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Pathopharmacology Exam 1 Review > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

mature bone cells

A

osteocytes

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2
Q

cell that builds bone and is stimulated by calcitonin

A

Osteoblast

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3
Q

cell that is stimulated by the parathyroid hormone and consumes bone (resorbs)

A

Osteoclast

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4
Q

This is released to initiate muscle contraction

A

Acetylcholine

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5
Q

breaks down acetylcholine

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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6
Q

This directly controls contraction of muscles

A

Calcium

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7
Q

causes contractions or spasms of muscle

A

Hypocalcemia

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8
Q

pain causes by reduced blood flow

A

ischemic

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9
Q

connects muscle to bone and has little blood supply

A

Tendons

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10
Q

connects bone to bone and has little blood supply

A

Ligaments

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11
Q

immovable joints

A

Synarthroses (skull)

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12
Q

slightly movable joints

A

Amphiarthroses (ribs, sternum, symphysis pubis)

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13
Q

freely movable joints

A

Diarthroses (shoulder, knee, elbow)

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14
Q

fluid filled sacs located between tendons and ligaments. provides extra cushioning in the joint

A

Bursae

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15
Q

Piece of cartilage found where two bones meet (joint space)

A

Meniscus

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16
Q

diagnostic test that inserts a lens into the joint

A

Arthroscopy

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17
Q

Measures bone density

Diagnostic test for osteoporosis

A

Dexa Scan

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18
Q

Differentiate muscle disorders from neurological disorders

A

Electromyograms (EMG’s)

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19
Q

bone is broken and forms two separate pieces

A

complete break

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20
Q

partially broken bone

A

incomplete break

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21
Q

bone break that breaks open skin

A

open

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22
Q

occurs in the soft bones of children
shaft of bone is bent
tearing on one side but not through the bone

A

Greenstick fracture

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23
Q

clot forms after bleeding from broken blood vessels

basis for fibrin network for granulation tissue to grow

A

Hematoma

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24
Q

inflammatory response to a fracture, phagocytes remove debris

A

Granulation Tissue

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25
Q

Chondroblasts form new cartilage
preliminary bridge repair in bone
not strong enough to bare weight

A

Procallus

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26
Q

Osteoblast activity whereby damaged bone is replaced by bone not scar tissue

A

Bony Callus

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27
Q

pathophysiology of a fracture

A 
Hematoma
Granulation tussue
Procallus
Bony Callus
Remodeling
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28
Q

Factors that affect healing of bones

A 
Amount of damage
Approximation of bone ends
Age
Circulatory issues
Diabetes
Nutritional deficits
Secondary problems - infection
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29
Q

Pulls bone ends further apart and can cause more soft tissue damage and bleeding and inflammation

A

Muscle Spasms

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30
Q

Results of edema during first 48 hours after trauma and casting

A

Ischemia

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31
Q

Occurs with crush injuries such as car accidents. Occurs with more extensive inflammation.

A

Compartment Syndrome

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32
Q

Occurs after fatty bone marrow escapes from bone marrow into veins during first week. Most common with pelvis and femur fractures.

A

Fat Emboli

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33
Q

medications for bone pain

A

NSAIDS

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34
Q

Reduction of the fracture using pressure and traction

A

closed

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35
Q

Reduction of the fracture using pins, plates, screws

A

open

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36
Q

Separation of two bones at a joint with loss of contact between the articulating bone surfaces

A

dislocation

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37
Q

Tear in a ligament

A

Sprain

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38
Q

Tear in tendons

A

Strain

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39
Q

complete separation from the bone

A

Avulsion

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40
Q

RICE

A

Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation

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41
Q

type of damage from severe trauma or tearing of periosteum

A

Nerve Damage

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42
Q

what causes a failure to heal

A

non-union

deformity- resulted from bone not being stabilized

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43
Q

fracture of epiphyseal plate

A

stunted growth

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44
Q

signs and symptoms of injury

A

swelling, tenderness, altered sensation (depending on involvement of nerves)

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45
Q

implications of surgery for third degree muscle tears

A

scar tissue will form

decreased flexibility and strength.

