Exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
steady internal balance or equilibrium
A
homeostasis
2
Q
activates and directs behavior toward a goal
A
motivation
3
Q
how does homeostasis relate to motivated behavior
A
drive states appear in response to physiological needs, disappear when needs are met
4
Q
drive =
A
internal state of tension
5
Q
homeothermic animals
A
cold blooded
6
Q
temperature regulation: homeothermic animals
A
cannot regulate body temperature internally, adjust behaviorally
(amphibians, reptiles, fish)
7
Q
endothermic animals
A
warm blooded
8
Q
temperature regulation: endothermic animals
A
use internal metabolic activity to maintain nearly constant body temperature (mammals and birds)
9
Q
heat loss influenced by
A
surface-to-volume ratio
10
Q
small animals have higher ratio –>
A
more heat loss
11
Q
endothermic responses to lower temperatures
A
- shiver; blood vessels constrict
- thyroid hormone increases to boost metabolic rate (social huddling)
12
Q
endothermic responses to higher temperatures
A
- perspiration, licking, panting
- blood vessels dilate near skin surface
13
Q
brain mechanisms for temperature:
structural hierarchy
A
from thermoreceptors, to spinal cord, through the brainstem, to the hypothalamus
14
Q
Preoptic area (POA) of anterior hypothalamus
A
detects and responds to warmer temperatures
15
Q
Posterior hypothalamus
A
detects and responds to cooler temperatures
16
Q
preoptic area of the hypothalamus contains
A
warm sensitive (30%), cold sensitive (5%) and other neurons unrelated to temperature (65%)
17
Q
detects and responds to high temperatures
A
preoptic area of the hypothalamus
18
Q
coordinates input from thermoreceptors w behavioral responses to dissipate heat (e.g. panting, sweating)
A
preoptic area of the hypothalamus
19
Q
deviations in human core temperature
A
- hot flashes in menopause
- fevers
- hypothermia
- hyperthermia
- heat stroke
20
Q
- too much heat
- too warm can’t cool down
- failure of compensatory mechanisms
- drugs (amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy, and some antidepressants -serotonin syndrome-)
A
hyperthermia
21
Q
- strenuous activity or heavy clothing in hot environments
- effects elderly, soldiers in desert environment, and athletes
- when stop sweating = red flag
A
heat stroke
22
Q
-low core temperature. below 95; fatal below 87.8 degrees Fahrenheit
A
hypothermia
23
Q
controlled increases in the core temperature set point during an illness
A
how fevers work
24
Q
adaptive response. body’s way of identifying and fighting off illness
A
fever
25
reduces activity of warm cells. and therefore increases activity of cold cells. thermal set point is raised.
PGE2
26
_______ reset the temperature set point
pyrogens
27
in response to reduced inhibition from the warm-sensitive neurons, cold-sensitive cells increases their output, which results in
a higher temperature set point
28
thirst: regulating the body's fluid levels
-maintaining appropriate fluid levels is essential to survival
29
_________ are molecules that have been dissolved in a fluid
solutes
30
a __________ is the fluid that contains the solutes
solution
31
a _______________ is when solutes break into ions when dissolved (Na+, K+, Ca++, Cl-, etc.)
