Exam 3 Flashcards by Alyssa Becker

Methods of Conferring/Inducing Immunity

Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the 2 types of Acquired Immunity

Passive and Active

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are 2 ways Passive Immunity occurs

Artificial immune globulins

Colostral antibodies

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are 2 ways Active Immunity occurs

Artificial immunization

Natural infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Passive and Active are _____

Types of Acquired Immunity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Artificial immune globulins and Colostral antibodies are what immunity

Passive Immunity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Artificial immunization and natural infection are what immunity

Active Immunity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Artificial immunization occurs in which 2 types of organisms

Living and Non-living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Living and non-living organisms can be used in what form of active immunity

Artificial immunization

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recombinant organisms come from (living/non-living) organisms

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Viral vectors and Bacterial vectors come from

Recombinant organisms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Recombinant organisms give rise to what 2 vectors

Viral and Bacterial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fully virulent

Ex and Living/Non-living

Contagious ecthyma

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Heterologous

Ex and Living/Non-living

Measles

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Culture attenuated

Ex and Living/Non-living

Distemper

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Genetically attenuated

Ex and Living/Non-living

Pseudorabies

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Contagious ecthyma
Measles
Distemper
Pseudorabies

are all examples of what type of organisms

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Contagious ecthyma is what type of living organism

Fully virulent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Measles is what type of living organism

Heterologous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Distemper is what type of living organism

Culture attenuated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pseudorabies is what type of living organism

Genetically attenuated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fully virulent
Heterologous
Culture attenuated
Genetically attenuated

are all what type of organism

Living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Killed organisms
Isolated antigens

are what type of organism

Non-living

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Killed organisms include

Bacterins

Viruses

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Non-living organisms include what 2 groups

Killed organisms | Isolated antigens

Isolated antigens include what 4 groups

Cloned antigens Toxoids DNA vaccines Synthetic antigens

Cloned antigens Toxoids DNA vaccines Synthetic antigens are from what group of non-living organisms

Isolated antigens

Example of cloned antigens

Feline leukemia

Feline leukemia is an example of what type of isolated antigen

Cloned antigen

Does Active Immunity have: Specificity Memory

Yes | Yes

What type of Immunity has both specificity and memory

Active Immunity

Microbial antigen (vaccine or infection) Days/weeks Challenge infection Recovery immunity This is the process of what type of immunity

Active Immunity

Does Passive Immunity have: Specificity Memory

Yes | No

What type of Immunity has only specificity, no memory

Passive Immunity

Serum (antibodies) from immune individual Administration of serum to uninfected individual Infection Recovery immunity Is what type of Immunity

Passive Immunity

What immunity is given when serum from immune individual is administered to uninfected individuals

Passive Immunity

What immunity is given when microbial antigen (vaccine or infection) is used

Active Immunity

What type of immunity occurs days to weeks later

Active Immunity

What type of Passive Immunization (Homologous/Heterlogous) | Horse immune globulin administered to dog

Heterologous

Horse immune globulin given to horse is what type of passive immunization

Homologous

Passive Immunization | 2 types:

Heterologous | Homologous

Heterologous and Homologous are 2 types of what Immunization

Passive

Amount of anitbody in serum lasts steady until 21 days when horse immune globulin is given (Heterologous/Homologous)

Homologous | Horse

Amount of antibody in serum, severe decrease and ends at 7 days when horse immune globulin is given (Heterologous/Homologous)

Heterlogous | Dog

Which type of Passive Immunization lasts longer

Homologous

Major consideration of an ideal vaccine

Correlate of protection

Correlate of protection =

Major consideration of an ideal vaccine

4 qualities of an ideal vaccine

1. Mimic natural infection without actual pathogen 2. Prolonged and enhanced immunity 3. Safe with few or no side effects 4. Stable and easy to administer

Prolonged and enhanced immunity must have

Efficient antigen presentation

Efficient antigen presentation is needed for

Prolonged and enhanced immunity

Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen to enhance immunity in individuals of an outbred population is needed for

Prolonged and enhanced immunity

Prolonged and enhanced immunity not only needs efficient antigen presentation it also needs

Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen

Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen enhances immunity in what indivduals

Outbred population

Prolonged and enhanced immunity not only needs activation of T and B cells to several epitopes it also needs