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46
Q

Causes of Osteoporosis

A 
Age
Menopause
Decreased mobility
Hormonal factors
Deficits of calcium, vitamin D, or protein
cigarette smoking
Excessive caffeine
Asiana nd caucasian ethnicity
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47
Q

Signs and symptoms of Osteoporosis

A

Compression fractures
Spontaneous fractures
Abnormal curvature of spine- Kyphosis + Scoliosis

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48
Q

metabolic bone disorder characterized by decreased bone mass and density. Bone reabsorption exceeds bone formation.

A

Osteoporosis

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49
Q

Treatments of Osteoporosis

A

Dietary supplements- Vit. D, calcium and protein.
Fluoride supplements
Weight bearing activity
Kyphosis and Scoliosis surgery

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50
Q

Bisphosphonates have what common suffix?

A

-dronate

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51
Q

Medication given to prevent and treat osteoporosis. Works by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, thus preventing bone loss.

A

Bisphosphonates

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52
Q

Implications of Bisphosphonates

A

Esophagitis if not taken correctly

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53
Q

How to administer Bisphosphonates

A

30 minutes before eating, full glass of water
Patients need to be sitting or standing 30 mins after administration
Nothing by mouth other than water for the next 30 mins

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54
Q

Contraindications of Bisphosphonates

A

Esophageal strictures and disorders
Hypocalcemia
Patients unable to sit or stand for 30 minutes

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55
Q

Interactions of Bisphosphonates

A

Calcium supplements or diary products cannot be given within 30 minutes because it will decrease adsorption

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56
Q

SERMs have what common suffix?

A

-oxifen or -oxifene

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57
Q

Adverse effects of SERMs

A

Endometrial cancer
Pulmonary Emboli
Deep vein thrombosis
hot flashes

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58
Q

Med that increases the risk of endometrial cancer and blocks access to estrogen receptors in breast tissue.

A

SERMs

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59
Q

Med that stimulates estrogen receptors on bone and increases bone density. Used to treat Osteoporosis. Decreases bone loss. Decreases bone resorption.

A

SERMs

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60
Q

SERMs contraindications

A

pregnant/breastfeeding

current or past history of DVT

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61
Q

Special instructions to patients taking SERMs

A

Medication will need to be discontinued 72 hours before prolonged immobility such as surgery

Consume adequate amounts of vitamin D and calcium

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62
Q

hormone that acts on bone to decrease osteoclast activity. used to treat osteoporosis.

A

Calcitonin

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63
Q

Adverse effects of calcitonin

A

hypersensitivity or anaphylactic reaction to fish

hypocalcemia

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64
Q

only drug on the market that stimulates bone formation and activates osteoblasts

A

teriparatide (Forteo)

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65
Q

side effects of hypercalcemia

A

nausea and vomiting
constipation
polyuria
depression

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66
Q

adverse effects of calcium supplements

A

hypercalcemia

kidney stones

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67
Q

Patient instructions with calcium supplements

A

call with hypercalcemia
increase fluids, fiber and activity
do not take with other medications

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68
Q

Cause of osteomyelitis

A

placement of hardware

infection somewhere in the body

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69
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of muscles and bone

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70
Q

Disease characterized by the degeneration of skeletal muscle over time.

A

Muscular Dystrophy

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71
Q

most common form of muscular dystrophy that affects young boys

A

Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy

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72
Q

Signs and symptoms of Duchennes Muscular Dystrophy

A

motor weakness and regression
waddling gait, weakness in climbing steps
Gowers maneuver

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73
Q

Tests to determine muscular dystrophy

A

Elevates creatine kinase levels
electromyography
muscle biopsy

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74
Q

progression of muscular dystrophy

A

death usually by age 20
respiratory or cardiac failure
can be prolonged by ventilator

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75
Q

degenerative disease caused by wear and tear on joints

A

Osteoarthritis

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76
Q

type of arthritis that does not have systematic effects

A

Osteoarthritis

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77
Q

Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis

A 
pain (insidious or mild)
joint movement limited due to enlargement
Heberdens nodes (distal, fingers)
Bouchards nodes (proximal, knuckles and hands)
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78
Q

treatment of osteoarthritis

A 
PT
Massage
Glucosamine-Chondroitin supplements
injection of synovial fluid
surgery (hip/knee replacements)
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79
Q

How to manage osteoarthritic pain

A

NSAIDS

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80
Q

Autoimmune disorder that causes chronic systemic inflammatory disease

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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81
Q

occurs in fingers, wrists, elbows and knees
red, swollen, painful joint
RF found in blood and synovial fluid

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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82
Q

remissions and exacerbations lead to progressive damage to joints such as…?

