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BIOL 190 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Mitosis

A

The division of the nucleus

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2
Q

Define cytokinesis

A

The division of the cytoplasm

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3
Q

Define Meiosis

A

Gametes production by a variation of cell division

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4
Q

During what phase of the cell cycle does replication occur?

A

S phase

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5
Q

What are the main phases of mitosis?

A 
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
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6
Q

What are main phases of mitosis?

A 
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
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7
Q

What occurs during Interphase?

A

Chromosomes duplicate and have not yet condensed.

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8
Q

What occurs during prophase?

A
  • Chromatin fibers become tightly coiled
  • Chromosomes become visible
  • Nuclear envelope fragments
  • Mitotic spindle begins to form
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9
Q

What occurs during metaphase?

A

Chromosomes convene on the metaphase plate

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10
Q

Which mitotic phase is the longest phase?

A

Metaphase

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11
Q

What occurs during Anaphase?

A

2 sister chromatids separate

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12
Q

What occurs during Telophase

A

2 daughter nuclei begin to form (cleavage furrow)

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13
Q

During anaphase, what do sister chromatids do?

A

Thet separate and move along kinetochore microtubules toward oposite ends of the cell

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14
Q

How do microtubules shorten?

A

By depolymerizing at their kinetochore ends

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15
Q

Which of the following occurs during prophase?

A

The mitotic spindle begins to form

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16
Q

What is the average amount of time for a human cell to undergo one division?

A

24 hours

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17
Q

How long is each phase of cell division in a human cell?

A

G1= 6 hours
S= 12 hours
G2= 6 hours
Mitotic phase=

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18
Q

How long is metaphase?

A

20 mins

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19
Q

How long is anaphase?

A

3 mins

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20
Q

Where did Mitosis evolve from?

A

Binary Fission

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21
Q

Where did Mitosis evolve from?

A

Binary Fission

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22
Q

Where did Mitosis evolve from?

A

Binary Fission

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23
Q

What type of cell division do protists experience?

A

cell division intermediate between binary fission and mitosis

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24
Q

True or False: The frequency of cell division varies with the type of cell

A

False

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25
Q

Do human skin cells divide frequently or infrequently?

A

Frequently

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26
Q

True or false: Mature nerve and muscle cells don’t divide in a mature human

A

True

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27
Q

What is a good analogy for the cell cycle control system?

A

Stoplights or a clock

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28
Q

How is the Cell cycle controlled?

A

The clock has specific checkpoints where the cell cycle stops until a go-ahead signal is received

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29
Q

What is the most important checkpoint?

A

G1

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30
Q

What happens if a cell receives a go ahead at the G1 checkpoint?

A

It will complete the S, G2, and M phases and divide

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31
Q

What happens if a cell does not recieve a go ahead at the G1 checkpoint?

A

It will exit the cycle switching into a nondividing state called the G0 phase

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32
Q

True or False: Most cells of the human body are actually in the G0 phase

A

True

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33
Q

True or False: Most cells of the human body are actually in the G0 phase

A

True

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34
Q

What is an example of an internal signal (occuring at the M phase check point)?

A

Kinetochore’s not attached to spindle

Microtubules send a molecular signal that delays anaphase

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35
Q

What are external signals?

A

Growth factors, proteins released by certain cells that stimulate other cells to divide

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36
Q

What do external signals allow cells to do?

A

Pass the G1 checkpoint and divide

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37
Q

What does the Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) do?

A

Stimulates the division of human fibroblast cells in culture

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38
Q

What is another example of an external signal and what occurs?

A

Density-Dependent Inhibition

Crowded cells stop dividing

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39
Q

What is another example of an external signal and what occurs?

A

Density-Dependent Inhibition

Crowded cells stop dividing

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40
Q

What is anchorage dependence?

A

Animal cells must be attached to a substratum in order to divide

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41
Q

Do cancer cells exhibit density dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence?

A

Neither

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42
Q

Do cancer cells respond normally to the body’s control mechanisms? (go through checkpoints)

A

No

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43
Q

Do cancer cells need growth factors to grow and divide? Why/why not?

A
  • No.
  • They make their own growth factor
  • They may convey a growth factor’s signal without the presence of the growth factor
  • They may have an abnormal cell cycle control system
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44
Q

How is a normal cell converted to a cancerous cell?

A

A process called transformation

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45
Q

How are tumors formed?

A

Cancer cells that are not eliminated by the immune system accumulate

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46
Q

What is a tumor?

A

Masses of abnormal cells within otherwise normal tissue

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47
Q

What is a benign tumor?

