EXAM 3 & 4

Question 1

To mitigate environmental injustices from the past and prevent further injustices in the future, planners must work closely with the communities that they serve. Which of the following is not a way for planners to collaborate with communities affected by environmental injustice?

a.
Publishing academic articles about environmental justice.

b.
Building coalitions and shared goals across communities.

c.
Bridging the impacted community with government resources.

d.
Offering technical expertise.

Answer 1

While planners do rely on current trends in the profession and in academia to adapt to the challenges of environmental injustice, publishing academic articles does not, on its own, improve the relationship between planners and the communities they serve. Instead, bringing together resources and coalition-building offers planners the opportunity to learn from and develop a better relationship with the community.

The correct answer is: Publishing academic articles about environmental justice.

Question 2

Of the following, which is the highest rung on Arnstein’s Ladder of Citizen Participation?

a.
Participation

b.
Consultation

c.
Partnership

d.
Therapy

Answer 2

The Arnstein Ladder of Citizen Participation steps are as follows (in ascending order): Manipulation, Therapy, Informing, Consultation, Placation, Partnership, Delegated Power, Citizen Control.

The correct answer is: Partnership

Question 3

The city you work for in California has been experiencing significant growth, and the planning commission has asked you to investigate ways of putting in rules that would phase development. You advise that the phasing of development should be contingent on performance standards being met. What legal case are you relying on?
Select one:

a.
Construction Industry Association of Sonoma County v. City of Petaluma

b.
Fred French Investing Company v. City of Los Angeles

c.
Associated Home Builders of Greater East Bay v. City of Livermore

d.
Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty

Answer 3

The city of Livermore enacted an ordinance prohibiting issuance of new residential building permits until local educational, sewage-disposal, and water-supply facilities complied with specified standards. The Associated Home Builders Associations of Greater Eastbay, Inc., Plaintiffs, brought suit to prevent the implementation of the ordinance on the grounds that the ordinance was unconstitutional. The California Supreme Court ruled that if a municipal land use ordinance is reasonably related to the public welfare, then the ordinance is a valid exercise of the police powers.

The correct answer is: Associated Home Builders of Greater East Bay v. City of Livermore

Question 4

Which of the following is not a component of a successful a charrette process?
Select one:

a.
The participation of elected officials

b.
A clearly defined problem

c.
The participation of a licensed architect

d.
Consistent participation

Answer 4

It is not necessary to have a licensed architect as part of a charrette process. Charrette processes do typically involve design professionals, citizens, public officials etc. However, it is not necessary to have a licensed architect.

The correct answer is: The participation of a licensed architect

Question 5

A charette is best used for…

a.
a visible design project that will impact people’s lives.

b.
a design project that does not require participatory planning to be successful.

c.
a planning project with a long-term design and implementation plan.

d.
a project with a primary “visionary” or sole leader.

Answer 5

A charrette is an intense, short-term workshop that strives to design a land use planning project or envision a solution to a planning problem. Charrettes are best for uniting multiple stakeholders in close collaboration on a distinct project that people will interact with often, such as a public park or transportation station or system.

The correct answer is: a visible design project that will impact people’s lives.

Question 6

Operations and long-term maintenance costs should be considered in which of the following budgeting techniques?
Select one:

a.
Zero-Based Budget

b.
Planning Programming Budget System

c.
Capital Improvement Plan

d.
Performance budgeting

Answer 6

The best answer is CIP because it can include operating costs and long-term maintenance costs. PPBS is about linking planning and budgeting and making the budget reflect objectives, strategies, and plans. Performance budgeting ties budgets to performance objectives. Zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base,” and every function within an organization is analyzed for its needs and costs.

The correct answer is: Capital Improvement Plan

Should be considered but not funded. Operations and long-term maintenance costs are usually considered separate from the CIP. While the CIP may include initial funding for the construction or acquisition of assets, ongoing operational and maintenance costs are generally part of a separate budget or funding stream. These ongoing expenses are crucial for the proper functioning and sustainability of the infrastructure or facilities developed through the CIP.

Question 7

As the Planning Director in Dallas, you just completed an update to your comprehensive plan and as a result are now updating the capital improvement program (CIP). The update to the CIP should include which of the following?
I. Land acquisitions
II. Police cars
III. Pavement repairs
IV. Concurrency
Select one:

a.
II and III

b.
I, II, and III

c.
I and IV

d.
I, II, III, and IV

Answer 7

According to “Planning and Urban Design Standards,” a capital improvements program (CIP) is typically a five- to seven-year plan for planning and funding public facilities and infrastructure. It includes both the construction of new facilities and the rehabilitation or replacement of existing capital facilities. A key element is the link between growth in a community and timing of capital investments—also known as concurrency.

The correct answer is: I and IV

Question 8

You are responsible for the citizen participation effort around a comprehensive planning process. You placed a required public notice in the local newspaper announcing a public meeting. Only two people attended the meeting. You have received flak from public officials for the failure to solicit public input. Which of the following would have been the most effective in generating citizen participation?

a.
Organize a two-day design charrette

b.
Develop a multi-faceted participation program including neighborhood meetings, an open house, and other opportunities

c.
Place a survey in the local newspaper

d.
Prepare a public service announcement that you distribute to local media outlets announcing the meeting

Answer 8

Developing a multi-faceted participation program including neighborhood meetings, an open house, and other opportunities would have been the most effective in generating citizen participation.

The correct answer is: Develop a multi-faceted participation program including neighborhood meetings, an open house, and other opportunities

Visioning needs a robust media presence.

Question 9

You recently read about a community in Colorado that used a meeting in a box technique where the public was provided with a box filled with discussion questions, popcorn, and paper and pencils to take notes. The idea was to have people get together with neighbors and then mail back their boxes. You want to undertake a similar approach, which will allow you to discuss traffic calming approaches with neighborhood residents in small informal discussions. Which of the following techniques best meets your needs:
Select one:

a.
Focus Group

b.
Plebiscite

c.
Interview

d.
Coffee Klatch

Answer 9

A coffee klatch is a small, informal discussion with a group of people in a private home with light refreshments. The planner typically has a short presentation followed by questions and discussion.

The correct answer is: Coffee Klatch

Question 10

Which of the following individuals is an ideal first contact to solicit resident input into community planning?

a.
a resident with a popular social media page

b.
a neighborhood improvement committee leader

c.
any resident; planners should canvass on the streets of their community

d.
a local journalist

Answer 10

A neighborhood political or social leader would have the most comprehensive circle of interested residents at their disposal. Journalistic and social media outreach are both important, but it is best to contact residents directly, and canvassing has a lower yield rate of interested residents than appealing to pre-formed groups. Unaffiliated residents can and should be contacted later in the outreach process.

The correct answer is: a neighborhood improvement committee leader

Question 11

You have been hired as a rural planner for a county government. One of the small towns in your jurisdiction has a population of 2,400 people and has indicated that they want to undertake a comprehensive plan. Which of the following elements would likely NOT be included in the comprehensive plan?
Select one:

a.
Housing conditions

b.
Transportation and circulation

c.
Land use

d.
Zoning

Answer 11

Zoning is a part of the implementation of a comprehensive plan, and although zoning ideally conforms with the plan, it is usually not included as part of the comprehensive plan. Land use, housing, and transportation/circulation are common subjects included in a comprehensive plan.

The correct answer is: Zoning

Question 12

Which of the following uses might require a conditional use permit?
Select one:

a.
Apartment building

b.
Warehouse

c.
Warehouses and apartment buildings

d.
Neither warehouse nor apartment buildings

Answer 12

Warehouses and apartment buildings may require a conditional use permit.

The correct answer is: Warehouses and apartment buildings

Question 13

You are evaluating a new district plan to determine the extent to which it meets the city’s connectivity goals. You calculate a connectivity index and write in your report:
Select one:

a.
The district plan has a high ratio, but could be reduced by reducing the number of dead-end and cul-de-sac streets.

b.
The district plan has a high ratio, indicating that the district is poorly connected.

c.
The district plan has a low ratio, indicating that the district is well connected.

d.
The district plan has a low ratio, but could be improved by reducing the number of dead-end and cul-de-sac streets.

Answer 13

A roadway connectivity index refers to the density of connections in a road network and the directness of links. A well-connected road has many short links and intersections, with minimal dead ends. As the connectivity increases, travelers have more route options and more direct travel between destinations. There are several methods to calculate ratios: the higher the ratio, the greater the connectivity.

The correct answer is: The district plan has a low ratio, but could be improved by reducing the number of dead-end and cul-de-sac streets.