electrolyte
32
water + electrolytes =
hydration
33
body is _____% water
70%
34
fluids of the body: intracellular fluid
67%
| higher concentrations of K+
35
fluids of the body: extracellular fluid
33%
| higher concentrations of Na+ and Cl-
36
fluids of the body: extracellular fluid -->
| blood supply
7%
37
fluids of the body: extracellular fluid --> cerebrospinal fluid
<1%
38
fluids of the body: extracellular fluid --> interstitial fluid
26%
| surrounds cells
39
osmosis
diffusion of water
40
________ solutions have equal concentrations of solutes [Goal]
isotonic
41
_________ solutions have a lower concentration of solutes
| cell might swell
hypotonic
42
_________ solutions have a higher concentration of solutes
| cell might shrink. water is going to leave the cell
hypertonic
43
osmosis causes water to
move into/out of cells
44
types of thirst:
- consumption of liquids while eating
- facilitates chewing and digestion
prandial thirst
45
types of thirst:
- response to low fluid level in body's cells due to diffusion
- excessively high salt or sugar intake
osmotic thirst
46
types of thirst:
- response to low blood volume bc of a loss of extracellular water
- sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, blood loss
hypovolemic thirst
47
Osmotic thirst mechanisms
deficit detected by OVLT
48
OVLT
- near 3rd ventricle, weak BBB
- many osmoreceptors
- lesion reduces drinking in response tp salty solution
49
Osmotic thirst mechanisms: OVLT communicates deficit to
median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
50
median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus --->
zona incerta --> drinking initiated
51
hypovolemic thirst mechanisms
reduced blood pressure detected by veins near atrium of heart
52
hypovolemic thirst mechanisms: Path 1:
atrium of heart --> vagus nerve --> nucleus of the solitary (NTS) in medulla --> median preoptic area of hypothalamus --> zona incerta --> drinking initiated
53
hypovolemic thirst mechanisms: Path 2:
kidneys --> release hormone renin --> increase production of angeiotensin II to conserve fluid --> circulation of angiotensin II crosses BBB at sub-fornical organ (SFO) --> median preoptic nucleus and zona incerta initiate drinking
54
roles of the kidneys
- excrete excess water and sodium
- filter blood of impurities using nephrons
- send impurities to bladder for excretion
- return filtered blood to circulation
55
daily fluid loss and intake in humans
input = output
consume certain amount of fluid and excrete certain amount of fluid
balance
56
angiotensin II
tighten/constrict blood pressure
57
decrease urine production
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) aka vasopressin
58
antidiuretic hormone
- save the fluid
| - thought to be found in cigarettes
59
aldosterone
save the sodium
60
adrenal glands secrete
aldosterone
61
kidneys secrete renin, which leads to increased
angiotensin II production
62
the sensation of thirst
occurs as a result of osmotic (drops in the intracellular fluid volume) and hypovolemic (drops in blood volume) thirst
63
detecting osmotic thirst
- osmoreceptors
| - OVLT
64
detecting hypovolemic thirst
- baroreceptors measure blood pressure
| - receptors in the heart and kidneys
65
hormones and thirst: antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin
- promotes retention of fluid
- signals kidneys to reduce urine production and stimulate the release if renin, which converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin II
66
stimulation of _________ ________ stimulates drinking
zona incerta
67
initiation of drinking
begins when angiotensin II acts on subfornical organ (SFO). nucleus of the solitary tract gets input from baro- and osmoreceptors. NST and SFO communicates w/ median preoptic nucleus
68
a dangerous condition in which sodium levels drop to 10% or more below normal
hyponatremia
69
hyponatremia
- extreme endurance activities
- low extracellular fluid and low sodium
- ADH continuously produced = water retention and further reduction in sodium concentration
- causes hypovolemic thirst (excessive water consumption), cells swell, further exaggerating hyponatremia
70
symptoms of severe hyponatremia
- nausea and vomiting
- headache
- lethargy
- seizures
- pulmonary edema
- obtundation
- coma
71
symptoms of mild hyponatremia
- fatigue
- nausea
- dizziness
- gait disturbances
- forgetfulness
- muscle cramps
72
do sports drinks prevent hyponatremia?
no. better than water, but do not completely prevent
73
need for energy is constant, feeding is ...
intermittent
74
signals that encourage food consumption
hunger/appetite
75
signals that end food consumption
satiety
76
why do we eat?
- energy and specific nutrients needed by our bodies
- pleasure
- complex cultural and psychological factors
77
herbivores
plant eaters
78
carnivores
meat eaters
79
omnivores
obtain nutrients from both plants and animals
80
food preferences
learned in utero
81
factors in selecting food
- taste
- sensory-specific satiety
- learned taste aversion
- learned taste preference
82
association with illness or poor nutrient
learned taste aversion
83
preference for flavor of food that contains necessary nutrient
learned taste preference
84
signals that start a meal
- stomach contractions
- low available glucose
- low lipids
- high levels of peptides ghrelin and orexins
- activity in lateral hypothalamus
85
low lipids:
| leptin released by
adipose cells
86
low lipids:
| sensed by
arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
87
low available glucose:
liver receptors --> nucleus of solitary tract (brainstem)
88
a peptide synthesized in the pancreas and stomach that is released during fasting and stimulates eating behavior
ghrelin
89
a peptide produced in the lateral hypothalamus that stimulates hunger
orexin (aka hypocretin)
90