A

Ankylosis- joint fixation and deformity that develops

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83
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis can cause what changes?

A

atrophy of muscles
alignment of bones in the joint shifts due to erosion of cartilage
Muscle spasms caused by inflammation and pain
Contractors and deformity
mobility suffers

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84
Q

Signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

insidious onset

inflammation in fingers and wrists at first

red, swollen, painful joints
fatigue, anorexia, fever, generalized lymphadenopathy. aching

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85
Q

Treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A 
balance rest and activity
PT/OT
heat and cold
splinting of joints during exacerbations
Meds
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86
Q

DMARDs 1

A

Methotrexate

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87
Q

DMARDs 2

A

Etanercept (Enbrel)

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88
Q

Drugs that exhibit anti inflammatory, anti arthritic, and immunomodulating effects.

Slow onset of action, several weeks. Give with NSAIDS at first.

A

DMARDs

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89
Q

Drug that has anticancer properties, given once a week in Arthritis patients.

A

Methotrexate

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90
Q

Supplement to give to patients taking methotrexate to prevent toxicity

A

folic acid

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91
Q

Adverse effects of Methotrexate

A

liver damage-

bone marrow suppression
increased risk of infection
pulmonary fibrosis

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92
Q

symptoms of pulmonary fibrosis

A

respiratory distress

decreased oxygenation

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93
Q

contraindications to Methotrexate

A

active bacterial or viral infections
active or latent TB
acute or chronic hep B or C
patients with peptic ulcer disease

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94
Q

Methotrexate interacts with…?

A

alcohol- liver damage

NSAIDS, Salicylates, Sulfonamides - increase toxicity

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95
Q

What should you make sure the patient is clear of before administering Methotrexate?

A

TB

pregnancy (six months after treatment)

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96
Q

Monitor for what during Methotrexate treatment

A

reduction in pain
more mobility in joints
less exacerbations
symptom control during periods of emotional stress

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97
Q

Adverse effects or Enbrel

A

headache
heart failure
injection site + skin reactions
pancytopenia (all red, white and platelet levels decreased)
may increase risk of infections - no live vaccines

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98
Q

administration on enbrel

A

subcutaneous injection twice weekly

may give with methotrexate

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99
Q

Contraindications of Enbrel

A

active infection
hematologic disease
malignancy

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100
Q

If Enbrel and Methotrexate are given together… what is the interaction?

A

bone marrow suppression increased

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101
Q

Deposits of uric acid crystals in the joint, results in inflammation of joints

A

Gout

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102
Q

What is Hyperuricemia

A

inadequate renal excretion

overproduction

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103
Q

sudden rise in uric acid precipitates an attack of what? Causing inflammation, pain, redness swelling on a single joint.

A

Gout

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104
Q

Medications to take during an attack of gout

A

NSAIDS
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
colchine
probenecid (Benemid)

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105
Q

medication that decreases uric acid production, prevents acute tumor lysis syndrome, and treats acute attacks of gout.

A

allopurinol (Zyloprim)

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106
Q

Adverse effects of allopurinol

A

pancytopenia
exfoliative dermatitis
Stvens-Johnson Syndrome
toxic epidermal necrolysis

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107
Q

med that reduces inflammatory response to the deposits of uric crystals in joint tissue, relieves pain, used for short term management or prevention of gout

A

colchicine

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108
Q

adverse effects of colchicine

A

short term leukopenia

gastrointestinal and urinary tract bleeding

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109
Q

med that inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidney and thus increases the excretion of uric acid, used for the prevention of gout

A

probenecid (Benemid)

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110
Q

high-purine foods

A

organ meats, bacon, beef, sardines, scallops, anchovies, broth, mincemeat, gravy, yeast, wine, beer

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111
Q

when taking probenecid, what patient precautions should be taken?