Question 14

Which of the following is the best way to resolve a conflict in the community?
Select one:

a.
Delphi method

b.
Consensus building

c.
A referendum

d.
Mediation

Answer 14

Mediation can be effective when you are working with a large group, but for a community, consensus building is more effective. Consensus building (also called collaborative problem solving or collaboration) is essentially mediation of a conflict which involves many parties. While consensus building is probably most often used in environmental disputes, it is applicable to many other kinds of public policy disputes as well at the community, state, and international levels.

The correct answer is: Consensus building

Question 15

You have been asked by the City Manager to prepare the city’s Five-Year Financial Forecast to determine the city’s mid-term fiscal condition. You will use a cost-revenue analysis as the basis of your report. This analysis is based upon which of the following?
Select one:

a.
Anticipated increases in the tax base

b.
The effect of cost expenditures on the well-being of the city

c.
The costs of providing service and the benefits received by the citizens

d.
A set of economic assumptions for both sources of revenue and expected expenditures

Answer 15

Cost-revenue analysis takes into account anticipated revenues and expected expenditures both in capital and recurring sources.

The correct answer is: A set of economic assumptions for both sources of revenue and expected expenditures

Question 16

What is the annual rate of interest paid on a bond that a borrower pays to the bondholder?
Select one:

a.
Certificate of obligation rate

b.
Coupon rate

c.
General obligation rate

d.
Bond rate

Answer 16

The coupon rate is the rate of interest for bonds, notes, and other securities.

The correct answer is: Coupon rate

Question 17

As the planning director for a large city with a struggling downtown, you have decided to undertake a SmartCode planning process. Which of the following public participation tools would be the most appropriate?
Select one:

a.
Hold a public hearing

b.
Host a design charrette

c.
Create a downtown newsletter

d.
Organize a stakeholder meeting

Answer 17

Explanation: As part of the SmartCode procedures, a design charrette is held to determine the pedestrian sheds, transects, and design guidelines for the planning area. Other techniques could be useful, but the charrette is essential as part of the SmartCode process.

The correct answer is: Host a design charrette

Question 18

As the planner for the city of Growthville, the homebuilders association has requested a meeting with you to discuss the city’s development fees, which are being reviewed and could potentially be increased. You consult with the city attorney in advance of the meeting and review with her the planning department’s process of evaluating the fees. Based on the Dolan case, which of the following is the city attorney most likely to find legally defensible?
Select one:

a.
You divide the city into sewer districts and project the population growth and expected land uses for each district. You determine the expected amount and cost of on-site and off-site improvements needed to support growth. You determine the proportionate impact of each land use on the sewer system and allocate a portion of the cost on a per unit basis for residential and a per square foot basis for commercial uses.

b.
You determine the city-wide cost of sewer improvements needed based on the projected population growth. You decide to increase the residential impact fees by the amount needed to cover the cost of the sewer improvements.

c.
You determine the city-wide cost of sewer improvements needed based on the projected population growth. You determine that instead of paying fees, development projects should dedicate land to support the expansion of sewer infrastructure.

d.
You divide the city into sewer districts and project the population growth and expected land uses for each district. You determine the expected amount and cost of off-site improvements needed to support growth. You determine the proportionate impact of each land use on the sewer system and allocate a portion of the cost on a per unit basis for residential and a per square foot basis for commercial uses.

Answer 18

In the Dolan v. City of Tigard case, the court found that the exaction on a property must be roughly proportional in nature and extent to the impact of the proposed land development. Among the answer choices, the best answer is allocating the proportionate impact based on land use for the off-site improvements. Off-site improvements are ones for which only a portion of the impact would be created by individual development, while on-site improvements can typically be fully attributed to the development.

The correct answer is: You divide the city into sewer districts and project the population growth and expected land uses for each district. You determine the expected amount and cost of off-site improvements needed to support growth. You determine the proportionate impact of each land use on the sewer system and allocate a portion of the cost on a per unit basis for residential and a per square foot basis for commercial uses.

Question 19

Over time land was subdivided in Franklin County. The result is that a landowner became landlocked and has no access to her property. Which of the following would allow a landlocked property owner the ability to obtain an easement?
Select one:

a.
Inverse condemnation

b.
Access easement

c.
Squatting

d.
Necessity

Answer 19

According to the common law doctrine, an easement by necessity is used to allow a landlocked landowner to access a public roadway over another’s private land when no other relief is feasible.

The correct answer is: Necessity

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Ebenezer Howard’s Garden Cities?
Select one:

a.
They were surrounded by open space

b.
They were to include housing, retail, and industry

c.
They included only single-family housing

d.
They were connected by railways

Answer 20

Garden cities included a mix of housing types, included duplexes and multi-family units.

The correct answer is: They included only single-family housing

Question 21

Why do planners use economic forecasting?
Select one:

a.
To determine capital facilities needs

b.
To determine the budget for the next year

c.
To determine the demand for retail space

d.
To provide a basis for determining land use

Answer 21

Economic forecasting helps to determine the growth in jobs in the community, which translates to demand for commercial business land uses.

The correct answer is: To provide a basis for determining land use

Question 22

As the senior planner, you are leading a university master planning process. You have addressed many issues in the plan, but your biggest remaining challenge is that the campus steering committee does not want to talk about campus crime because they believe this is a political hot button. You are responsible for preparing a report updating the Board of Trustees on the plan progress. Which of the following would you include in your report?
Select one:

a.
Advise the Board that there is a conflict of interest they should be aware of

b.
Advise the Board that the plan is making good progress and that you will be seeking advice from the campus safety committee as to ways that the campus can continue to improve on safety.

c.
Advise the Board that unless they make the steering committee look more seriously at campus crime you will need to withdraw from overseeing the planning work.

d.
Advise the Board that there is a lack of public involvement

Answer 22

You should advise the Trustees that you are reaching out to all key stakeholder groups. With campus safety being just one element of the overall master plan

The correct answer is: Advise the Board that the plan is making good progress and that you will be seeking advice from the campus safety committee as to ways that the campus can continue to improve on safety.

Question 23

The economic development director and city council are excited that a chemical plant that will employ 300 people wants to move into the city. The plant wants to locate on a vacant parcel along the lake for access to a fresh water supply. The city’s comprehensive plan calls for the vacant land to remain as open space. The company files for a rezoning to industrial. As the current planning division director, you believe that the property should stay as a community amenity. The planning commission ignored your staff report and approved the rezoning. The surrounding neighborhood is now suing over the rezoning. You have been served and will be required to testify. What should you do?
Select one:

a.
Provide all public documents regarding the rezoning.

b.
Agree to testify in court regarding your staff report.

c.
Meet with the neighborhood group, along with the city attorney, to discuss their concerns.

d.
All of these choices are correct

Answer 23

You must provide public records. If called to court, you will need to testify regarding your staff report, and you can meet with the neighborhood group. The key is to limit discussion to what is in the public record and your staff report.

The correct answer is: All of these choices are correct

Question 24

For which of the following could the AICP Ethics Officer revoke a member’s certification, after following procedures outlined in the Code of Ethics?
Select one:

a.
A member fails to pay a traffic ticket and has a warrant out for their arrest

b.
A member was called before a court to testify in a court case

c.
A member knowingly infringed on the copyright of another person

d.
A member was involved in a traffic accident that results in the death of a pedestrian

Answer 24

Section E Discipline of Members in the AICP Code of Ethics states “Conduct covered by this section shall include, but not be limited to, a finding in a civil case that the member has engaged in defamation or similar unlawful action, has knowingly infringed the copyright or other intellectual property of another, or has engaged in perjury.”

The correct answer is: A member knowingly infringed on the copyright of another person

Question 25

For which of the following could the AICP Ethics Officer revoke a member’s certification, after following procedures outlined in the Code of Ethics? Select one: a. A member fails to pay a traffic ticket and has a warrant out for their arrest b. A member was called before a court to testify in a court case c. A member knowingly infringed on the copyright of another person d. A member was involved in a traffic accident that results in the death of a pedestrian

Answer 25

Section E Discipline of Members in the AICP Code of Ethics states “Conduct covered by this section shall include, but not be limited to, a finding in a civil case that the member has engaged in defamation or similar unlawful action, has knowingly infringed the copyright or other intellectual property of another, or has engaged in perjury.” The correct answer is: A member knowingly infringed on the copyright of another person

Question 26

You are working at the customer service counter completing paperwork. A developer stops in to discuss a preliminary plat that is being heard by the planning commission at its next meeting. You are responsible for the staff report for this agenda item. It’s 11:55 and the developer invites you to join him for lunch. Based on the AICP Code of Ethics, what should you do? Select one: a. Decline the invitation, letting the developer know that this would certainly be a conflict of interest. b. Use professional judgment c. Accept the invitation and allow the developer to pay for your lunch d. Decline the invitation, but agree to meet in the office through lunch.

