cardiac input, you need to increase _____ and _____.
Heart rate ; stroke volume
262
During exercise, there is a decreased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic outflow to the _____ and _____.
Heart ; Arterioles
263
During exercise, epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla and goes to the _____ and _____.
Heart ; Arterioles
264
During exorcise, metabolizes released from muscle leads to ______.
Vasodilation
265
During exercise, there is increased breathing and muscle movements which increases _____.
Venous return
266
Exercise increases cardiac input and causes _______ of blood flow.
Redistribution
267
Rapid neural responses consist of what two things?
Baroreflex ; Osmoreceptors
268
Endocrine responses consist of what 3 things?
ADH
ANP
Renin-Angiosin II-aldosterone
269
Arterial blood pressure is the product of what?
Cardiac input x total peripheral resistance
V = I x R
270
Beta blockers lower ______
Blood pressure
271
Elevated _____ in blood above 0.15 M causes drinking in pigs.
NaCl
272
Diuretics block ____ to cause more _____ production
ADH ; urine production
273
Cells that respond to changes in plasma osmolality
Osmoreceptors
274
ACE inhibitors lower ______.
Blood pressure
275
ACE stands for?
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
276
In the volemic challenge, you lose ____ and ____ drops
Blood ; pressure
277
The response to the Volemic Challenge is to ______ to raise BP
Vasocontrict