A

limit excessive purine foods

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112
Q

functional and structural unit in the human body, differentiated based on requirements

A

cells

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113
Q

Cells that have no function
Deprives other cells of nutrients
Expands and creates pressure on surrounding structures.

A

New Neoplasm Cells

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114
Q

malignancy of epithelial tissue

A

carcinoma

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115
Q

malignancy of connective tissue

A

sacroma

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116
Q

indicates a benign tumor

A

oma

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117
Q

type of tumor that reproduces at a higher rate

A

benign tumor

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118
Q 
excapsulated
expands
does not spread
moveable
causes tissue damage
not life threatening
reproduces at a higher rate
differentiated cells
A

benign tumor

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119
Q 
undifferentiated
nonfunctional
reproduce rapidly
not encapsulated
no cellular connections
infiltrate into surrounding tissues
A

Malignant tumors

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120
Q

cells that are programmed to spread, invade, and destroy tissue. considered immortal

A

malignant cells

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121
Q

tumor angiogenesis

A

tumor develops its own blood vessels

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122
Q

cancer risk factors

A 
genetics
viruses
radiation
chemical exposure
biologic factors
age
diet
smoking
gender
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123
Q

viruses that could cause cancer

A

HPV - cervical cancer
Hep B- liver cancer
HIV - kaposi sarcoma

124
Q

Warning signs of cancer

A 
unusual bleeding or discharge
change in a wart or mole
unexplained weight loss
persistent cough 
solid lump detected. often painless
125
Q

infection around the tumor

A

tissue necrosis

126
Q

severe tissue wasting

A

cachexia - hard to increase weight

127
Q

systemic effects of malignant tumors

A 
weight loss
cachexia
anemia
severe fatigue
infections
bleeding
paraneoplastic syndrome
128
Q

substances released by tumor affect necrologic functioning, causes blood clotting, or have hormonal effects

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

129
Q

spread of cancer to distant sites via blood or lymphatics

A

metastasis

130
Q

common sites for secondary tumors

A

liver and lungs

131
Q

spread of cancer cells in body fluids or along membranes usually in body cavities

A

seeding

132
Q

this is essential to determine potential treatments and outcomes of cancer

A

staging cancer

133
Q

no metastasis, no lymph nodes

A

stage I

134
Q

local invasion into lymph nodes; no metastasis

A

stage II

135
Q

nodes involves, no metastasis

A

stage III

136
Q

metastasis present in this stage

A

stage IV

137
Q

treatment intended to reduce manifestations and complications related to the cancer

A

palliative

138
Q

treatment used with cancers that produce secondary tumors too small to be detected

A

Prophylactic

ex: breast cancer: follow complete removal of localized tumor with chemotherapy and radiation

139
Q

heat is used to destroy small single tumors commonly in the lung or liver

A

Radiofrequency ablation

140
Q

causes mutations or alterations in target DNA, prevents mitosis. Most effective when used to kill rapidly dividing cells. Damages blood vessels to cut off blood supply to tumor cells.

A

Radiation Therapy

141
Q

Methods of radiation therapy

A

External - cobalt machine
internal insertion of radioactive material
radioisotopes in solutions placed into body cavity

142
Q

adverse reactions to radiation therapy

A

bone marrow depression
epithelial cell damage
infertility

143
Q

cancer therapy using 2-4 drugs at a time.

A

chemotherapy

144
Q

why does chemo use 2-4 drugs at one time?

A

lessen adverse effects

ensure destruction of cancer cells by working at different stages of the cell cycle.

145
Q

adverse effects of chemotherapy

A 
bone marrow depression
nausea and vomiting
hair loss
breakdown of skin and mucus membranes
nutritional issues
146
Q

cessation of chemotherapy until levels rise

A

meds are dose limiting - must have blood drawn every session

147
Q

nutritional issues associated with chemotherapy

A 
changes in taste
anorexia
vomiting
diarrhea
stomatitis
148
Q

hormones taken to increase appetite, decrease fatigue and inflammation around tumor.

A

corticosteroids

149
Q

when is cancer free state generally defined?