central pathways of hunger
glucose deficit sensed by liver --> vagus nerve --> NST in medulla --> arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus --> release of neuropeptide Y and agouti related protein in bloodstream --> increased eating and reduce metabolism
91
the process of digestion
foods are broken down into usable chemicals by the digestive tract
92
carbohydrates break down into
glucose
93
proteins break down into
amino acids
94
lipid/fat breaks down into
fatty acids and glycerol
95
lipid fat digestion
- used for immediate energy
- stored by adipose tissue (fat cells)
- cause release of hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) which is a satiety signal
96
protein digestion
- proteins are broken down into amino acids
| - used by muscles and other tissues for growth and protein synthesis
97
glucose digestion (steps)
- glucose
- insulin
- glycogen
- glucagon
98
- a type of simple sugar found in foods
| - immediate energy use
glucose
99
- a pancreatic hormone that assists in moving glucose from the blood supply into body cells
- helps store glucose as glycogen
insulin
100
- a complex carbohydrate used to store energy in the liver
| - long-term energy storage
glycogen
101
- a pancreatic hormone that converts glycogen into glucose
| - long-term storage into immediate energy use
glucagon
102
- disorder of insulin production
| - diagnosed in childhood or early adulthood
type 1 diabetes mellitus
103
- disorder of insulin recognition by cells (body stops responding to insulin)
- adult onset
- obesity is a major risk factor
type 2 diabetes mellitus
104
assessing satiety
stomach fullness, intestines, CCK
105
brain mechanisms for satiety
- ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
- paraventricular nucleus (PVN)
- nucleus of the solitary tract (NST)
106
neurochemicals and satiety
- leptin found in blood supply when body fat levels high
| - high leptin levels stimulate alphaMSH and CART to inhibit feeding
107
major hypothalamic nuclei involved in hunger
- lateral hypothalamus
- paraventricular nucleus
- arcuate nucleus
- ventromedial hypothalamus
108
participates in hunger (hunger center)
lateral hypothalamus
109
involved in the regulation of hunger, metabolic processes (body temp, fat storage, cell energy use)
paraventricular nucleus
110
involved in initiating feeding behaviors
arcuate nucleus
111
participates in satiety
ventromedial hypothalamus
112
- stimulate: stops eating (satiety)
| - lesion: cannot stop eating, obesity/higher set point, picky eating habits
ventromedial hypothalamus
113
- stimulate: produces immediate eating behavior
| - lesion: stops eating, starvation unless force fed
lateral hypothalamus
114
before eating _______ ghrelin, low leptin
high
115
after eating _________ leptin, low ghrelin
high
116
hormone made by adipose cells. chemical to stop eating
leptin
117
contributions to obesity
- stress and high fat diet increase release of NPY and appetite
- genetics and set points (how well thyroid is functioning)
- type of bacteria in gut
- internal vs external food cues
118
the French paradox: low heart disease, low obesity despite very fatty diet. why>
- cultural differences (exercise, portion sizes)
- genetic differences
- wine
119
treating obesity
- lifestyle changes
- weight loss diets reduce calories consumed
- medications
- surgical interventions
120
- very low body weight
| - distorted body image
anorexia nervosa
121
cyclical pattern of binge eating and purging
bulimia nervosa
122
binge-eating without compensatory purging
binge-eating disorder
123
causes for disordered eating
- media / social perspectives on beauty
- genetic factors may influence personality traits that many increase vulnerability to eating disorders
- once established, biological factors help to maintain the eating disorder
- addictive processes
124
treatments for disordered eating:
| no medication effective in alleviating
anorexia
125
treatments for disordered eating:
- emergency hospitalization
- antidepressants
- cognitive behavioral therapy
- nutritional counseling
126
biological characteristics of being male or female
sex
127
learned/sociocultural characteristics of being masculine or feminine
gender
128
humans have ___ chromosomes. ___ pair = sex chromosomes.
46
| 23rd
129
genetic sex determined at
fertilization
130
XX
female
131
XY
male
132
sex determination depends on
whether the sperm that fertilizes the egg carries an X or Y sex chromosome
133
sex monosomies:
```
45Xo (turner syndrome)
or 45Yo (v rare)
```
134
sex polysomies
47XXX, 47XXY (Klinefelter Syndrome), 47XYY ("suprmale")
135
less chromosomes than typical =
monosomies
136
- phenotypic female
- abnormal growth patters, short stature, lack prominent female secondary sex characteristics
- sterile
- may have slight mental retardation
- webbing of skin of the neck
turner syndrome (45Xo)
137
- phenotypic male
- hypogonadism (small testes), infertile
- tall stature, sine female secondary sex characteristics such as wide hips and breast growth
- often requires testosterone treatment at puberty for masculine traits
Klinefelter Syndrome (47 XXY)
138
- genetic and phenotypic male
- normal sexual development. MAY very have slightly reduced fertility
- may have increased risk for acne, learning disabilities
- minor risk factor for impulsive, antisocial, and criminal misbehavior
"Supermale" 47XYY
139
internal sex organs
gonads
140
female gonads (internal sex organs)
ovaries
141
male gonads (internal sex organs)
testes
142
functions of gonads
1. to produce eggs or sperm (gametes)
| 2. to secrete hormones
143
gametes =
reproductive cells
144
differentiation of male gonads
SRY gene --> testis-determining factor protein --> primordial gonads develop into testes
145
without SRY -->
gonads become ovaries
146
male or female is default?