A

When abnormal cells remain only at the original site

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48
Q

What is a malignant tumor?

A

Abnormal cells invade surrounding tissues and may form additional tumors

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49
Q

What is metastasize?

A

Exportation of cancer cells to other parts of the body

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50
Q

What is metastasize?

A

Exportation of cancer cells to other parts of the body

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51
Q

Define asexual reproduction

A

a single individual passes genes to its offspring without the fusion of gametes

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52
Q

What is a clone?

A

A group of genetically identical individuals from the same parent

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53
Q

Define sexual reproduction

A

two parents give rise to offspring that have unique combinations of genes inherited from the two parents

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54
Q

In an ovum, how many autosomes, x chromosomes, y chromosomes are there and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 autosomes
  • 1 x chromosomes
  • 0 y chromosomes
  • haploid (n)
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55
Q

In a sperm how many autosomes, x chromosomes, y chromosomes are there and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 autosomes
  • 0 or 1 x chromosomes
  • 0 or 1 y chromosomes
  • haploid (n)
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56
Q

In a female somatic cell, how many autosomes, x chromosomes, y chromosomes are there and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 pairs
  • 2 x chromosomes
  • 0 y chromosomes
  • Diploid (2n)
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57
Q

In a male somatic cell, how many autosomes, x chromosomes, and y chromosomes are there, and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 pairs
  • 1 x chromosome
  • 1 y chromosome
  • diploid (2n)
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58
Q

In a zygote, how many autosomes, x chromosomes, and y chromosomes are there, and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 pairs
  • 1 or 2 x chromosomes
  • 0 or 1 y chromosome
  • Diploid (2n)
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59
Q

In a zygote, how many autosomes, x chromosomes, and y chromosomes are there, and is it haploid/diploid?

A
  • 22 pairs
  • 1 or 2 x chromosomes
  • 0 or 1 y chromosome
  • Diploid (2n)
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60
Q

A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a y chromosome is a

A

Sperm cell

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61
Q

Plants and algae exhibit a

A

alternation of generations

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62
Q

In plants and algea the life cycle includes how many multicellular generations/ stages and what are they?

A

2

One diploid one haploid

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63
Q

What is the name of the diploid organism in plants and algae?

A

Sporophyte

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64
Q

How does a sporophyte make haploid spores?

A

Meiosis

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65
Q

Each spore grows by mitosis into a haploid organism called a

A

Gametophyte

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66
Q

How does a gametophyte make haploid gametes

A

Mitosis

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67
Q

In most fungi and some protists the only diploid stage is

A

The single-celled zygote

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68
Q

Is there amulticellular diploid stage in fungi and protists?

A

no

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69
Q

How does the zygote of fungi and protists produce haploid cells?

A

Meiosis

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70
Q

True or false: In fungi and protists each haploid cell grows by mitosis into a haploid multicellular organism

A

True

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71
Q

In fungi and protists how do haploid adults produce gametes?

A

Mitosis

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72
Q

True or false: depending on the type of life cycle either haploid or diploid cells can divide by mitosis

A

True

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73
Q

True or false: only diploid cells can undergo meiosis

A

True

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74
Q

True or false: in all three life cycles chromosome halving and doubling do not contribute to genetic variation in offspring

A

False.

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75
Q

In comparing the typical life cycles of plants and animals a stage found in plants but not in animals is a

A

Multicellular haploid

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76
Q

True or false: Meiosis is not preceded by the replication of chromosomes

A

False

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77
Q

What occurs during Meiosis 1 interphase?

A
  • Chromosomes are replicated to form sister chromatids

- Sister chromatids are genetically identical and joined at the centromere

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78
Q

What occurs during Meiosis 1 interphase?

A
  • Chromosomes are replicated to form sister chromatids

- Sister chromatids are genetically identical and joined at the centromere

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79
Q

What are the two sets of cell divisions in which meiosis takes place?

A

Meiosis I and Meiosis II

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80
Q

What happens in the first cell division (meiosis I)

A

homologous chromosomes separate and results in two haploid daughter cells with replicated chromosomes

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81
Q

What happens in the second cell division (meiosis II)

A

Sister chromatids separate resulting in four haploid daughter cells with unreplicated chromosomes

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82
Q

What is the overall result of Meiosis I and II

A

four daughter cells rather than the two daughter cells in mitosis

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83
Q

True or false: In meiosis each daughter cell has only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell?

A

True

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84
Q

What are the main phases of Meiosis I?

A 
Interphase
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
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85
Q

What happens in interphase during Meiosis I?