Efficient antigen presentation

Successful Vaccination Programs

Smallpox Rinderpest Mad itch

Mad itch is also known as

Pseudorabies

Pseudorabies is also called

Mad itch

Pseudorabies was eradicated in pigs with what type of vaccine

Recombinant or gene deleted

Vulnerable populations are when

No one is immunized

Contagious disease spreads through the population when

No one is immunized

When no one is immunized what happens

Contagious disease spreads through the population

Contagious disease spreads through some of the population when

Some of the population is immunized

When some of the population is immunized what happens

Contagious disease spreads through some of the population

Ability of the population to resist infection occurs when

Most of the population gets immunized

Spread of contagious disease is contained when

Most of the population gets immunized

When most of the population gets immunized what happens

Spread of contagious disease is contained

What are 3 types of available vaccines

1. Killed vaccines/purified subunit 2. Modified live vaccines (infectious) 3. Recombinant vaccines

What type of the available vaccines are infectious

Modified live

Killed vaccines have what type of subunit

Purified

Purified subunits are seen in which type of vaccines

Killed

Processing of non-infectious vaccine induces B-cell and Th2 responses What type of vaccine

Killed

Killed vaccines induce what type of response

B cell | Th2

B cell and Th2 responses are caused by what type of vaccine

Killed

Dendritic cells performs these tasks in killed vaccines

Uptake of extracellular antigen Inactivated bacteria/virus Inactivated Toxins

What cell performs these tasks in killed vaccines Uptake of extracellular antigen Inactivated bacteria/virus Inactivated toxins

Dendritic cells

There is no ___ activation in killed vaccines

CD8

What type of vaccine has no CD8 activation

Killed

MHC II presentation uses what 2 Interleukins

IL-1 | or IL-4

What class presentation uses IL-1 or IL-4

MHC II

Th2 activation uses what Interleukins

IL-4 IL-4 IL-10

What activation uses IL-4, IL-5, IL-10

Th2

Antibody production with Th2 bias produces what Ig

IgE | some IgG

IgE and some IgG is produced during the production of

Antibody with Th2 bias

These advantages are what type of vaccines: Stable on storage (lyophilization) Killed by heat, chemical, irradiation Noninfectious and cannot cause disease

Killed

Stable of storage is known as

Lyophilization

Lyophilization is

Stable on storage

Advantages of Killed Vaccines

Stable on storage Killed by heat, chemical, irradiation Noninfectious and cannot cause disease

What type of vaccine is noninfectious and cannot cause disease

Killed

What type of vaccine is killed by heat, chemical, irradiation

Killed

What type of vaccine is stable on storage

Killed

These Disadvantages are what type of vaccine: Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells Elicits principally antibody responses (Th2) Strain specific Requires adjuvants Increase risk of adverse reactions

Killed

Disadvantages of Killed Vaccines

Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells Elicits Th2 responses Strain specific Requires adjuvants Increase risk of adverse reactions

What type of vaccine | Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells

Killed

Killed vaccines do not elicit what type of response

Th1

What type of vaccine | Elicits principally antibody responses Th2

Killed

What type of vaccine is | Strain specific

Killed

What type of vaccine | Requires adjuvants

Killed

What type of vaccine | Increase risk of adverse reactions

Killed

Killed vaccines require

Adjuvants

Killed vaccines increase the risk of

Adverse reactions

Immune response enhancer is ____

Adjuvant

Depot Particulate Immuno-stimulatory are 3 types of

Adjuvants

3 types of adjuvants

Depot Particulate Immuno-stimulatory

Adjuvant is an immune response ____

Enhancer

What Potentiates killed/subunit antigens by causing inflammation to increase cytokines and co-stimulatory molecules

Adjuvant

Adjuvant causes what ___

Inflammation

Adjuvant causes inflammation to increase what

Cytokines | Co-stimulatory molecules

Inflammation causes increase in cytokines and co-stimulatory molecules in what substance

Adjuvants

What stimulates inflamation and delays antigen decay

Depot adjuvants

Depot adjuvants stimulate

Inflammation

Depot adjuvants delay

Antigen decay

Aluminum salts and Water-in-oil are what types of adjuvants

Depot

2 examples of depot adjuvants

Aluminum salts | Water-in-oil

What type of depot adjuvant Produces strong Th2 responses and is Associated with sarcomas in cats

Aluminum salts (alum)