Answer 26

Focus on the perceived conflict of interest. The AICP Code of Ethics states "We shall avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers." Eating lunch could be appropriate if there is a need to discuss the preliminary plat. The planner could for example say that there is a snack bar in the building and they can grab a sandwich and continue their discussion in the building. The correct answer is: Use professional judgment

Question 27

An AICP planner has been diligent in their conduct of their position with a Midwestern county. While driving in a county vehicle to a location for work related to a neighborhood plan, the planner takes their eyes off the road to adjust their stereo. This distraction leads to the planner crashing into a bicyclist and killing them. The planner lies to the Sheriff about how the accident happened. The planner is caught in the lie and is convicted of manslaughter. Which of the following would happen? Select one: a. Their AICP designation would be automatically suspended. b. They would face judicial action, but not action within AICP. c. There would be an investigation by the AICP Ethics Officer. d. The planner would be fired from their position.

Answer 27

Section D of the AICP Code of Ethics calls for automatic suspension of AICP designation upon conviction for a serious crime. The AICP Code states "For purposes of this Policy, the term 'serious crime' shall mean any crime that, in the judgment of the Ethics Committee or the Ethics Officer, involves 'alse swearing, misrepresentation, fraud, failure to file income tax returns or to pay tax, deceit, bribery, extortion, misappropriation, theft, or physical harm to another." The correct answer is: Their AICP designation would be automatically suspended.

Question 28

Which of the following does NOT constitute a conflict of interest, according to the AICP Code of Ethics? Select one: a. Providing private information about a case to an environmental group b. Accepting a bribe from a homebuilder c. Working for a developer who has a case before your employer d. Reviewing a rezoning case for a property your brother owns

Answer 28

While all of these answers are unethical, providing private information about a case to an environmental group does NOT constitute a conflict of interest according to the AICP Code of Ethics. The correct answer is: Providing private information about a case to an environmental group

Question 29

In which situation would fiscal impact analysis would be the most appropriate method to use? Select one: a. The city wants to determine the benefit of public infrastructure development b. The city wants to determine the cost of providing service to a new development c. The city wants to determine the benefit of employment generation d. The city wants to determine the cost of providing services to all residential development

Answer 29

Fiscal impact analysis calculates the total cost to the city of new development, as well as the tax revenue that is generated from the development. The correct answer is: The city wants to determine the cost of providing service to a new development

Question 30

What is the primary purpose of a fiscal impact analysis? Select one: a. To determine if a project will generate sufficient revenue to defray necessary public service costs b. To assess fiscal effects of new land uses c. To help jurisdictions determine if adequate sewer capacity exists for a new development d. To assess the amount of revenue needed to support the current level of service

Answer 30

If a particular development or plan will bring more in revenues than it will cost in services, it might help ease local financial burdens and allow the locality to improve services or cut taxes. Conversely, if a development or plan will require service costs that exceed revenues, it could increase pressure to raise taxes, find additional sources of funds, or curtail community services. It is important to understand the fiscal impact of a proposed development on public services. The correct answer is: To determine if a project will generate sufficient revenue to defray necessary public service costs Fiscal Impact Analysis= Cost-revenue analysis

Question 31

Which of the following flood zones does FEMA designate as a Special Flood Hazard Area? Select one: a. 200-year flood b. 100-year flood c. 300-year flood d. 500-year flood

Answer 31

FEMA Definition: Flood hazard areas identified on the Flood Insurance Rate Map are identified as an Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA). SFHAs are defined as areas that will be inundated by the flood event having a 1-percent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year. The 1-percent annual chance flood is also referred to as the base flood or 100-year flood. The correct answer is: 100-year flood

Question 32

Which of the following is true of Harland Bartholomew? Select one: a. 19th century planner in the U.K. b. Wrote the first comprehensive zoning ordinance c. Advocated for tenant’s rights in East Harlem d. Wrote a comprehensive plan for St. Louis

Answer 32

Harland Bartholomew had a long career and was responsible for preparing the comprehensive plans for communities across the country. The correct answer is: Wrote a comprehensive plan for St. Louis

Question 33

You are preparing to respond to an RFP (request for proposal) to hire a consultant to assist a county with its comprehensive plan. The budget is very tight for the project. You decide to submit a proposal that provides a core plan and then a variety of add-on options. Which of the following would best be considered as an add-on option rather than a part of the core plan? Select one: a. Historic Preservation b. Demographics c. Implementation Schedule d. Land Use Plan

Answer 33

Historic Preservation, while important, would most likely not be considered a core part of the plan. Land use, demographics, and implementation would all be viewed as essential parts of a comprehensive plan. The correct answer is: Historic Preservation

Question 34

Since the 1990s, your community has seen a steady increase in the number of homeless living in camps in your community. The mayor has asked you to form a task force to find a way to get the homeless off the streets before the next winter sets in. In talking with service providers, you learn that the following is one of the key reasons for an increase in homelessness over time: Select one: a. The state won’t mail benefits to people who do not have a permanent address. b. Federal repeal and cuts to programs that assist the poor, including the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program. c. A local manufacturer shut down, and the 100 people employed in the factory have suffered from long-term unemployment. d. Housing trusts established to build transitional housing have not been able to keep with the demand for housing.

Answer 34

The principal cause of the increase in homelessness were cuts in federal aid programs. The AFDC program was replaced with the Temporary Assistance to Needy Families. This program helps only a portion of the families that AFDC reached. The amount paid to persons receiving Supplemental Security Income (SSI) has not increased at a rate that keeps up with the cost of living. The SSI payment, which supports the disabled, is less than the average monthly rent for a studio apartment. The correct answer is: Federal repeal and cuts to programs that assist the poor, including the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program.

Question 35

The city’s current high-rise public housing is a mess. Residents do not want to live there because of high crime and a general state of disrepair. You have developed a plan to create mixed-income townhouse developments near the city's downtown that would accommodate the residents of the existing public housing. Which federal housing program would provide funds to implement this plan? Select one: a. Mortgage and loan insurance provided through the Federal Housing Administration b. HOPE VI c. Section 8 certificates d. HOME Investment Partnership Program

Answer 35

HOPE VI provides funds for physical improvements, management improvements, and social and community services to address public housing resident needs. All of the above are housing programs administered by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. The correct answer is: HOPE VI

Question 36

This housing reformer was active in the 19th century. Select one: a. Jacob Riis b. Jane Jacobs c. Jane Addams d. Robert Olmstead

Answer 36

In 1899, Jane Addams founded the Hull House in Chicago to provide housing to low-income families. The correct answer is: Jane Addams

Question 37

You are the planning director of a grass-roots regional organization that has received a grant from the county to develop a new bicycle corridor plan. Several well organized groups in the community are opposed to the plan as a waste of taxpayer dollars. They have appealed to the County Commission to terminate your plan. You should: Select one: a. Continue the plan as tasked and schedule additional meetings to identify and mitigate issues raised by the opposition. b. Call the commissioners with a new alternative that would require no public investment. c. Continue working on the plan with the confidence that opponentss have voiced their concern and still have avenues of redress through the public hearing process. d. Your role is to prepare the plan, not to deal with public opposition from individual groups. You inform the commissioners of their responsibilities.

Answer 37

Opposition should not be ignored. The best thing to do would be to continue working on the plan while at the same time receiving input from all groups and looking for ways to mitigate issues. It would not be appropriate to call commissioners directly or try to bury or offload opposition. The correct answer is: Continue the plan as tasked and schedule additional meetings to identify and mitigate issues raised by the opposition.

Question 38

Your planning commission is concerned that they do not have enough information to make good decisions in their review of site plans. They have asked you to consider modifying the application requirement to provide additional information. You recommend the following: Select one: a. The addition of an isometric view of the site plan b. A list of all potential tenants that could locate in the proposed project c. The addition of historical ownership information of the site d. A forecast of revenue for the site

Answer 38

An isometric view allows for a 3D view of the site plan, providing additional information for the planning commission to consider. The correct answer is: The addition of an isometric view of the site plan

Question 39

Your planning commission is concerned that they do not have enough information to make good decisions in their review of site plans. They have asked you to consider modifying the application requirement to provide additional information. You recommend the following: Select one: a. The addition of an isometric view of the site plan b. A list of all potential tenants that could locate in the proposed project c. The addition of historical ownership information of the site d. A forecast of revenue for the site

Answer 39

An isometric view allows for a 3D view of the site plan, providing additional information for the planning commission to consider. The correct answer is: The addition of an isometric view of the site plan

Question 40

Which management technique requires the agency to set clear, specific, and realistic objectives that can be prioritized and measured? Select one: a. MBO b. Delphi c. Critical path method d. MPO

Answer 40

Management by Objectives (MBO) is a process of agreeing upon objectives within an organization so that management and employees agree to the objectives and understand what they are. The Management By Objectives term was first popularized by Peter Drucker in 1954 in his book "The Practice of Management." The correct answer is: MBO

Question 41

Which of the following divisions would characterize a planning agency that is vertically integrated by subject area? Select one: a. Transportation, land use, housing b. Current planning, long range planning, sustainability c. Comprehensive planning, site plan review, zoning d. Current planning, regulations, information systems

Answer 41

Planning agencies might be vertically integrated by subject area (e.g., transportation, land use, housing), which is different from organizing by functional approach (e.g., planning, regulations, information systems, investment, policy). Organization by an agency’s legal status would separate legislative functions (e.g., planning, code writing) from quasi-judicial (e.g., regulatory) and enforcement (e.g., permit administration). The correct answer is: Transportation, land use, housing

Question 42

Which of the following statements about Low Income Housing Tax Credits (LIHTCs) is false? a. The maximum rent that can be charged in a unit funded by LIHTCs is a percentage of an area's median income. b. LIHTCs provide a dollar-for-dollar tax deduction for participants. c. Unit affordability must be maintained for at least a 15-year compliance period. d. The majority (90 percent) of affordable housing in the United States was funded by LIHTCs.