female
147
differentiation of the internal organs:
| wolffian system
develops into seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate
148
differentiation of the internal organs:
| mullerian system
develops into uterus, upper vagina, and fallopian tubes
149
all embryos have precursors to ______ and ______ internal organs
male and female
150
differentiation of the internal organs:
| during 3rd month, male's testes (via SRY gene) secrete these 2 hormones
- testosterone
| - anti-mullerian hormone
151
testosterone (a type of androgen) -->
masculinizing effect --> promotes development of wolffian system
152
anti-mullerian hormone -->
defeminizing effect --> prevents mullerian system from developing
153
ovaries not active during fetal development. true or false?
true
154
mullerian system develops in absence of
"male" hormones
155
type of steroid hormone that develops and maintains typically masculine characteristics or sexual interest
androgen
156
androgens are present in
both males and females (found earlier and in higher quantities in males)
157
most well known androgen
testosterone
158
androgens = precursor for
estrogen
159
- genetic males (XY), but phenotypic females w/ female gender identities
- no viable reproductive system. infertile
- abnormal androgen receptors disrupt normal development of wolffian system, though testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone are released in normal manner
- anti-mullerian hormone prevents development of (female) mullerian system
androgen insensitivity syndrome 46XY
160
development of external genitalia: females
- labia, clitoris, and outer vagina
| - no hormonal activity required for development
161
development of external genitalia: males
- scrotum and testes
| - 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone needed for development of male genitalia; loss results in ambiguous external genitalia
162
responsible for masculinization of male genitalia
5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone
163
adrenal glands release elevated levels of androgens
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
164
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) in males
few observable effects
165
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) in females
exposed to excessive androgen; born w ambiguous external genitalia
166
children begin to prefer sex-typed toys between ages of __ and __ months
12 and 18 months
167
indirect markers/correlates of prenatal androgen exposure
- length of fingers
- optoacoustic emissions (projections of sound)
- birth order
168
indirect markers have been correlated with
sexual orientation (correlation does not = causation tho)
169
Relationships between Prenatal Hormones and Finger Digit Ratios:
-androgen and estrogen receptors are present on both digits 2 and 4, but more on digit 4
170
Otoacoustic emissions differ between sexes
- females produce a higher number of spontaneous optoacoustic emissions (SOAEs) than males
- females produce louder click-evoked OAEs than males
- OAEs presumably indicate influence of prenatal testosterone levels
171
hormones and sexual developments: organizational effects
- hormonal effects on the differentiation and development of sex organs, brain, and behavior in early development
- long-term, irreversible
- associated w critical or sensitive period
172
hormones and sexual developments: activational effects
- effect of a hormone that occurs in the fully developed organism, beginning at time of puberty
- short-term, reversible (happening throughout life span)
173
sexual development at puberty
-sexual maturation and the development of secondary sex characteristics
174
sexual development at puberty process
hypothalamus releases GnRH to pituitary gland --> pituitary gland releases gonadotropins: LH and FSH --> secretion of sex hormones from the gonads
175
secondary sex characteristics: in males, testosterone stimulates
- muscular development
- maturation of external genitalia
- facial and body hair
- enlargement of larynx (deeper voice)
- hairline on the head (baldness)
176
secondary sex characteristics: in females, estradiol stimulates
- breast growth
- maturation of external genitalia and uterus
- changes in deposition of body fat
- menstrual cycle
177
human menstrual cycle
- pituitary increases FSH
- follicles develop - ovum
- estrogen stimulates LH release
- LH initiates ovulation
- estradiol - uterine wall thickening
- hormonal decrease
- menstruation
178
physical and psychological symptoms immediately prior to the onset of menstruation
premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
179
premenstrual mood changes are unusually severe, affecting daily
premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)
180
new mothers experience feelings of depression due to rapidly changing hormonal environment
postpartum depression (and anxiety and psychosis)
181
all sex hormones come from _____________
cholesterol
182
sex hormone synthesis steps
1. cholesterol --> progesterone
2. progesterone --> testosterone (androgen)
3. aromatization necessary to form estradiol
4. estradiol --> estrogens
183
males and females BOTH produce androgens and estrogens just in varying amounts. True or false?