Aluminum salts produce strong ___ responses

Th2

Aluminum salts are asscoiated with ___ in cats

Sarcomas

Aluminum salts are what type of adjuvant

Depot

What type of depot adjuvant | Induces Th1

Water-in-oil

Freund's incomplete adjuvant is also known as what depot adjuvant

Water-in-oil

Water-in-oil is also known as

Freund's incomplete adjuvant

Mineral oil is very irritating and causes tissue damage in

Food animals

Can mineral oil cause hides of food animals to be condemned

Yes

What type of depot adjuvant induces Th1

Water-in-oil

What type of depot adjuvant induces Th2

Aluminum salts

What type of adjuvant enhance antigen-presentation and co-stimulation of T cells

Particulate adjuvants

What do particulate adjuvants do

Enhance antigen-presentation and co-stimulation of T cells

What are 2 types of particulate adjuvants

Liposomes | Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens

Liposomes and Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens are what type of adjuvants

Particulate

What are lipid-based microparticles containing antigens

Liposomes

Liposomes are lipid-based microparticles containing

Antigens

What are readily trapped and processed in endosomes

Liposomes

Liposomes are readily trapped and processed in

Endosomes | MHC-II

Hapten-carrier principle improve immunogenicity by activating T-cells

Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens

Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens are what type of carrier

Hapten

Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens improve

immunogenicity

How do carrier proteins improve immunogenicity

Activating T-cells

Toxoids + Haemophilius influenza b polysaccharides | Example of what type of particulate adjuvants

Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens

3 types of Immunostimulatory adjuvants

CpG motifs of bacteria Saponins BCG or Muramyl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

CpG motifs of bacteria Saponins BCG or Muramyl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are what types of adjuvant

Immunostimulatory

Proprionobacterium acnes in Eqstim stimulate

TLR9

Eqstim is what type of immunostimulatory adjuvants

CpG motifs of bacteria

When CpG motifs of bacteria are added to Bordetella pertussis vaccine it enhances

Th1

B pertussis killed vaccine stimulates

Th2 and IgE production

____ is an immunostimulatory adjuvant extracted from bark of tree Quillaja saponaria (Quil A)

Saponins

What type of immunostimulatory adjuvant creates pores in the cell membrane

Saponins

Saponins do what to the cell membrane

create pores

Saponins direct antigens into

Cystosol

Why do saponins direct antigens into the cytosol

MHC I processing and presenting

What type of Immunostimulatory adjuvants create pores in cell membrane and directs antigens into cytosol for MHC I processing and presenting

Saponins

Saponins activates ____ T lymphocytes

cytotoxic

What type of Immunostimulatory Adjuvants activates cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Saponins

What type of Immunostimulatory adjuvant enhances Th1 immune responses by stimulating IL-12 secretion

BCG

Murmayl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is what type of Immunostimulatory adjuvant

BCG

BCG enhances what immune responses

Th1

How does BCG enhance Th1 immune responses

Stimulates IL-12 secretion

RSV is

Respiratory syncytial virus

RSV is an adverse reaction caused by

adjuvants

Adverse reactions of adjuvants can cause

RSV

True/False | RSV is similar to Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)

True

What disease is seen as a vaccine enhanced disease in children exposed to the virus

RSV

Formalin-inactivated vaccine was given ID in 1960 for what disease

RSV

What is the leading cause of respiratory disease in infants

RSV

Stimulated systemic IgE antibody to glycoprotein epitopes but not neutralizing antibody to viral epitopes is an example of

Inappropriate immune response (Th2)

Inappropriate immune response (Th2) | Stimulated systemic IgE antibody to glycoprotein epitopes but does not

Neutralize antibody to viral epitopes

IL-4 and IgE produced in mice and cattle is induced by what vaccine

Killed BRSV

Killed BRSV causes what 2 things to be produced in mice and cattle

IL-4 and IgE

Attenuated vaccines are what type of vaccine

Modified Live

Modified Live Vaccines are also known as

Attenuated

What type of vaccine is infectious

Modified Live

MLV=

Modified Live Vaccine

What vaccine is made by reducing virulence of a pathogen

MLV

Polio Measles Chicken pox Yellow fever are all examples of what type of MLV

Viral

BCG Typhoid Brucellosis are all examples of what type of MLV

Bacterial

Polio | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Viral

BCG | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Bacterial

Measles | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Viral

Typhoid | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Bacterial

Chicken pox | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Viral

Yellow fever | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Viral

Brucellosis | (Viral/Bacterial) MLV

Bacterial

In a MLV what is removed

Virulence gene

What vaccine is non-replicating

MLV

What vaccine develops a strain of organism that lacks ability to cause disease

MLV

MLV develops a strain of organism that lacks ability to cause disease in 2 examples