Answer 42

LIHTCs provide a dollar-for-dollar tax reduction in a taxpayer’s federal income tax. A tax deduction only provides a reduction in taxable income. The correct answer is: LIHTCs provide a dollar-for-dollar tax deduction for participants.

Question 43

What technique can be used to find the optimum design solution on a project? Select one: a. Zero Based Budget b. Program Evaluation and Review Technique c. Linear Programming d. Critical Path Programming

Answer 43

Linear programming can be used to find the optimum design solution on a project. The correct answer is: Linear Programming

Question 44

You are tasked with making a presentation on the state of the housing market in your town. You have data from the past year’s sales. As it happens, the local land bank sold many properties for a token $1 (well below market value) in a neighborhood stabilization effort. Which of the following would be the best statistical summary of the central tendency of the sales prices: Select one: a. the range b. the mean c. the median d. the model

Answer 44

Given that many properties were sold below market value, the distribution will be dominated by these low value sales and be skewed toward the low end. As a result, the mean will be affected by these outliers. Consequently, the median is a better measure of central tendency. The mode is irrelevant (the price at which most houses were sold) and the range is a measure of spread. The correct answer is: the median

Question 45

The Supreme Court in Nectow v. City of Cambridge dealt with which of the following issues? Select one: a. Zoning b. Free speech c. Eminent domain d. Taking

Answer 45

The issue in Nectow (1928) was whether the zoning ordinance was constitutional as applied to the Plaintiff’s land. The U.S. Supreme Court found that the zoning ordinance in question made no reasonable sense in placing the Plaintiff’s land in a residential district, reversing a lower court's decision. The correct answer is: Zoning

Question 46

An increasing number of developers have been seeking rezonings allowing for increased development. Given the development pressures, you want to understand how the public will “recapture” a reasonable share of the increased land value in the form of community benefits. Which of the following would be the best approach? Select one: a. Neighborhood based plans focused on evaluating appropriate land uses in each neighborhood b. Overlay Zoning c. Land value capture d. Neighborhood based review of development proposals

Answer 46

Land Value Capture is a method that helps finance public improvements by capturing some of the value that typically accrues to property located near such improvements. In Boston, land value capture is being used to fund infrastructure projects that counter the impacts of climate change. The correct answer is: Land value capture

Question 47

Your organization has been contracted to help determine community preferences regarding a new zoning reform effort. You have already conducted a mail survey, and the survey response rate was sufficient. However, while the survey provided generalized information, you need to gain more comprehensive understanding. Which of the following would be the most effective approach? Select one: a. Undertake a charette b. Interview neighborhood organizations c. Hold a public hearing d. Conduct a new citizen survey

Answer 47

Surveys are good for gaining a generalized understanding of community preferences. For a more comprehensive, in-depth understanding, interviewing neighborhood organizations would be a good approach. Public hearings are unlikely to provide more depth of understanding. Charrettes are aimed at intensive planning and design outcomes. The correct answer is: Interview neighborhood organizations

Question 48

Which of the following best exemplifies the regionalism movement as espoused by Geddes? Select one: a. Pruitt-Igoe b. Tennessee Valley Authority c. The White City d. Greenhills, OH

Answer 48

Geddes promoted regionals as a form of civic responsibility for the middle ground. It was a source of development to be managed from the center and the Tennessee Valley Authority touted grassroots democracy as it sought to promote regional development. The correct answer is: Tennessee Valley Authority

Question 49

You have been charged with overseeing an eminent domain and redevelopment project. You are in the process of sequencing events so that it is clear which activities need to occur in which sequence to ensure the success of the project and completion before October (when winter weather will set in). Which of the following project management techniques would be most effective in helping you complete this project saving the most time and resources? Select one: a. GANTT chart b. Critical Path Method c. PERT Network chart d. Linear Programming

Answer 49

The Program Evaluation and Review technique is a decision-making tool designed to achieve objectives in which time is a critical factor. This technique is most helpful when time expectations are significant. The correct answer is: PERT Network chart

Question 50

As you are beginning the comprehensive plan for the county, you are focused on analyzing demographic change. As the next step, you are preparing population projections. You are evaluating alternative methods for projecting populations. If you had information on the age distribution of the population over time, which of the following would be the most appropriate to consider using: Select one: a. Cohort Survival b. Linear c. Step Down d. Gompertz

Answer 50

The correct answer is: Cohort Survival

Question 51

You are organizing a public participatory event that disseminates information to local residents about the planning department’s newest venture—a revitalization of a historic downtown commercial district. Your meeting is composed of a technical presentation by members of the Department and a group Q and A. A transcript of the meeting is recorded and saved in an official record. This meeting is an example of a … a. public meeting b. public hearing c. educational event d. open house

Answer 51

A public hearing includes a technical presentation, group Q&A, and a formal transcript. A public meeting is less formal and delineated from other meetings than a public hearing and can take many forms. An open house is less structured and does not involve a formal presentation. Open houses can include a series of less formal presentations or information displays with one-on-one Q&As between members of the planning department and interested residents. An educational event also includes an informational display and a presentation by the planning department to educate the public about a specific topic, but because the goal is education rather than gauging public opinion, there is less dialogue between planners and residents. The correct answer is: public hearing

Question 52

When preparing for a contentious public meeting, planners should… a. allow community members to speak for as long as they see fit to build trust. b. cede the floor to community members whenever possible to ensure residents feel heard. c. accept questions via verbal communication only to avoid distraction during the meeting. d. personally invite advocates and vocal residents to the meeting to build goodwill.

Answer 52

Planners have a responsibility to build and maintain trust and goodwill in the communities they serve, but it is also important to keep public meetings controlled. The incorrect answers to this question risk derailing planning meetings, but the correct choice emphasizes the importance of community members without allowing them complete control of the meeting. The correct answer is: personally invite advocates and vocal residents to the meeting to build goodwill.

Question 53

What do facilitation and mediation have in common as methods for structuring public participation? a. The facilitator is often a trusted community member b. These methods have multiple stages c. These methods are often used to help resolve conflict outside of court d. A third party with no direct stake in the outcome facilitates the discussion

Answer 53

This choice is true of both mediation and facilitation, in which the facilitator has no stake in the outcome of the conflict. The other choices are specific to facilitation or mediation, but not both. The correct answer is: A third party with no direct stake in the outcome facilitates the discussion

Question 54

Why are public schools an important consideration when planning for equity? a. Schools are an important unit for community building. b. Neighborhood quality and real estate prices are often influenced by the quality of local schools. c. All of these are important considerations. d. School segregation is a rampant problem in the United States.

Answer 54

As highlighted by the APA’s Planning for Equity Policy Guide, all three choices are important planning considerations. Since 1988, intensely segregated schools (where less than 10 percent of students are white) have increased from 5.7 percent to 18.6 percent of all public schools The correct answer is: All of these are important considerations.

Question 55

Which of the following is not a feature of Radburn, New Jersey? Select one: a. It includes a mix of housing types b. Front doors open on to a central green space c. It includes a mix of commercial, residential, and park spaces. d. It is only accessible by car

Answer 55

Radburn was designed with the car in mind, but it has a regional rail transit station. The correct answer is: It is only accessible by car

Question 56

What is an analysis of the relationship between one or more variables to determine if the factors impact the dependent variable? Select one: a. Correlation b. Regression c. Range d. Standard Deviation

Answer 56

The correct answer is regression. A regression analysis examines the relationship between two or more variables [x] and [y]. For example, a score on the AICP exam is dependent on education, years experience, and number of hours studying. The correct answer is: Regression

Question 57

The Rural Resettlement Act resulted in which of the following : Select one: a. An increase in mortgages with low down payments b. Growth in mortgage backed securities c. An increase in agricultural education d. The establishment of multiple greenbelt cities

Answer 57

Roosevelt established the Rural Resettlement Administration with a goal of moving people off of agriculturally exhausted land and into greenbelt cities. The correct answer is: The establishment of multiple greenbelt cities

Question 58

Sample selection bias can occur when: Select one: a. The selection process is influenced by the availability of data. b. Simple random sampling c. Samples are small d. Two samples are drawn and only one of the samples is used

Answer 58

The selection process is critical to ensuring a statistically valid sample. For example, selecting a convenience sample based on the ease of the availability of data could result in sample selection bias. The correct answer is: The selection process is influenced by the availability of data.