true
184
sex differences are mediated by:
- continued expression of genes on X and Y chromosomes
- hormone effects
- epigenetics
- societal and cultural influences
185
in the presence of _________ and ___________, and in the absence of androgens, the brain develops in the female pattern
estradiol and progesterone
186
In males, ____________ promotes male-typical behavior, while __________ suppresses female-typical behavior
testosterone and estradiol
187
______________ masculinizes the brains of many animals
aromatization
188
___________ is transformed into estradiol producing masculinization
testosterone
189
alpha fetoprotein binds _________ and prevents maternal estradiol from masculinizing the female brain
estrogen
190
____________ play a greater role in the masculinization of the human brain
androgens
191
Sex differences in the brain:
| sexually dimorphic structures
- sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (rat)
| - interstitial nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus (human)
192
hormonal effects on cognitive behavior:
| women > men at
-verbal tasks
| related to higher levels of estrogen
193
hormonal effects on cognitive behavior:
| men > women at
-spatial tasks
| related to higher levels of androgens
194
person's self concept as male or female
gender identity
195
an individual's gender identity is inconsistent w his or her biological sex
transsexuality
196
brain structure and sexual orientation
INAH-3 smaller among women and homosexual men than among heterosexual men
197
activational effects of human sex hormones:
| women
- ovarian hormones do not control women's sex drive, but may influence sexual interest
- testosterone activates sexual behavior
- estrogen enhances sex drive during peak fertile days, while progesterone dulls sex drive
198
activational effects of human sex hormones:
| men
-testosterone activates sexual behavior
199
testosterone regulates sex drive in
both men and women
200
testosterone is _______in older men, those in long term relationships, and following birth of baby
lower
201
testosterone increases in anticipation of competition, further increase in winners. true or false?
true
202
sex hormones and female behavior:
| sexual interest
- highest interest around ovulation
- testosterone has greatest impact on women's sexuality
- preferences for masculinity vary based on fertility cycle, contraception
203
Attraction: the importance of symmetry
-degree of similarity of one side of face or body to the other
204
Attraction: the beauty of fertility and a good immune system
- preference for younger features on female
- preference for masculine men for casual sexual encounter, less masculine men for long term partner
- smell preference for an immune system different from our own
205
true or false: males habituate more to sexually arousing stimuli than females
true
206
the propensity of an animal that appears sexually satiated to resume sexual activity when provided w/ a novel partner
Coolidge Effect
207
only ~5% of all mammals are monogamous. true or false?
true
208
- neurohormone secreted during child birth, lactation; promotes pair-bonding
- expressed more by females
- released during orgasm by both sexes
oxytocin
209
- neurohormone important for social behavior, sexual motivation, and pair-bonding
- expressed more by males
vasopressin
210
behaviors that occur at regular intervals in response to internal, biological clocks
biological rhythms
211
true or false: multiple rhythms can be expressed within a single system
true
212
any rhythmic change that continues at close to a 24 hour cycle in the absence of 24 hour cues
- body temp
- cortisol secretion
- activity levels
- sleep and wakefulness
circadian rhythm
213
body temp lowest at ______ highest at ________
night
| midday
214
when is cortisol secretion highest release?
early morning
215
active during the day (light period)
diurnal
216
active during the night (dark period)
nocturnal
217
immune function most suppressed in AM or PM?
AM
218
immune function most suppressed in AM
lowest sympathetic nervous system activity; highest cortisol
219
time of immune function peak
PM
220
time of immune function peak in PM
healthy individuals have peak physical performance
221
environmental cues for activity
entrainment
| zeitgeber
222
the process of resetting the biological clock
entrainment
223
('time giver')
| external cue that synchronizes or helps entrain (determine or modify) an organism's internal clock
zeitgeber
224
neural basis of the biological clock (steps)
retinohypothalamic pathway --> suprachaismic nucleus (SCN) of hypothalamus --> pineal gland
225
- non-image receptor cells use melanopsin
| - carries light info
Retinohypothalamic Pathway
226
internal pacemaker
SCN
227
releases melatonin in dark
pineal gland
228
In mammals, light information goes from the eye to the SCN via the retinohypothalamic pathway
true or false?
true
229
Amphibians and birds have translucent skulls & photoreceptors in the brain and pineal gland
true or false?