Modify genes of virulence Pseudorabies vaccine for pigs

In what instance is thymidine kinase and gE removed

Pseudorabies vaccine for pigs

When thymidine kinase and gE are removed what happens

Virus cannot replicate and spread via nerves

When thymidine kinase and gE are removed serologic testing for Ab to gE should be (+/-)

Negative

What does it mean when Ab test for gE is positive

Exposed to the field virus

DIVA stands for

Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals

What is considered a marker vaccine or DIVA

Pseudorabies for pigs

Advantages of MLV are

1. Replicates 2. Less virulence than field strain 3. No adjuvant needed

Replicates Less virulence than field strain No adjuvant needed are all advantages of what type of vaccine

MLV

What advantage of MLV: Exposes immune system to numerous epitopes and persists longer than killed

Replicates

What advantage of MLV: Is grown in non target cells (attenuated)

Less virulence than field strain

What advantage of MLV: Activates cytotoxic T cells and is Good for herd immunity

No adjuvant needed

There is good _____ which is why MLV do not need adjuvant

Co-stimulation

Replicates is an advantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

Less virulence than field strain is an advantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

No adjuvant needed due to good co-stimulation is an advantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

In MLV, when ______ is needed, it is good for herd immunity

No adjuvant

When no adjuvant is needed in MLV, _____ are activated

Cytotoxic T cells

What part of a MLV exposes the immune system to numerous epitopes and persists longer than killed

Replicates

These are disadvantages of what type of vaccine Can cause illness or mild disease Immunocompromised hosts are at risk Can revert to virulence

MLV

MLV disadvantages are

1. Can cause illness or mild disease 2. Immunocompromised hosts are at risk 3. Can revert to virulence

Can cause illness or mild disease | disadvantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

Immunocompromised hosts are at risk | disadvantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

Can revert to virulence | disadvantage of what type of vaccine

MLV

MLV stimulates what 3 responses

B cell Th1 CTL

B cell Th1 CTL responses are due to what type of vaccine

MLV

CD8 T cells can become what cells

Memory CTL cells

Memory CTL cells are derived from what cells

CD8 T cells

Th1 activated cells need what 2 factors to be CD8 T cells

IFN-y | IL-2

IFN-y and IL-2 are both used by Th1 activated cells to become

CD8 T cells

Th1 activation can become B cell activation = ____production

IgG

B cell activation IgG production is derived from

Th1 activation

Apoptotic cell + MHC -II =

Th1 activation

What does an apoptotic cell need for Th1 activation

MHC -II

Apoptotic cell + MHC-I =

CD8 T cell

What does an apoptotic cell need to become a CD8 T cell

MHC-I

Presentation on MHC-I by what cell can also lead to CD8 T cells

Virus-infected cells

Virus infected cells + presentation on MHC-I =

CD8 T cells

MHC-II presentation from Apoptotic cell to Th1 activation requires what factor

IL-12 by APCs

IL-12 by APC's is required for what process

Th1 activation

When CD4 T cells are activated in MLV it helps to activate what else

Macrophages CD8 T cells B cells

Macrophages CD8 T cells B cells are all activated when what cells are activated

CD4 T cells

Brucella abortus strain I 9 caused lifelong immunity in what vaccine risk

MLV

What strain caused lifelong immunity as a MLV vaccine risk

I 9

Fever, drop in milk production Abortion of pregnant cows, orchitis in bulls Undulant fever in humans are all residual virulence of