Question 59

The city has been struggling since the economic downturn to fully fund public services. The city has created a task force to explore options for reducing costs. Of particular interest are opportunities to partner on shared services. Which of the following should you recommend as part of the task force report? Select one: a. Parks and green spaces b. Police or fire services c. Office space in the new village complex d. School recreational areas

Answer 59

Communities and schools have partnered to share school recreational facilities when school is not operating. School recreation areas maximizes the use of facilities and shares the cost of maintaining facilities. The correct answer is: School recreational areas

Question 60

What are some of the common ways that cities use Tax Increment Financing (TIF)? I. To fund capital improvements to jump-start development in a specific area. II. To retain existing businesses by investing in infrastructure upgrades or additional services in a district. III. To lower taxes for businesses and residents of a struggling community in perpetuity. IV. To subsidize public schools throughout the city. Select one: a. I, II, III, and IV b. I and IV c. I and II d. II and III

Answer 60

Tax Increment Financing is often used to support the funding of capital improvements in a specific area of a community. This is achieved through capturing the increase in tax value. The correct answer is: I and II

Question 61

As a transportation planner for the Metropolitan Planning Organization you are presenting to the region's leaders about the future of transportation. One of the mayors has asked you to talk about driverless cars. In your talk you believe it is most important to mention: Select one: a. Driverless vehicles are in the distant future and could easily be prohibited if a mayor doesn't want them. b. Driverless vehicles will need to be enabled by local public safety laws. c. The introduction of driverless vehicles will generate big data resulting in the need to upgrade information technology systems so that cities can better plan for and make upgrades to transportation systems. d. For driverless cars to become a reality in the region, cities will need to upgrade their transportation infrastructure to enable the use of the Internet of Things—i.e., for traffic control devices to communicate with driverless vehicles.

Answer 61

For driverless cars to operate effectively, they must be able to communicate with traffic control devices. For example, telling a traffic signal that the vehicle is approaching allows the traffic signal to change. The generation of big data is also a correct answer, and cities will need to upgrade their ICT systems, but the best answer is about traffic control devices. The correct answer is: For driverless cars to become a reality in the region, cities will need to upgrade their transportation infrastructure to enable the use of the Internet of Things—i.e., for traffic control devices to communicate with driverless vehicles.

Question 62

Following the U.S. Census Bureau's delineation of urban area boundaries, you are directed by your supervisor to challenge the delineation because of how it affects program eligibility and funding formulas. You respond to your supervisor that: I. Urban area boundaries do not impact funding formulas II. The Census Bureau does not have an appeal process III. The Census Bureau publishes criteria for delineating urban areas prior to each decennial census, and that is when comments are received IV. You will draft the appeal, which will then need to be approved by the County Board Select one: a. II only b. II and III c. IV only d. I only

Answer 62

Program eligibility and funding formulas can be impacted by urban and rural boundaries. However, the Census Bureau does not have an appeal process. Prior to each decennial census, the Census Bureau publishes in the Federal Register proposed criteria for delineating urban areas for public review and comment. The final criteria adopted for application with decennial census and other data to delineate urban areas reflects the comments received through the Federal Register comment process. The correct answer is: II and III

Question 63

What is UrbanSim? Select one: a. A motorized vehicle that people stand on to move b. A PlayStation game c. A simulation of urban forests d. A software program that simulates urban development

Answer 63

UrbanSim is a simulation modeling software that allows the ability to simulate the impacts of land use and transportation plans from a parcel to metropolitan area. The correct answer is: A software program that simulates urban development

Question 64

Which of the following is NOT true about vested rights? a. A nonconforming lot can be developed if the zoning changed after the creation of the lot. b. An existing zoning classification is a vested right. c. Once a building permit has been issued, there is a right to continue with the project regardless of changes in regulation. d. There is a vested right once a substantial financial investment has been made in the property.

Answer 64

This question is asking which is NOT true. There is not a vested right if a property has an existing zoning classification. The correct answer is: An existing zoning classification is a vested right. Vested rights typically refer to rights that have accrued to a property owner due to specific actions or circumstances, such as obtaining a building permit, making substantial investments, or having a nonconforming lot. However, an existing zoning classification itself might not necessarily be considered a vested right; rather, it provides the framework within which vested rights can potentially be established or affected.

Question 65

The visioning process allows for early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all inclusive citizen participation, and... Select one: a. A short-term planning mentality b. Fundraising c. Heavy media involvement d. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats analysis

Answer 65

Community visioning is a collaborative process of giving the people who live in a place the opportunity to have a say about what they want their community to be like in the future. Strong media involvement is an important part of this process. The correct answer is: Heavy media involvement

Question 66

The Warren County protests were the spark of which movement? a. grassroots urbanism b. Latino urbanism c. environmental justice d. Black urbanism

Answer 66

The environmental justice movement was launched into mainstream media attention in 1982, when predominantly Black residents of Warren County, North Carolina protested a state decision to dispose of toxic PCB waste near the county’s water supply. The over 500 arrests encouraged national efforts against racist siting practices. The correct answer is: environmental justice

Question 67

Which of the following is an example of a wicked problem? a. climate change b. All of these are examples of a wicked problem. c. street design d. homelessness

Answer 67

A wicked problem is defined as a problem with multiple stakeholders with conflicting interests and no easy, single solution. In all of the choices listed here, there exist multiple stakeholders with conflicting interests. In the case of street design, for example, there are pedestrians, drivers, public transit users and operators, storeowners, homeowners, and others who all have different goals. Street design, climate change, and homelessness are all issues with varied stakeholders and different interests. The correct answer is: All of these are examples of a wicked problem.

Question 68

A change to the text of a zoning ordinance is known as a: Select one: a. Zoning Map Amendment b. Variance c. Rezoning d. Zoning Text Amendment

Answer 68

Change to text is a zoning text amendment. A rezoning involves a zoning map amendment. The correct answer is: Zoning Text Amendment

Question 69

You are a planner working for a county and your County Board of Supervisors wants you to update the boundaries of urbanized areas within the county in 2025, between the decennial censuses. Which of the following statements should not be included in your response to the County Board? Select one: a. The Census Bureau will update the boundaries based on written request from the Board b. Census blocks are the building blocks for measuring population density c. Urbanized area boundaries can only be updated every 10 years d. Population estimates at the block scale are not possible between decennial censuses

Answer 69

The Census Bureau reviews and updates urbanized area and urban cluster boundaries every ten years, following the decennial census. Census blocks provide the "building blocks" for measuring population density and delineating each urban area. Because population estimates and American Community Survey data are not available at the census block-level, the Census Bureau does not possess a nationally consistent set of population data at the level of geographic detail needed to delineate urban areas between censuses. The correct answer is: The Census Bureau will update the boundaries based on written request from the Board

Question 70

Which of the following is an example of a U.S. Census Bureau household survey? Select one: a. Current Population Survey b. American Household Survey c. National Crime Victimization Survey d. All of the above

Answer 70

All of these are part of the top five household surveys. Also included is the American Community Survey and the National Health Interview Survey (https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/surveyhelp/list-of-surveys/household-surveys.html). The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 71

What statement is not true about Daniel Burnham? Select one: a. Burnham headed the McMillan Committee, which resurrected L'Enfant’s plan for Washington D.C. in the early 20th century. b. Daniel Burnham was Chief of construction for the World’s Columbian Exposition of 1909 c. Burnham’s Plan of Chicago was completed in 1909. d. Burnham completed City Beautiful plans for Cleveland and San Francisco.