A

Single centrosome replicates forming two centrosomes and chromosomes duplicate

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86
Q

What happens in prophase I?

A

In synapsis, homologous chromosomes loosely pair up, aligned gene by gene.

  • Crossing over occurs
  • Each pair of chromosomes forms a tetrad
87
Q

Define tetrad

A

a group of four chromatids

88
Q

Define chiasmata

A

X shaped regions where crossing over occurred

89
Q

What happens in Metaphase I

A

Tetrads line up at the metaphase plate

Independent assortment occurs

90
Q

What happens in Anaphase I

A

Sister chromatids remain attached and pairs of homologous chromosomes split up

91
Q

What happens in Anaphase I

A

Sister chromatids remain attached and pairs of homologous chromosomes split up

92
Q

What happensin telophase I?

A

Cleavage furrow forms, two haploid cells form, chromosomes are still doubled

93
Q

Does chromosome replication occur between meiosis I and II?

A

NO

94
Q

Are sister chromatids of each chromosome genetically identical? Why/Why not?

A

No

Crossing over

95
Q

What happens during prophase II?

A

Spindle apparatus forms

96
Q

What happens during Metaphase II?

A

Sister chromatids are arranged at the metaphase plate

97
Q

What is the name of the cleavage furrow in plant cells?

A

Cell Plate

98
Q

What happens during Anaphase II?

A

Sister chromatids separate

99
Q

What happens in Telophase II?

A

Four haploid daughter cells result containing single chromosomes

100
Q

True or false: each daughter cell formed in Meiosis II are genetically identical to others and the parent cell

A

False. They are genetically different

101
Q

Is Meiosis I or Meiosis II most similar to Mitosis?

A

Mitosis II

102
Q

Does Mitosis or Meiosis conserve the number of chromosome sets producing cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell?

A

Mitosis

103
Q

Does Mitosis or Meiosis reduce the number of chromosomes sets from diploid to haploid producing cells that differ genetically from each other and the parent cell

A

Meiosis

104
Q

True or false: The mechanism for separating sister chromatids is virtually identical in meiosis II and mitosis

A

True

105
Q

What three events are used to distinguish meiosis from mitosis?

A
  1. Synapsis and crossing over
  2. Tetrads on the metaphase plate
  3. Separation of homologues
106
Q

What is the original source of genetic diversity?

A

Mutations (changes in an organism’s DNA)

107
Q

What produces genetic variation?

A

Reshuffling of different versions of genes during sexual reproduction

108
Q

What produces genetic variation?

A

Reshuffling of different versions of genes during sexual reproduction

109
Q

True or false: The behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization is responsible for most of the variation that arises in each generation

A

True

110
Q

What three mechanisms contribute to genetic variation

A
  1. Independent assortment of chromosomes
  2. Crossing over
  3. Random Fertilization
111
Q

What is independent assortment?

A

Each pair of chromosomes sorts maternal and paternal homologues into daughter cells independently of the other pairs

112
Q

When do homologous pairs of chromosomes orient randomly?

A

Metaphase I of meiosis

113
Q

What is the number of combinations possible when chromosomes assort independently into gametes?

A

2^n

where n is the haploid number

ex// humans (n=23) so 2^23 possible combinations of chromosomes

114
Q

What does crossing over produce?

A

recombinant chromosomes which combine genes inherited from each parent

115
Q

When does crossing over begin?

A

very early in prophase I as homologues pair up gene by gene

116
Q

In crossing over, homologous portions of two non sister chromatids

A

trade places

117
Q

How does randum fertilization add to genetic variation?

A

Any sperm can fuse with any ovum (unfertilized egg)

118
Q

The fusion of two gametes produces a zygote with how many diploid combinations?

A

70 trillion

119
Q

The fusion of two gametes produces a zygote with how many diploid combinations?

A

70 trillion

120
Q

The chromosome theory of inheritance states:

A
  • Mendelian genes have specific loci (positions on chromosomes)
  • It is the chromosomes that undergo segregation and independent assortment
121
Q

What is the law of segregation?

A

The two alleles for each gene separate during gamete formation

122
Q

What is the Law of independent assortment?

A

Alleles of genes on nonhomologous chromosomes assort independently during gamete production

123
Q

What is an organism’s sex?

A

An inherited phenotypic character determined by the presence or absence of chromosomes

124
Q

What is SRY

A

Sex- determining region of Y, gene on the Y chromosome responsible for the development of the testes.

125
Q

Do x chromosomes have genes for many characters unrelated to sex?