true
230
The Retinohypothalamic Pathway
- the RHT consists of retinal ganglion cells that project to the SCN
- these non-image forming (NIF) ganglion cells do not rely on rods and cones
- most of these retinal ganglion cells contain the photopigment melanopsin (blue light)
231
oscillations of protein production and degradation =
"ticking" of internal clock
232
_______ may trigger protein fluctuations
light
233
circadian rhythm involves a ____________ _______ in which proteins are made, combined, and inhibited in predictable patterns
feedback loop
234
per =
period
235
tim =
timeless
236
clock =
circadian locomotor output cycles kaput
237
clock promotes production of
per and tim proteins
238
per and tim inhibit
clock protein
239
low per and tim =
increased clock activity, which triggers production of per and tim
240
high per and tim =
inhibited clock activity, which decreases production of per and tim
241
no environmental cues (e.g., light)
| approx. 25 hour rhythm; sleep onset slightly later each day
free running
242
- Mammalian master biological clock, pacemaker of circadian rhythms
- Located above the optic chiasm in hypothalamus
- ALWAYS more active during light period
- Rhythmic in the absence of inputs/outputs (intrinsic rhythmicity)
suprachiasmic nucleus of the hypothalamus
243
two separate groups of circadian neurons in SCN
- M cells
| - E cells
244
control morning activity and need light for entrainment
M-cells
245
control evening activity and need darkness for entrainment
E-cells
246
is the hormone of darkness; released by pineal gland
| as per and tim drop, this increases
melatonin
247
temperature and alertness are positively correlated. true or false?
true
248
is released during stage 3 and 4 deep sleep by pituitary gland
growth hormone
249
release is highest in morning and drops during the day
cortisol
250
important for energy. also a stress hormone
cortisol
251
_______ is the hormonal signal that entrains physiological systems to the "correct" circadian rhythm
melatonin
252
disruption of circadian rhythms, and melatonin signaling, by unnatural zeitgebers can lead to sleep disorders. true or false?
true
253
- fatigue, irritability, and sleepiness - result from a conflict between internal clock and external zeitgebers
- adjustment easier when traveling east to west - go to bed later but can also sleep in later
jet lag
254
travel easier going from
east to west
255
shift in activity in response to a synchronizing stimulus (e.g., light/dark)
phase shift
256
_______ ________ is a phase-advance, analogous to eastward travel (lose an hour of sleep)
spring forward
257
______ ______ is a phase delay, analogous to westward travel
fall back
258
circadian disruption: light at night linked to
- increased cancer risk
| - obesity in animal models
259
- An endogenous circannual clock, separate from the SCN but location unknown, runs at approximately 365 days
- Melatonin signal entrains circannual clock
- Humans: equatorial animals thus circadian rhythms generally dominate over circannual rhythms
seasonal rhythms
260
a type of depression that results from insufficient amounts of daylight during winter months
SAD
261
neurochemical causes of SAD
- overproduction of melatonin
| - lower levels of serotonin, excessive reuptake
262
SAD treatments
- phototherapy
| - antidepressants (SSRI)
263
advantages and functions of sleep (3)
- keeps us safe
- restores our bodies
- memories are consolidated during sleep
264
how sleep keeps us safe
predation risk correlates w sleep patterns
265
how sleep restores our bodies
- growth hormone (GH)
- repair of free radical-induced damage
- reduced energy expenditure
266
how memories are consolidated during sleep
- learning during waking strengthens connections
| - memory processes reorganized during sleep
267
scientific research methods to study sleep (3)
- EEG
- EMG
- EOG
268
electrodes on scalp to record gross activity of brain. synchronized and desynchronized activity.
electroencephalogram (EEG)
269
electrodes on muscles to record movement
electromyogram (EMG)
270
electrodes on eyelids to detect eye movements
electooculogram (EOG)
271
both waking and sleep are active processes and involve ...
reciprocal circuits of excitation and inhibition
272
- independent action of many neurons
- correlated w alertness
- higher EEG frequencies (beta, gamma)
- more awake/alert. dominant frequency.
desynchronous brain activity
273
- neurons are firing more in unison
- characterizes deep stages of sleep
- lower EEG frequencies (delta, theta)
synchronous brain activity
274
brain waves from fastest to slowest
- gamma
- beta
- alpha
- theta
- delta
275
delta
1-4 Hz
| deep sleep
276
theta
4-8 Hz
| creative inspiration, learning/memory, sleep
277
alpha
8-12 Hz
| relaxed wakefulness. little attention or concentration. (bored or daydreaming)
278
beta
13-30 Hz
| alert wakefulness. active thinking and attention (would have this during an exam for example)
279
gamma
30-100+ Hz
| alert wakefulness. sensory processing.