A

5 years remission

150
Q

no clinical signs of cancer, client may experience several of these during treatment

A

remission

151
Q

returns excess interstitial fluid and protein to blood
filters and destroys unwanted material from the body fluids
initiates an immune response

A

Lymphatic system

152
Q

are lymphatic vessels thinner or thicker than blood vessels?

A

thinner

153
Q

where do lymphatic vessels originate?

A

capillaries in direct contact with tissue cells

154
Q

malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes

A

Lymphomas

155
Q

What can make the incidence of lymphomas higher?

A

incidence is higher in adults that received radiation as children

156
Q 
Painless enlarged lymph node
Adults 20-40 yrs
Men older than 50 yrs
night sweats
Reed-Steinburg cells
T lymphocytes appear defective and count is down
A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

157
Q

Signs and symptoms of hodgkins lymphoma

A

night sweats
weight loss
generalized pruritis
recurrent infections

158
Q

first indicator of hodgkins lymphoma

A

painless enlarged lymph node

159
Q

treatment of hodgkins lymphoma

A

radiation
chemotherapy
surgery

160
Q

Staging of hodgekins Lymphoma

A

1- single lymph node affected

4- Widespread

161
Q

Type of lymphoma distinguished by multiple node involvement in the early stages. Intestinal nodes and organs can be effected.

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

162
Q

Lymphoma that is due to increasing numbers due to numbers associated with HIV

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma

163
Q 
occurs in older adults
involves the mature B lymphocytes
insidious onset
frequent infections
pathologic fractures
thrombocytopenia + anemia
impaired kidney function
A

Multiple Myeloma

164
Q

This condition is characterized by: Blood cell production impairment
antibody production impairment
multiple tumors in bone
impaired kidney function

A

Multiple Myeloma

165
Q

Tissues in extremities swell due to an obstruction of the lymphatic vessels and accumulation of lymph

A

Lymphedema

166
Q

Causes of Lymphedema

A

congenital
parasites -> elephantiasis
structural blockage -> tumors

167
Q

treatment of lymphedema

A 
Diuretics
strict bed rest
massage of affected area
elevation of affected extremity
compression garments
surgery
168
Q

therapeutic index of antineoplastic drugs

A

narrow therapeutic index

169
Q

normal WBC levels

A

5,000-10,000

170
Q

when to hold antineoplastic drugs due to dose limiting affects

A

when neutrophil levels are below 500 cells/mm3

171
Q

loss of hair

A

alopecia

172
Q

emetic potential

A

vomiting potential

173
Q

bone marrow cell depression

A

myelosuppression

174
Q

point at which WBC’s are expected to be at their lowest.

A

Nadir

175
Q

what happens when a toxic solution is given through an IV and the IV dislodges causing the toxic solution to destroy tissue

A

Extravasation

176
Q

what to give when premedication antineoplastic drugs

A

Antihistamines, corticosteroids, and acetaminophen

177
Q

Ultimate goal of chemotherapy

A

kill every neoplastic cell and produce a cure

is not achieved in most cases

some patients immune systems may be able to clear the remaining tumor

178
Q

common relative contraindications of chemotherapy

A

weakened status of patient
pregnancy/fertility
elderly - reduced dosing needed

179
Q

Cell Cycle specific drugs:

A

antimetabolites - Methotrexate

antimitotics - Vincristine

Topoisomerase I Inhibitors- Ironotecan

180
Q

these drugs work by interfering with synthesis of compounds critical to cellular reproduction. Folate antagonists.

A

Antimetabolites

181
Q

contraindications of Methotrexate

A

active bacterial or viral infections
Active or latent TB
Acute or chronic hep. B or C
peptic ulcer disease

182
Q

Adverse effects of Methotrexate (6)

A 
Tumor lysis syndrome
Palmar-plantar synesthesia
Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
toxic epidermal necrolysis
liver damage
severe bone marrow suppression
183
Q

rescue drug given to treat severe bone marrow depression caused by methotrexate

A

Leucovorin - rapidly converts into form of folic acid which prevents the death of normal cells

184
Q

drugs that contribute to increased methotrexate toxicity

A

NSAIDS
Salicylates
Sulfonamides

185
Q

which is the most neurotoxic antineoplastic drug

A

Vincristin

186
Q

Very Injurious to Nerves

A

VINcristin

187
Q

Vincristin

A

Peripheral Neuropathy
Extravasation
Low Myelosuppression

188
Q

adverse reaction to irinotecan

A

Cholinergic Diarrhea

189
Q

cell-cycle nonspecific drugs

A

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
daunorubicin, doxorubicin
Belomycin
SERMS

190
Q

Adverse affects of Cyclophosphamide(Cytoxan)

A

Nephrotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Peripheral neuropathy
Extravasation

191
Q

classification of antibacterials to avoid with Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) because of similar effects.