Answer 71

The World’s Columbian Exposition, though headed by Burnham, was in 1893. The McMillan Committee, 1901, was headed by Burnham and charged with resurrecting L'Enfant’s plan for Washington D.C. Burnham was involved in a number of City Beautiful plans for major American cities, including Cleveland, San Francisco and Chicago. The Chicago Plan was completed in 1909. The correct answer is: Daniel Burnham was Chief of construction for the World’s Columbian Exposition of 1909

Question 72

What is downzoning? Select one: a. Reducing the number of zoning districts b. Reducing the intensity of zoning on a site c. Instituting an overlay zone d. None of the above

Answer 72

Downzoning reduces the intensity of zoning on a site. The correct answer is: Reducing the intensity of zoning on a site

Question 73

As part of the development review team, you are the lead planner reviewing a proposal to redevelop a 50-acre parcel into a single-family subdivision. As part of your review you are concerned that the site may have been used for toxic waste in the past. In your staff report you write that you are concerned that the site may be a: Select one: a. Blueway b. Locally Undesirable Land Use c. Greenfield d. Drosscape

Answer 73

In your staff report, you express your concern that the site may be a Drosscape. Drosscape is an urban design framework that examines urbanized regions as the product of past economic and industrial processes. The concept focuses on the redesign and adaptive reuse of “waste landscapes” within regions. The correct answer is: Drosscape

Question 74

A property owner plants some very tall trees in their yard that block sunlight to a neighboring yard. Under what circumstances could the neighbor with the blocked sunlight compel the neighbor with the tall trees to have their trees removed? Select one: a. If the neighbor is able to gain the support of the planning commission b. If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement c. If the neighbor secures enough votes from the planning commission d. If the tree-planting neighbor did not properly notify the neighboring property about their plan to plant tall trees

Answer 74

Private easements occur when a property owner sells an easement to an individual. A property owner who has granted a solar access easement to their neighbor may not be allowed to plant trees or construct buildings, either of which would block sunlight, next to the easement. The correct answer is: If the neighbor with blocked sunlight is able to obtain a solar access easement

Question 75

What is the name of a fund established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a golf course? Select one: A. revenue fund B. bond fund C. general fund D. enterprise fund

Answer 75

An enterprise fund is an account established to manage the revenues and expenditures of a self-sufficient activity such as a golf course, zoo, parking garage, minor league baseball park etc. From Washington State's Office of Financial Management: "Enterprise Funds account for any activity for which a fee is charged to external users for goods or services." -- so that would describe a golf course. "Special Revenue Funds account for the proceeds of specific revenue sources. The fund is used to record the proceeds from specific revenue sources for which fund usage is restricted." Note that a revenue bond is issued by a municipality and backed by a specific stream of revenue (like building a stadium). The correct answer is: enterprise fund

Question 76

Which of the following was most important for advancing environmental justice? Select one: a. Executive Order 12898 b. Beaches Environmental Assessment and Coastal Health Act c. Clean Water Act d. National Environmental Policy Act

Answer 76

Executive Order 12898 (https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-1994-02-16/html/94-3685.htm) stated that federal actions shall address environmental justice in minority and low-income populations. Every federal agency has as its mission to try to address environmental justice. The correct answer is: Executive Order 12898

Question 77

The metropolitan waste management landfill is making plans for a major expansion to handle the region’s waste management needs over the next 20 years. The City Manager has requested that you, as a planner, prepare a position paper that describes any environmental justice issues. Which of the following would be an environmental justice issue? Select one: a. Housing discrimination b. Discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance c. Discrimination according to race, religion, or income status in any program receiving state financial assistance d. Job discrimination

Answer 77

The correct answer is discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance. Title VI of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits intentional discrimination on the grounds of race, color, or national origin under any program receiving federal financial assistance. In 1994, President Clinton signed an Executive Order that directed all federal agencies to ensure that their policies and practices do not have disproportionate adverse environmental or health impacts on low-income or minority communities. The correct answer is: Discrimination in any program receiving federal financial assistance

Question 78

You have applied for a position with a state agency working in water resources planning. On your resume, you mentioned that you have experience working on a harbor management plan. In reality, you attended public meetings about a harbor plan In the interview you are asked to describe your experience with water resource planning. Which of the following would be best to say: Select one: a. I was an active participant in a water resource plan in my community learning about the key aspects of planning for the future of our harbor. b. I was part of the team that developed a harbor management plan in Plannersville. c. I led a harbor management planning process in Plannersville. d. I am interested in water resource management and have actively participated in water resource processes in the past.

Answer 78

The AICP Code of Ethics states “We shall not misstate our education, experience, training, or any other facts which are relevant to our professional qualifications.” This choice is clearer about your role in a planning process. The correct answer is: I was an active participant in a water resource plan in my community learning about the key aspects of planning for the future of our harbor.

Question 79

A planner against whom a charge of misconduct has been filed has all of the following duties except which of the following? Select one: a. The planner should maintain a dialogue with AICP. b. The planner should cooperate fully with the AICP Executive Director. c. The planner should ensure that all information that may be relevant to the charge is made available. d. The planner should quit his or her job.

Answer 79

Quitting his or her job is not one of the duties. The correct answer is: The planner should quit his or her job.

Question 80

The senior planner for a county is responsible for developing a public participation process for a county-wide plan. Thinking about the AICP Code of Ethics which of the following should you not consider? Select one: a. Contribute to the development of the planning profession b. Provide accurate information c. Consider how the public interest is determined through continuous and open debate d. Provide opportunities for participation

Answer 80

The correct answer is contribute to development of the planning profession. While this is part of the AICP Code of Ethics, it is not relevant to the development of a public participation process. This code citation is relative to the development of professional planners. This is the code citation that one would review before deciding it is not relevant in this case "We shall not accept an assignment from a client or employer to publicly advocate a position on a planning issue that is indistinguishably adverse to a position we publicly advocated for a previous client or employer within the past three years unless (1) we determine in good faith after consultation with other qualified professionals that our change of position will not cause present detriment to our previous client or employer, and (2) we make full written disclosure of the conflict to our current client or employer and receive written permission to proceed with the assignment." The correct answer is: Contribute to the development of the planning profession

Question 81

As part of the comprehensive plan, the staff created a goals-achievement matrix. It is now time to use the matrix. At what point in the process are you: Select one: a. Evaluation of alternatives b. Plan evaluation c. Goal setting d. Data collection

Answer 81

The Goals-Achievement Matrix can be used in plan evaluation to aid in seeing where implementation has been achieved and where revisions may be necessary. The correct answer is: Plan evaluation

Question 82

What were the main provisions of the 1949 Housing Act? Select one: a. Federal financing for slum clearance and subsidy for public housing b. Federal financing for slum clearance and increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance c. Federal and state financing for slum clearance d. Increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance and funding for public housing that was limited to 100,000 units

Answer 82

The main components of the National Housing Act of 1949 included federal financing for slum clearance programs associated with urban restoration projects in American cities (Title I), increased authorization for the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) mortgage insurance (Title II), and money to build more than 800,000 public houses. The correct answer is: Federal financing for slum clearance and increased authorization for FHA mortgage insurance

Question 83

You are the planner for a small but rapidly growing suburb. The council has directed you to implement a development impact fee ordinance. Which of the following would you do first? Select one: a. Consult with the city attorney on the text of the ordinance. b. Ask whether developers would support a development impact fee c. Determine how performance of the development impact fee would be measured d. Determine the infrastructure costs associated with new development using local data.

Answer 83

Development Impact Fees are controversial and will likely be opposed by developers. Before a development impact fee ordinance could be considered, planners would need to first determine what the costs associated with new development actually are. This would need to happen before consulting an attorney about the text of the ordinance, or determining how performance might be measured, and asking whether developers would support it. The correct answer is: Determine the infrastructure costs associated with new development using local data.

Question 84

Who designed Columbia, Maryland? Select one: a. James Rouse b. Daniel Burnham c. Frank Lloyd Wright d. Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr

Answer 84

James Rouse was the developer that conceived of Columbia, Maryland. Rouse strongly believed in the new cities movement that by proper design blight could be eliminated. The correct answer is: James Rouse

Question 85

A planner comes to you, the Planning Director of an agency with 20 employees, to make a complaint of sexual harassment against another employee in the department. What is the first thing you should do as the Planning Director? Select one: a. Review the section on sexual harassment in the Departmental Managers Rules and Procedures Manual and follow the instructions. b. Contact the Human Resources Department and ask for direction. c. Talk to the accused employee. d. Bring both employees into your office to discuss the allegation.

Answer 85

Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Title VII applies to employers with 15 or more employees, including state and local governments. Employers should have established procedures, including an effective complaint or grievance process, that specify how to take immediate and appropriate action when an employee complains. The correct answer is: Review the section on sexual harassment in the Departmental Managers Rules and Procedures Manual and follow the instructions.