A

Yes

126
Q

A gene that is located on either sex chromosome is called a

A

sex-linked gene

127
Q

Genes on the Y chromosome are called

A

Y-linked genes

128
Q

Genes on the X chromosome are called ____ and follow specific patterns of inheritance

A

X-linked genes

129
Q

For a recessive X-linked trait to be expressed

A

A female needs two copies of the allele (homozygous)

A male needs only one copy of the allele (hemizygous)

130
Q

Xlinked recessive disorders are much more common in

A

males

131
Q

What type of disorders are caused by recessive alleles on the X chromosome?

A

Color blindness, Duchenne muscular dystrophy, hemophilia

132
Q

What is a linkage map?

A

A genetic map of a chromosome based on recombination frequencies.

133
Q

Distances between genes can be expressed as

A

map units (1 map unit= 1% recombination frequency)

134
Q

True or false: The farther apart 2 genes are the higher the probability a crossover will occur between them and the higher the recombination frequency

A

TRUE

135
Q

What is the max recombination frequency genes on the same chromosome can have?

A

50%

136
Q

When genes are far apart on the same chromosome they are

A

Physically linked, genetically unlinked, and behave as if found on different chromosomes

137
Q

Linkage maps can portray the order of genes along a chromosome but

A

does not accurately portray the precise location of these genes

138
Q

Linkage maps can portray the order of genes along a chromosome but

A

does not accurately portray the precise location of these genes

139
Q

Chromosomal banding helps geneticist develop

A

Cytogenic maps

140
Q

What is a cytogenic map?

A

Indicates the positions of genes with respect to chromosomal features

141
Q

Large-scale chromosomal alterations often lead to

A

Spontaneous abortions (miscarriages) or cause a variety of developmental disorders

142
Q

What is nondisjunction

A

Pairs of homologous chromosome do not separate normally during meiosis

143
Q

What is the result of nondisjunction?

A

One gamete receives two of the same type of chromosome and another gamete receives no copy

144
Q

Define aneuploidy

A

Result of fertilization of gametes in which nondisjunction occurred, offspring have an abnormal # of a particular chromosome

145
Q

What is a trisomic zygote?

A

Three copies of a particular chromosome

146
Q

What is a monosomic zygote?

A

Has only one copy of a particular chromosome

147
Q

Define polyploidy

A

An organism has more than 2 complete sets of chromosomes

148
Q

What are the 4 types of changes in chromosome structure?

A

Deletion
Duplication
Inversion
Translocation

149
Q

What is deletion?

A

A chromosomal unit is removed

150
Q

What is Duplication

A

it repeats a segment

151
Q

What is inversion

A

Reverses a segment within a chromosome

152
Q

What is a translocation

A

Moves a segment from one chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome

153
Q

What disorders are due to chromosomal alterations?

A 
Down syndrome
Kinefelter syndrome
Monosomy X
Cri du Chat
Chronic melogenous leukemia
154
Q

What causes down syndrome and how many children does it effect?

A
  • Is a trisomy 21 (three copies of chromosome 21)
  • It effects one out of every 700 children born in the US
  • Frequency of down syndrome increases with the age of the mother
155
Q

Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes produces thes aneuploid conditions

A

Klinefelter syndrome and Monosomy X

156
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome caused by?

A

The result of an extra chromosome in a male prducing an XXY individual

157
Q

What is Monosomy X?

A

Also called Turner Syndrome, produces sterile X0 Females, only known viable monosomy in humans

158
Q

What is Monosomy X?

A

Also called Turner Syndrome, produces sterile X0 Females, only known viable monosomy in humans

159
Q

What is Cri du chat?

A
  • “Cry of the cat”
  • Caused by deletion in chromosome 5
  • A child is mentally rettarded and has catlike cry, dies early
160
Q

What causes Chronic Myelogeneous leukemia?

A

Translocations of chromosomes

161
Q

The fusion of two gametes produces a zygote with how many diploid combinations?

A

70 trillion

162
Q

What causes Chronic Myelogeneous leukemia?

A

Translocations of chromosomes

163
Q

How can we tell the genotype of an individual with the dominant phenotype?

A

The testcross

164
Q

How did Mendel indentify his second law of inheritance?

A

Following two characters at the same time

165
Q

Crossing two true-breeding parents differing in two characters produces

A

Dihybrids

166
Q

What is a dihybrid cross?

A

Determines whether two characters are transmitted to offspring as a package or independently

167
Q

What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross?