A

gentamicin + aminoglycosides

192
Q

Cytotoxic antibiotics (so toxic it can only be used for cancer)

A

Daunorubicin, doxorubicin, Bleomycin

193
Q

what condition is associated with large amounts of doxorubicin?

A

Cardiomyopathy

194
Q

type of cytotoxic antibiotic that causes acute left ventricular failure

A

daunorubicin + doxorubicin

195
Q

what may occur when taking bleomycin?

A

pulmonary fibrosis

196
Q

Hormonal neoplastic drug

A

Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

197
Q

Adverse effects of Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

A

hot flashes
hypercalcemia
risk for uterine cancer
increased risk for thrombophlebitis & thromboembolism

198
Q

Care of a patient undergoing therapy for cancer

A

double flush patients bodily secretions int he commode
special spills kits to clean up even small spills
health care providers should wash hands and affected areas after administration of vesicant medications.

199
Q

Common adverse effects of toxic medications used for cancers

A

weight loss
sores in the mouth
changes in taste
dryness and crackling sides of mouth

200
Q

signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia

A 
Petechiae
Bruising
Gum bleeding
excessive or prolonged bleeding from puncture sites
unusual joint pain
blood in stool or urine or vomitus
201
Q

Patient education on bone marrow suppression from antineoplastic drugs

A

Take periods of rest
call with fever
avoid people who are sick and recently vaccinated
take drugs to accelerate WBC recovery as ordered
wash fruits and veggies and make sure food is well cooked
frequent oral care
use soft bristled tooth brush

202
Q

Indications of oncologic emergencies

A 
fever above 100.5 and/or chills
new sores or white patches in mouth
swollen tongue
bleeding gums
new and persistent cough
changes in bladder function or pattern
blood in urine or stools
changed in GI or bowel movements
203
Q

drug classification that is used to treat cancer that increases appetite, decreases fatigue, and decreases inflammation around tumor

A

corticosteroids

204
Q

syndrome caused by release of substances by tumors that affect neurological functioning

A

Paraneoplastic

205
Q

agent given to treat bladder cancer

A

BCG

206
Q

lymph empties into these veins

A

subclavian

207
Q

term indicating cancer cells have spread from original tumor

A

metastasis

208
Q

tumors complete this process to get blood supply

A

angiogenesis

209
Q

name for severe tissue wasting

A

cachexia

210
Q

type of blood cancer that can result from exposure to radiation

A

leukemia

211
Q

electrolyte that controls contraction of muscle cells

A

calcium

212
Q

preliminary bridge repair in bone

A

Procallus

213
Q

this pulmonary disease can occur when taking methotrexate

A

fibrosis

214
Q

adverse effects of calcium supplements that include constipation, polyuria, and nausea

A

hypercalcemia

215
Q

syndrome that occurs with extensive inflammation of a fracture

A

compartment

216
Q

released to initiate muscle contraction

A

acetylcholine

217
Q

medication used to decrease uric acid production

A

allopurinol

218
Q

this type of scan diagnoses osteoporosis

A

DEXA

219
Q

medication used only to prevent outbreak of gout

A

probenecid

220
Q

medication used to decrease pain with acute outbreaks of gout

A

colchicine

221
Q

tear in a ligament

A

sprain

222
Q

fluid filled sacs located between tendons and ligaments

A

bursae

223
Q

only drug that stimulates bone formation in osteoporosis

A

Teriparatide

224
Q

drug class that may cause blood clots or even endometrial cancer

A

SERMS

225
Q

if patient is allergic to this, may have a hypersensitivity reaction to calcitonin