Question 86

Which of the following characterizes the organization of a planning agency that is horizontally integrated and grouped by time frame? Select one: a. Transportation, land use, housing b. Management, current planning, advance planning c. Management, human resources, legal counsel d. Environment, human services, transportation

Answer 86

Planning agencies are often organized such that certain functions are grouped together within a department. A common approach is horizontal integration grouped by time frame: management (e.g., human resources, board staffing, information technology); current planning (e.g., permitting, environmental assessments, project management); and advance or long-range planning (e.g., strategic plans and master/comprehensive/general plans). The correct answer is: Management, current planning, advance planning

Question 87

What is a metropolitan statistical area? Select one: a. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked geographically b. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked physically c. A census designated place that includes a small city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked physically d. A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically

Answer 87

A Metropolitan statistical area is a census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically. The correct answer is: A census designated place that includes a central city plus adjacent communities to which it is linked economically

Question 88

Over 82% of Americans now live in urban areas. Which is an untrue statement about the urbanization of the US? Select one: a. Young professionals and Baby Boomers are the key populations moving into cities b. The Western U.S. is the most urbanized part of the country today c. About one-fifth of US states still have a majority rural population d. Net migration, rather than higher birth rates, is driving the growth of urban areas

Answer 88

Only 4 states have a majority rural population: Maine, Vermont, West Virginia and Mississippi The correct answer is: About one-fifth of US states still have a majority rural population

Question 89

What did the Indian Reorganization Act provide for? I. Designation of reservations for Native Americans II. Organization of Native Americans residing on reservations III. Adoption of constitutions for Native Americans living on reservations IV. Legalization of gaming on reservation properties Select one: a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. I, II, III, and IV

Answer 89

Organization of Native Americans and adoption of constitutions. The 1934 Act allowed Native Americans to adopt a constitution and organize for their common welfare. The correct answer is: II and III only

Question 90

You have been working with a coalition of nonprofits, Centers for Disease Control and the City to develop a program to bring new business development into low income neighborhoods on the east side of the city. The coalition is focused on fostering community capitalism, having for-profit businesses invest in job creation in low income neighborhoods. The coalition has determined the best opportunity to stimulate business development is through: Select one: a. New Markets Tax Credit Program b. Forming a local business association c. Community Development Corporation d. Pursuing state and federal grant opportunities

Answer 90

The New Markets Tax Credit Program spurs business development by providing tax credit incentives to investors for equity investments in Community Development Entities. The Community Development Entities then invest in development in low-income communities. The correct answer is: New Markets Tax Credit Program

Question 91

What type of evaluation assesses change resulting from community engagement, such as change in the way people engage with each other and change resulting from their engagement? a. Ripple Effect Mapping (REM) b. None of these are the correct choice. c. Process Evaluation d. Outcome evaluation

Answer 91

There are three evaluation design options. Outcome evaluation might involve collecting individual or community level changes in how people engage with each other. Process evaluation involves collecting data in the planning and implementation phases and are done at the beginning and throughout the engagement process. Ripple Effect Mapping is a method used in evaluation to engage key stakeholders in assessing the impact of community engagement. The correct answer is: Outcome evaluation

Question 92

The benefits of a participatory approach include: I. Promoting buy-in to the evaluation II. Empowering participants as it facilitates building evaluation capacity within the community III. Collecting key data around community engagement IV. Creating space to obtain input from all participants a. II and III b. I, II, and IV c. All of these are benefits of a participatory approach. d. I and IV

Answer 92

While collecting data is an important method of evaluating the participatory approach, it is not a benefit of the participatory approach overall. The correct answer is: I, II, and IV

Question 93

The benefits of a participatory approach include: I. Promoting buy-in to the evaluation II. Empowering participants as it facilitates building evaluation capacity within the community III. Collecting key data around community engagement IV. Creating space to obtain input from all participants a. II and III b. I, II, and IV c. All of these are benefits of a participatory approach. d. I and IV

Answer 93

While collecting data is an important method of evaluating the participatory approach, it is not a benefit of the participatory approach overall. The correct answer is: I, II, and IV

Question 94

Which of the following is a financial projection that includes an income statement for a real estate project that shows the capital cost, operating revenue and expenses, and return on investment for one or more years? Select one: a. Financial feasibility analysis b. Pro forma c. Capital improvement program d. Capital budget

Answer 94

Pro forma is the best answer. A Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is a plan to fund infrastructure and building improvements over a fixed period of several years. A capital budget is a budget for large expenses or investments. A financial feasibility analysis uses project costs and revenue forecasts to evaluate the overall financial feasibility of a project, but it is not specifically about real estate. The correct answer is: Pro forma

Question 95

As the new director of planning you are reviewing the management of the department. As one example, you want to document the department’s progress in implementing the city’s comprehensive plan. Which of the following would be the most appropriate to use? Select one: a. Goals Achievement Matrix b. A program monitoring system c. Linear Programming d. GANTT Chart

Answer 95

A program monitoring system documents progress, collects feedback and allows for plan revisions as needed. The correct answer is: A program monitoring system

Question 96

You are charged with redeveloping a 25-acre former public housing site into a office park. You need to conduct a fiscal analysis that estimates the average costs of the proposed office development. This is known as: Select one: a. Proportional Valuation Method b. Employment Anticipation Method c. Service Standard Method d. Case Study Method

Answer 96

A fiscal analysis that estimates the average costs of the proposed office development is known as the Proportional Valuation Method. The proportional valuation method examines increases in community revenues and expenditures related to development. Specific expenditures and revenues are allocated to land uses. Costs and revenues are allocated to residential, commercial and industrial land uses in proportion to the share each represents of the total property base as reflected in property value. After costs and revenues are allocated, a current cost per acre by land use type is estimated and this is then applied to the development. The correct answer is: Proportional Valuation Method

Question 97

Which of the following is a feature of Radburn, New Jersey? Select one: a. It was originally designed for 25,000 people and it did not include mixed uses b. It was designed by Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr., and it was planned for 20,000 residents c. It was originally designed for 30,000 people and it called for a mix of uses d. It was designed as a suburb of New York and construction was completed in 1920.

Answer 97

Radburn had a mix of uses and was designed by Clarence Stein and Henry Wright based on the concept of the garden city. Construction began in 1929. The correct answer is: It was originally designed for 30,000 people and it called for a mix of uses

Question 98

The range is a proper summary of the spread in the distribution of the following types of data : (1) nominal; (2) ordinal; (3) interval; (4) ratio: Select one: a. (1) and (2) b. (2), (3) and (4) c. (3) and (4) d. all four

Answer 98

The range is only appropriate when the intervals between data points are meaningful, which is only the case for interval and ratio data. The correct answer is: (3) and (4)

Question 99

The City is considering several different interventions to prevent foreclosures. They want to understand the degree to which a combination of one-time grants to homeowners to catch up on mortgage payments, placing a temporary three year freeze on property taxes, and homeowner counseling are working and whether they are reducing the foreclosure rate among those they are helping. Which of the following is the best statistical technique to understand this relationship? Select one: a. Hedonic Model b. Z-Test c. T-Test d. Regression Analysis

Answer 99

A regression analysis would help to understand the degree of influence of these programs. The correct answer is: Regression Analysis

Question 100

What method is used in evaluation to engage key stakeholders in assessing the impact of community engagement? a. Outcome evaluation b. Ripple Effect Mapping (REM) c. None of these choices are correct. d. Process evaluation

Answer 100

Ripple Effect Mapping (REM) is when participants look back over a period of time and create a visual map of direct or indirect impacts of community engagement. The correct answer is: Ripple Effect Mapping (REM)

Question 101

In the rational planning model, planners attempt to solve problems scientifically. Why is this critiqued? Select one: a. It does not consider what people actually want, and it is often not realistic cost-wise b. It does not consider costs in a realistic way c. It does not consider what people actually want, and it does not evaluate alternatives d. It does not evaluate the means against the ends

Answer 101

The rational planning model (such as Banfield’s) has been critiqued for failing to consider community desires (and inputs), and for generating unrealistic alternatives in terms of expected cost. It does evaluate alternatives and means against ends. The correct answer is: It does not consider what people actually want, and it is often not realistic cost-wise

Question 102

As part of a safe routes to school assessment, a walking school bus was formed to walk to the school. As the planner participating in the walk you find that the students are required to walk along an arterial road for a portion of the route. As you walk along the arterial you find that there are 12 curb cuts and that cars frequently protrude into the crossing area. Which of the following would be the best solution to creating a safer pedestrian route. Select one: a. Reduce speed limits to slow cars b. Extend the sidewalk to allow for improved pedestrian safety. c. Improve the crosswalks by installing a pedestrian crossing light to stop oncoming traffic. d. Improve the crosswalks by adding striping to clearly delineate the area where pedestrians cross

Answer 102

Because the properties are individually owned and already developed, this limits the ability to implement changes internal to the development. The best answer is improving the crosswalks by adding striping. The correct answer is: Improve the crosswalks by adding striping to clearly delineate the area where pedestrians cross

Question 103

Saul Alinsky was associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Consensus Building b. Advocacy Planning c. Incremental Planning d. Community Organizing

Answer 103

Saul Alinsky was a community organizer in Chicago that promoted non-violent protest. The correct answer is: Community Organizing

Question 104

A new master-planned casino and resort development is planned in a wetland area of the county which fronts along a coastal bay. The project will require filling a portion of the wetland areas near some of the coastal estuaries that will be incorporated into the development. Considerable land will be cleared for the construction of the casino, hotel, and condominiums. Local environmental groups have raised concerns about whether the project will impact an endangered frog habitat. Which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Under the Environmental Protection Agency guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit, it may presume that other practical alternatives are available to the landowner unless it receives compelling proof to the contrary. b. If the appropriate representative of the state coastal zone management program that qualifies under the federal Coastal Zone Management Act objects to the project, the Army Corps may not issue a section 404 permit. c. The developer may be able to qualify an incidental-take permit (ITP), which requires the developer to prepare a habitat conservation plan (HCP) that minimizes and mitigates the take to the maximum extent possible. The County can protest the plan and prevent the issuance of a permit. d. If an environmental impact statement is prepared for the project under the National Environmental Policy Act, and the study finds that adverse environmental impacts will occur, any federal permit that applies to the project must be withheld.