A

9:3:3:1

168
Q

True or false: Mendel’s laws of segregation and independent assortment do not reflect the rules of probability

A

False

169
Q

Describe the multiplication rule

A

The probability that two or more independent events will occur together is the product of their individual probabilities

170
Q

Describe the rule of addition

A

The probability that any one of 2 or more excllusive events will occur is calculated by adding together their individual probabilities

171
Q

Inheritance of characters by a single gene may deviate from simple mendelian patterns when:

A
  1. Alleles are not completely dominant or recessive
  2. A gene has more than two alleles
  3. A gene produces multiple phenotypes
172
Q

What occurs when phenotypes of the herozygote and dominant homozygote are identical?

A

Complete dominance

173
Q

What is incomplete dominance

A

The phenotype of F1 hybrids is somewhere between the phenotypes of the two parental varieties

174
Q

What is codominance?

A

Two dominant alleles affect the phenotype in separate distinguishable ways

175
Q

Is hypercholesterolemia completely dominant?

A

No. It is incompletely dominant

176
Q

Is hypercholesterolemia completely dominant?

A

No. It is incompletely dominant

177
Q

Does a dominant allele subdue a recessive allele?

A

No

178
Q

Do alleles interact?

A

No

179
Q

What are alleles?

A

Variations in a gene’s nucleotide sequence

180
Q

True or false: The observed dominant recessive relationship of alleles depends on the level we examine the phenotype

A

True

181
Q

What is Tay-Sachs disease

A

Fatal

Dysfuntional enzyme causes an accumulation of lipids in the brain

182
Q

True or false: Dominant alleles are more common in populations than recessive alleles

A

False.

183
Q

True or false: Most genes do not exist in populations in more than two allelic forms

A

False

184
Q

What blood type is a universal donor?

A

O

185
Q

What blood type is a universal acceptor?

A

AB

186
Q

The immune system produces antibodies which may cause ___ when blood cells of a different type enter the body

A

Clotting

187
Q

What determines the positive or negative in regards to blood type

A

The Rhesus factor (RhD antigen) on the surface of red blood cells

188
Q

A person who does have the RhD antigen is

A

Positive

189
Q

A person who does not have the RhD antigen is

A

Negative

190
Q

Describe complete dominance of one allele

A

Heterozygous phenotype same as that of homozygous dominant

191
Q

Describe incomplete dominance of either allele

A

Heterozygous phenotype intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes

192
Q

Describe codominance

A

Both phenotypes are expressed in heterozygotes

193
Q

Describe multiple alleles

A

In the whole population some genes have more than two alleles

194
Q

Describe Pleiotropy

A

One gene is able to affect multiple phenotypic characters

195
Q

Describe Epistasis

A

The phenotypic expression of one gene affects that of another

196
Q

Describe Polygenic Influence

A

A single phenotypic character is affected by two or more genes

197
Q

If two parents have a trait and an offspring does not, the train can not be a

A

Recessive trait

198
Q

If two parents lack a trait but an offspring has it, the trait must be

A

Recessive

199
Q

If two parents lack a trait but an offspring has it, the trait must be

A

Recessive

200
Q

Describe Albinism. Is it a dominant or recessive disorder?

A

Lack of pigment in skin, hair and eyes

Recessive

201
Q

Describe cystic fibrosis. Is it a dominant or recessive disorder?

A

Excess mucus in lungs, increased susceptibility to infections
Results in defective or absent chloride transport channels
Recessive

202
Q

Describe Sickle Cell Disease (homozygous)

A

Sickled red blood cells caused by substitution of a single amino acid in the hemoglobin protein
Recessive

203
Q

Describe Achondroplasia

A

Dwarfism

Dominant Disorder

204
Q

Describe HUntington’s disease

A

Mental deterioration and uncontrollable movements

Dominant disorder

205
Q

Do recessively inherited disorders show up only in individuals homozygous for the allele?

A

Yes

206
Q

What are carriers?

A

Heterozygous individuals who carry the recessive allele but are pheotypically normal

207
Q

Can mutant alleles create a benefit? Give an example

A

Yes

Sickle cell kids are resistant to malaria

208
Q

What are the consequences of inbreeding?

A

Increased probability of the appearance of a genetic disease

209
Q

What is a multifactorial disorder?

A

Diseases with genetic and environment components

210
Q

What are the main examples of Multifactorial disorders?

A 
Heart disease
Cance
Diabetes
Alcoholism
Mental Illnesses
211
Q

What are the two types of fetal testing?

A

Amniocentesis and Chorionic villus sampling

212
Q

What is amniocentesis

A

Liquid that bathes fetus is removed and tested

213
Q

What is Chorionic Villus Sampling

A

CVS, sample of placenta is removed and tested.

BIOL 190 (4 decks)

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