280
the EEG during wakefulness
- alternation between beta (awake, alert) and alpha (awake, relaxed)
- ultradian cycles ~90 mins
- high frequency gamma band activity during sensory input
281
- similar to awake EEG, increasing theta
- heart rate and muscle tension decrease
- hypnic myolclonia (jerk)
stage 1 of sleep
282
- sleep spindles. onset of stage
- k-complexes
- roughly 40-60% of sleep is in this stage
- fairly light sleep
stage 2 of sleep
283
Stage 2 EEG: K Complexes and Sleep Spindles
| both are generated by _________ and may reflect brain's attempts to monitor external environment while maintaining sleep
thalamus
284
hypothesized functions of K-complexes and sleep spindles
- suppressing cortical arousal to non-dangerous external stimuli
- aiding in sleep based memory-consolidation
285
- appearance of delta waves: large, v slow waves
- parasympathetic ANS becomes more active (slower breathing)
- growth hormone released
stage 3 of sleep
286
- delta waves are present about half the time
- deepest level of sleep
- growth hormone released
stage 4 of sleep
287
slow wave sleep. deep stages. need these stages to really feel rested
stages 3 and 4
288
- active EEG w small amplitude, high-frequency waves (beta), like an awake person
- muscles are relaxed (inactivated)
- sympathetic ANS (breathing and heart rate faster)
- genital engorgement
- paradoxical sleep
REM sleep
289
brain activity, but paralyzed from neck down during REM sleep
paradoxical sleep
290
a typical night of sleep
- avg adult sleep time ranges from 7-8 hrs
- 45-50% total is stage 2 sleep, 20% is REM sleep
- cycles last 90-110 mins, but cycles early in the night have more stage 3 and 4 SWS, and later cycles have more REM sleep
291
how much sleep to newborns need?
about 16 hours
292
how much sleep do avg adults need?
about 7-10 hours
293
how much sleep does avg college student need?
about 9 hours, but gets about 6
294
sleep deprivation can be either
acute or chronic
295
minimal sleep deprivation leads to
irritability, poor concentration
296
moderate sleep deprivation leads to
depression, difficulty learning
297
severe sleep deprivation leads to
brief visual hallucinations, adverse health outcomes
298
the control of wakefulness:
| reticular formation
- helps maintain desynchronized activity in cerebral cortex
| - when inactive, cortical neuronal activity becomes synchronized
299
the control of wakefulness:
| locus coeruleus and anterior raphe nuclei
- releases norepinephrine (LC) and serotonin (ARN)
- both areas have diverse and rich projections to many brain areas
- most active in alert states; silent during REM
300
activity in the default mode network (DMN) when
task negative (unfocused), daydreaming, mind wandering
301
Initiation and control of NREM sleep
- preoptic area of hypothalamus
| - LC and RN
302
Initiation and control of NREM sleep: preoptic area of hypothalamus
- stimulation inhibits wakefulness circuits (=more sleepy)
| - NREM-on cells
303
Initiation and control of NREM sleep: LC and RN
-norepinephrine and serotonin release decreases, preparing brain for REM sleep
304
REM-on area
- reticular formation in rostral pons
| - responsible for rapid eye movement and muscle paralysis
305
REM-off areas
- LC and RN
- decrease activity before REM sleep and did-inhibits the pons
- after about 30mins of REM, the LC and RN reactivate, inhibiting pons leading to wakefulness or more NREM sleep
306
biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: acetylcholine and glutamate
high during wakefulness and REM
307
biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: histamine
- high during wakefulness, low during sleep
| - lower during REM and NREM
308
biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: norepinephrine and serotonin
- high during wakefulness
- lower during NREM
- no activity during REM
309
biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: adenosine
- builds up during wakefulness
- gradually drops during sleep
- caffeine blocks adenosine receptors
310
biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: melatonin
- onset of dark cycle
| - surge before "opening of sleep gate"
311
dreaming behavior occurs during which types of sleep?
both REM and NREM
312
dreams in REM sleep
- dreams are length, complicated, vivid, and storylike
- only seen in birds and mammals
- brain development
- REM rebound
313
NREM dreams
(usually stage 3 or 4) are short episodes characterized by logical single images and a relative lack of emotion
314
possible functions of dreams:
| evolutionary model
stimulating threatening events so we can cope w them in real life
315
possible functions of dreams:
| neural network model
activation synthesis
316
possible functions of dreams:
| memory model
reorganizing and consolidating memories, integrating new experiences with established memories
317
______ _________ is correlated w better learning and long-term memory retention
REM sleep
318
REM deprivation leads to irritability, poor concentration and learning. true or false?