A

fish

226
Q

receptors for touch, pressure, temperature and pain

located close to the body surface

A

Exteroceptors

227
Q

Sensory receptors that provide information around viscera

located internally

A

Visceroreceptors

228
Q

Provider information about body movement, orientation, and muscle strength

A

Proprioceptors

229
Q

sensory receptors stimulated by touch and pressure

A

mechanoreceptors

230
Q

sensory receptors impacted by various chemicals

A

chemoreceptors

231
Q

warm and cold receptors stimulated by changes in temperature

A

thermoreceptors

232
Q

receptors stimulated by light

A

photoreceptors

233
Q

receptors that are stimulated by pain, tissue injury

A

Nocioceptors

234
Q

receptors that are stimulated by changes in osmotic pressure of bodily fluids

A

Osmoreceptors

235
Q

Protection of the eye:

A 
bony orbit of the skull
eyelashes and eyelids
conjunctiva
tears
line eyelids
236
Q

anterior cavity of the eye

A

aqueous humor

237
Q

posterior cavity of the eye

A

vitreous humor

238
Q

dark vascular layer interior of sclera that absorbs light for focus

A

Choroid

239
Q

middle layer of the eye

A

uvea

240
Q

system that helps the eye dilate

A

sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

241
Q

system that helps the eye constrict

A

parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

242
Q

inner layer of the eye that contains no pain receptors and has photoreceptor cells

A

retina

243
Q

dim light, night vision (black and white)

A

rods

244
Q

color vision

A

cones

245
Q

reflects pressure in brain

A

optic nerves

246
Q

half of the fibers from each optic nerve cross to pass to the occipital lobe in opposite hemisphere

A

Optic Chiasm

247
Q

Test that assesses intraocular pressure

A

Tonometry

248
Q

near sightedness

image focused in front of lens

A

Myopia

249
Q

far sightedness
image focused behind the retina
eyeball is too short

A

Hyperopia

250
Q

far sightedness associated with aging

loss of elasticity reduces accommodation

A

Presbyopia

251
Q

Irregular curvature in the cornea or lens

blurred vision

A

Astigmatism

252
Q

Double vision

important to treat in children to correct permanent vision problems

A

Strabismus

253
Q

involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes

causes inner ear or cerebellar disturbances

A

Nystagmus

254
Q

Double vision caused by trauma to the cranial nerves such as paralysis, stroke
loss of depth perception

A

Diplopia

255
Q

Infection involving hair follicle on eye lid
swollen red mass
warm compress can cause spontaneous recovery

A

Stye

256
Q

superficial inflammation of conjunctiva lining eyelids and covering sclera
can be caused by allergens, irritating chemicals, bacteria, viruses
redness, itching, and excessive tearing

A

Conjunctivitis (Superficial)

257
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

sclera is red with purulent discharge

A

Pink eye

258
Q

caused by chlamydia trachoma’s
follicles form on inner surface of eyelids
globally most common cause of vision loss

A

Trachoma

259
Q 
inflammation of cornea
infection
bacteria, viruses, parasite
non-infectious
minor injury
wearing contact lenses too long
A

Keratitis

260
Q

symptoms of Keratitis

A

eye redness + pain
excessive tearing or other discharge
sensitivity to light

261
Q

Inhibition of the normal flow and drainage of aqueous humor resulting in increased intraocular pressure. Pressure against retina destroys neurons, leading to impaired vision and even blindness.

A

Glaucoma

262
Q

symptoms of glaucoma

A

halos around lights at night
loss of peripheral vision
pain

263
Q

Drugs that cause mitosis to treat Glaucoma

A

Cholinergic drugs

264
Q

direct acting cholinergic drugs

A

acetylcholine

pilocarpine

265
Q

adverse effects of direct acting cholinergic drugs

A 
decreased visual acuity
frontal headache
hypotension
bradycardia
seizures
266
Q

antidote to direct acting cholinergic drugs

A

Atropine Sulfate

267
Q

Minics the sympathetic neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Sympathomimetics

268
Q

Used for chronic open-angle glaucoma, reduction of preoperative IOP and reduction of ocular hypertension

A

Sympathomimetics

269
Q

Drug that dilates pupil and enhances the aqueous humor outflow through the canal of Schlemm

A

Sympathomimetics - Epinephryl

270
Q

Adverse effects of Sympathomimetics

A

burning
eye pain
lacrimation

271
Q

Beta Blockers have what suffix

A

-olol

272
Q

Adverse effects of beta blockers

A 
transient burning and discomfort
blurred vision
pain
headache
hypotension
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm
273
Q

Administration of systemic beta blockers with high doses of what can cause additive effects?