Answer 104

Section 404 of the Clean Water Act (CWA) establishes a program to regulate the discharge of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States, including wetlands. The basic premise of the program is that no discharge of dredged or fill material may be permitted if: (1) a practicable alternative exists that is less damaging to the aquatic environment or (2) the nation’s waters would be significantly degraded. The correct answer is: Under the Environmental Protection Agency guidelines that the Army Corps administers when considering whether to issue a section 404 permit, it may presume that other practical alternatives are available to the landowner unless it receives compelling proof to the contrary.

Question 105

The technique that allocates a projected employment expansion to smaller geographic areas is known as which of the following? Select one: a. Location quotient b. Cohort survival c. Shift-share d. Input-output

Answer 105

Shift-share. The shift-share technique allocates a portion of the projected expansion to sub-regions or population centers based on the center's present share of the employment. The correct answer is: Shift-share

Question 106

Which of the following would most likely not be required as part of a site plan review application? Select one: a. List of endangered species in the area b. List of landscaping materials used on the site c. Map including ownership information within a given radius d. Location map for the site

Answer 106

The requirements for site plan review vary by jurisdiction, but typically require things like a location map, plot plan, a topographic map, building elevations, and a landscape plan (including a list of landscaping materials). Because of notification requirements in many jurisdictions, it would not be unusual for the application to require a map showing ownership information within a given radius, along with the names and addresses of all property owners and tenants within the radius. The correct answer is: List of endangered species in the area

Question 107

What of the following subjects were included in the 1928 Standard City Planning Enabling Act? I. Provision for adoption of a master street plan II. Provision for approval of all public improvements by the planning commission III. Control of private subdivision of land IV. Provision for the establishment of a regional planning commission and a regional plan Select one: a. I, III and IV only b. III only c. I, II, III and IV d. I and II only

Answer 107

The Standard City Planning Enabling Act (SCPEA) was published in 1928. The SCPEA covered six subjects: 1) the organization and power of the planning commission, which was directed to prepare and adopt a "master plan"; 2) the content of the master plan for the physical development of the territory; 3) provision for adoption of a master street plan by the governing body; 4) provision for approval of all public improvements by the planning commission; 5) control of private subdivision of land; and 6) provision for the establishment of a regional planning commission and a regional plan The correct answer is: I, II, III and IV

Question 108

Your community has seen significant change in housing values with some neighborhoods seeing double digit growth in housing values, while others have begun to see declines in values. You want to undertake a survey of residents to determine whether household income of existing residents is related to the housing value change. Which of the following would be the most appropriate sampling technique? Select one: a. Stratified Sample b. Bonus Sample c. Cluster Sample d. Random

Answer 108

A stratified sample has the population divided into strata according to variables that are thought to be related to the variables of interest. Then a sample is taken from every stratum. This is intended to reduce sampling error because the strata are related to the variables of interest –– in this case, housing values. In a cluster sample, the population is divided into clusters and a sample of the clusters is taken, but only some of the clusters are taken. This tends to increase sampling error because it is possible for clusters to be similar; for example, in this case, if the clusters were neighborhoods. A random sample would randomly select addresses across the community for inclusion in the survey. This can lead to sampling error as you may not get a representative sample. The correct answer is: Stratified Sample

Question 109

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the suburbanization that started after World War II? Select one: a. Interstate highways b. Federal housing programs c. Mortgage deduction d. Telecommuting

Answer 109

Telecommuting arose well after World War II, while federal housing programs and the interstate highway system enabled suburbanization The correct answer is: Telecommuting

Question 110

As a planner in a residential suburb with residents who principally work in a nearby city, you conduct a citizen satisfaction survey. While the community gave high marks on infrastructure and safety, the number one complaint from the residents is that there is nothing to do in the community. You initiate a committee to begin working on a plan to address: Select one: a. Schools b. Parks c. Economic Development d. Third Places

Answer 110

Third places, sometimes referred to as third spaces) are the social spaces in between where people live (the first place) and where people work (the second place). These social spaces can include parks, cafes, museums and other types of locations in which people enjoy spending time as a community. The correct answer is: Third Places

Question 111

You are responsible for developing a Fair Housing Equity Assessment. During a focus group at a homeless shelter you hear from a family who describes how they had their application for a lease of a rental unit denied and that the reason the landlord gave is that he doesn't want people like them in his complex. Which of the following would be the best response? A. Advise all focus group participants that housing discrimination is prohibited under Title VI of the Civil Rights Act and share how they can file a complaint with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. B. Offer to speak to the family personally afterwards. Take down their information and then make a call to the local U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development office to file a complaint and provide information on the family. C. Ask others in the focus group if they have had a similar experience. D. Explain that landlords have the right to choose who they want to live at their property and encourage the family to connect with a social service agency that assists in providing housing. Select one: a.A b.B c.C d.D

Answer 111

Answers A, B, and C could all be acceptable approaches. Answer A provides the clearest information to participants on housing discrimination. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color or national origin in all U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development assisted programs. Any person who believes they have been a victim of housing discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin in a program receiving U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development assistance may file a complaint with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development as part of Title VI. The correct answer is: A

Question 112

An area neighborhood has come to your office to present you with a petition demanding that something be done to reduce the cut-through traffic on a neighborhood street. You invite the residents to a conference room to discuss their concerns and options for reducing cut through-traffic. Which of the following would be the most effective method for reducing the number of vehicles on the street? Select one: a. Post no cut-through traffic signs b. Install speed tables c. Reduce the speed limit d. Partially close the street

Answer 112

The correct answer is to partially close the street. All of the above are methods of traffic calming. A partial closure, which changes the traffic from two-way to one-way at a point in the road, would limit the traffic to locals only. The correct answer is: Partially close the street

Question 113

Urban design guidelines usually don’t include: Select one: a.Building materials b.Landscaping c.First floor height d.Parking ratios

Answer 113

Land use and parking ratios are managed by zoning ordinances. Design guidelines regulate physical space and the elements within it, which could include building materials, landscaping, and floor height. The correct answer is: Parking ratios

Question 114

You are the director of planning responsible for facilitating a visioning process. You and the rest of the staff are working with a citizens' committee to determine how to evaluate the outcomes of the vision. Which of the following would NOT be an example of a performance standard? Select one: a. Setting a goal of improving open space b. Setting the number of new neighborhood organizations to be created to assist the city in policy evaluation c. The adoption of an amendment to the zoning ordinance allowing transit-oriented development d. Setting a target number of new housing units to be built within the center of the city

Answer 114

Setting a goal of improving open space is not a performance standard. The correct answer is: Setting a goal of improving open space

Question 115

Which of the following best describes a visual preference survey? a. It is a technique that can be used to assist citizens in evaluating physical images of natural and built environments. b. It is an informal approach to gathering input in the initial stages of a project, or in trying to determine goals. c. It is a structured process of public participation with the intent of coming to a consensus decision. d. All of these are elements of a visual preference survey.

Answer 115

A visual preference survey asks citizens to view and evaluate a wide variety of pictures depicting houses, sites, building styles, streetscapes, etc. The correct answer is: It is a technique that can be used to assist citizens in evaluating physical images of natural and built environments.

Question 116

The city is rapidly growing and the capacity for the current water treatment plant is nearing capacity. You are on a team responsible for siting a second treatment plant. In your analysis of potential locations you consider: I. Adjacent land uses II. Topography III. Adjacency to a water source IV. Population density Select one: a. II and III b. All of these are correct c. II, III, and IV d. I, II, and III

Answer 116

Topography, adjacent land uses and how close a water source are would all be relevant factors in siting of a water treatment plant. Population density is not a critical factor, the number of people to be served would be the relevant factor. The correct answer is: I, II, and III