true
319
REM rebound suggests REM sleep plays a critical role in normal adult brain. true or false?
true
320
abnormality in the amount, quality or timing of sleep
- insomnia
- narcolepsy
- hypersomnia
dyssomnias
321
abnormal behavior or physiology during sleep
- nightmares/night terrors
- sleep terror
- somnambulism (sleepwalking)
- RLS
parasomnias
322
-trouble falling asleep
onset insomnia
323
many awakenings during the night, with difficulty going back to sleep
maintenance insomnia
324
sleep state misperception
pseudo-insomnia
325
during the day people w insomnia may be:
- drowsy
- anxious and irritable
- forgetful, with difficulty concentrating
326
disorder characterized by the rapid and often unexpected onset of REM sleep (no SWS)
- often has emotional trigger
- microsleeps
- cataplexy (sudden muscular paralysis) and atonia (loss of muscle strength)
- genetic component
- no known cure, SSRIs help some
narcolepsy
327
___________ normally promotes wakefulness and inhibits REM sleep
hypocretin
328
interfering w/ hypocretin signaling leads to __________
narcolepsy
329
humans w narcolepsy have lost ___% of their hypothalamic hypocretin neurons
90%
330
disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness
- lack of or interrupted sleep at night
- nap frequently (and inappropriately)
- anxiety, irritation, restlessness, slower thinking, memory difficulty
- comorbid w many psychological disorders
hypersomnia
331
breathing-related sleep disorders (4)
- hypopnea
- apnea
- obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea
- sudden infant death syndrome
332
shallow breathing or a very low rate of breathing
hypopnea
333
breathing stops more completely
apnea
334
often occurs in obese individuals who snore
obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea
335
urge to move our legs or other body parts, often while attempting to sleep
-dopamine irregularities
restless leg syndrome
336
- "sleepwalking"
- occurs during deepest stages of Slow Wave Sleep
- CAN wake people up without hurting them
somnambulism
337
More than 50% of adults in last year
Increases w age
#2 health complaint
2x more common in females
Insomnia stats
338
change in an organism's behavior or thought as a result of experience. Not reflexes or instincts.
learning
339
change in magnitude of response to environmental events.
- habituation
- sensitization
non-associative learning
340
connection between two elements or events
- classical conditioning
- operant conditioning
associative learning
341
decrease in strength or occurrence of behavioral response after repeated exposure to stimulus
-not to be confused w sensory adaptation
habituation
342
experience of one (startling) stimulus heightens the behavioral response to subsequent stimuli
-becoming more sensitive to something
sensitization
343
purpose of habituation
to allow the organism to ignore old or non-important cues and focus on learning new or important info
344
purpose of sensitization
to allow the organism to focus on dangerous, irritating, or annoying stimuli
345
a type of enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from high-energy, phosphate-donating molecules to specific substrates
- "phosphorylation"
- Ex: ATP --> ADP
- usually results in functional change of target protein
kinase
346
the cAMP-PKA-MAPK-CREB Pathway leads to ...
long-term changes in behavior
347
- the conditioned stimulus overlaps the unconditioned stimulus
- no stimulus-free interval
delay (classical) conditioning
348
- the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus do not overlap
- a stimulus-free interval occurs
- requires the participation of forebrain areas
- requires conscious, declarative processes
trace (classical) conditioning
349
- large, 2D
- receive inputs from climbing fibers and parallel fibers
- form inhibitory synapses on output cells in deep cerebellar nuclei
purkinje cells
350
reduced activity in purkinje cells is
long-term depression (LTD)
351
___________ will occur when the parallel fibers and climbing fibers activate the inhibitory purkinje cells at the same time
learning
352
projects to facial and abducencs nuclei controlling for reflexive eye blink
red nucleus
353
important for learning eyeblink conditioning
| key area for association
lateral interpositus nucleus
354
a conscious feeling of being afraid
fear
355
the unconscious mobilization of defensive behaviors
threat
356
__________ plays an important role in the classical conditioning of emotional responses
amygdala
357
consequences of a behavior shape future performance
operant conditioning
358
increases likelihood of behavior
reinforcement
359
adding something desirable to increase likelihood of behavior
positive reinforcement
360
removing something undesirable to increase likelihood of behavior
negative reinforcement
361
decreases likelihood of behavior
punishment