A

ophthalmic beta blockers

274
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors have what suffix?

A

-amide

275
Q

Patients with what allergies should avoid carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

sulfa allergies

276
Q

Drugs that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which reduces aqueous humor formation int eh eye. Results is decreased IOP.

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

277
Q

systemic effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

drowsiness, confusion
tinnitus
anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea
transient myopia

278
Q

These drugs create ocular hypotension by producing an osmotic gradient; water is forced from the aqueous and vitreous humors into the bloodstream. Result is reduced volume of intraocular fluid, thus reduced IOP.

A

Osmotic Diuretics

279
Q

The first osmotic diuretic to be tried

A

Glycerin, then Mannitol if unsuccessful

280
Q

Prostaglandin Agonists have what suffix?

A

-prost

281
Q

These drugs have effects on eye color such as people with hazel, blue or green eyes will have permanently brown eyes.

A

Prostaglandin Agonists

282
Q

Progressive opacity or clouding of the lens, interferes with light transmission. Causes blurred vision over time and causes darkening over time.

A

Cataracts

283
Q

Treatment of cataracts

A

surgical replacement of lens

284
Q

most common cause of visual loss in older adults

A

Macular Degeneration

285
Q

Central vision becomes blurred, then lost. Due to loss of retinal cells in fovea.

A

Macular Degeneration

286
Q

sound is blocked in the external ear, accumulation of wax, foreign objects or scar tissue

A

Conduction Deafness

287
Q

Damage to the organ of Corti or auditory nerve, can be caused by infection or trauma or ototoxic drugs such as Gentamycin. Can also be caused by prolonged exposure to loud noise

A

Sensorineural Impairment

288
Q

most common cause of age related deafness

A

Presbycusis

289
Q

Inflammation or infection of the middle ear cavity causing pressure on the tympanic membrane that may cause rupture.

A

Ear infection- otis media

290
Q

Infection of the external auditory canal and pinna. usually bacterial, sometimes fungal. Purulent drainage. Hearing deficit. Pain usually increases with movement of pinna

A

Ear infection- otic externa

291
Q

Inner ear disorder caused by stretching of the membranes and interfering with the function of the hair cells in the cochlea and vestibule Marked by acute episodes, followed by brief periods of relief.

A

Meniere’s Syndrome

292
Q

symptoms of Menieres Syndrome attack

A 
severe vertigo
falls
nausea
sweating
tinnitus
unilateral hearing loss
293
Q

Treatment of Menieres Syndrome

A 
Dimenhydrinate - during attack
stress reduction
avoid smoking, drinking caffeine
low sodium diet
mild diuretic
294
Q

Medication used for acute closure and only given in ICU

A

Mannitol

295
Q

Pupil responds to PNS by doing this

A

constrict

296
Q

This type of vision is not lost with macular degeneration

A

Peripheral

297
Q

symptom of glaucoma that appears later in the disease process

A

halos of light

298
Q

medication used to treat nausea and dizziness that occurs with vertigo in Menieres syndrome

A

Dimenhydinate

299
Q

Pain is elicited by moving this part of the ear in otitis external which differentiates it from otitis media

A

pinna

300
Q

chief symptom of Menieres Syndrome

A

Vertigo

301
Q

Infection that may occur if otitis media is left untreated

A

Mastoiditis

302
Q

Medication used to treat Otitis Media for first 48 hours

A

Ibuprofen

303
Q

Test done to determine intraocular pressure

A

Tonometry

304
Q

Pupil responds to SNS by doing this

A

dilate

305
Q

This habit can contribute to macular degeneration

A

smoking

Pathopharmacology Exam 1 Review (6 decks)

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