Brucella abortus I 9

I 9 causes lifelong immunity, but can also cause

``` Fever Drop in milk production Abortion of pregnant cows Orchitis in bulls Undulant fever in humans ```

How long do killed vaccines of Brucella abortus protect

<1 year

Is an adjuvant needed in killed Brucella abortus vaccines

Yes

What is the new live attenuated strain of Brucella abortus

RB51

RB51 does not produce what

LPS antigens

LPS antigens are not produced in what strain of vaccine

RB51

RB51 is what type of vaccine

Live attenuated

RB51 stimulates strong ___ responses

Th1

Strong Th1 responses are stimulated by what strain of Brucella abortus

RB51

Is RB51 (more/less) pathogenic than strain I 9

Less

I 9 is less pathogenic than

RB51

RB51 is more pathogenic than

I 9

Can the new live attenuated strain be differentiated from field bacteria

Yes

RB51 can be differenetiated from what

Field bacteria

What happened when the North American PRRS vaccine introduced into Denmark for European PRRs

Vaccine virus reverted and spread within vaccinated herds

What % similarity did North American PRRs have to European PRRs

60%

What happens when a vaccine virus is reverted

Spreads within vaccinated herds

Can MLV cause cattle abortions

Yes

Do administration routes influence the type of response

Yes

Administration route influences what

Type of Response

What are the 3 Local Administration Routes

Intranasal Oral Vaginal

Intranasal Oral Vaginal are all what type of Administration Route

Local

Mucosal immunity through local routes produces what antibody

IgA

IgA is produced by what immunity during local administration

Mucosal

Systemic immunity through local routes produces what antibody

IgG

IgG is produced by what immunity during local administration

Systemic

What are the 3 Systemic Administration Routes

Subcutaneous Intradermal Intramuscular

Subcutaneous Intradermal Intramuscular are all 3 types of what administration route

Systemic

Systemic Adminsitration can cause ___

Draining

Draining is caused by what Administration Route

Systemic

Systemic Administration causes lymph nodes to release what antibody

IgG

IgG is released by lymph nodes by what administration route

Systemic

What administration route stimulates only systemic immunity

Systemic

What specific vaccine can induce systemic and mucosal immunity

Poliovirus

Poliovirus vaccines induce what immunity

Systemic and Mucosal

What type of vaccine is Salk vaccine

Killed

Salk vaccine can be given what 2 ways

IM or SQ

What vaccine induces antibodies in blood

Salk vaccine

What vaccine prevents paralytic syndrome

Salk

Salk vaccine prevents what

Paralytic syndrome

Salk vaccine induces ____ in blood

antibodies

What type of vaccine is Sabin vaccine

MLV

What vaccine is given as an oral sugar cube

Sabin

Sabin vaccine is given how

oral sugar cube

what vaccine stimulates mucosal IgA

Sabin

What vaccine prevents poliovirus infection at the intestine

Sabin

What vaccine has the risk of paralytic poliomyelitis

Sabin

Sabin vaccine stimulates what antibody

Mucosal IgA

Sabin vaccine prevents poliovirus infection at _____

the intestine

Sabin vaccine has the risk of

paralytic poliomyelitis

What antibody has reactivity to vaccine stabilizers

IgE

IgE can have reactivity to what

Vaccine stabilizers

IgE reactivity to vaccine stabilizers has (Immediate/slow) allergic reaction after vaccination

Immediate

Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination are caused by what antibody

IgE

Why is there an immediate allergic reaction after vaccination

Reactivity to vaccine stabilizers

When there is a reactivity to vaccine stabilizers it causes what

Immediate allergic reaction after vaccination

Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination can cause

Dyspnea Facial edema Vomiting Circulatory collapse

``` Dyspnea Facial edema Vomiting Circulatory collapse are all severe reactions of what ```

Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination

___ reactivity to fetal calf serum in 7/10 small breed dogs is due to what

IgE

Bovine serum albumin is ____ mg/dose in canine vaccines

>1.0

IgE reactivity to ____ and ___ used in vaccines as stabilizers

Gelatin and Casein

Gelatin and Casein are used as

Vaccine stabilizers

Gelatin and Casein are used as vaccine stabilizers and cause what

IgE reactivity

WHO dictates ____ of BSA/dose in human vaccines

<50 ng

How many types of Recombinant vaccines are there

USDA uses the 4 types of recombinant vaccines to classify

Genetically engineered vaccines

Genetically engineered vaccines are ___ vaccines

Recombinant

What type is subunit vaccine

Type I

Type I is what type of vaccine

Subunit vaccine

What type of vaccine has purified protein from recombinant organisms (E coli)

Type I

Example of a recombinant organism

E coli

What type of vaccine stimulates Th2

Type I

Type I vaccine stimulates

Th2

Type I vaccines | Purified protein from

recombinant organisms

What type of vaccine is gene deleted

Type II

Type II vaccine is

Gene deleted

What type of vaccine has live replicating organisms with gene deletions

Type II

Type II vaccines have live replicating organisms that contain

gene deletions

What type of vaccine is live vectored vaccine

Type III

Type III vaccines are

Live vectored vaccines

What type of vaccine has replicating vectors

Type III

``` Adenoviruses Canarypox Vaccinia virus Salmonella are all examples of ```

Replicating vectors

Examples of replicating vectors

Adenoviruses Canarypox Vaccinia virus Salmonella

Replicating vectors contain (heterologous/homologous) genes

Heterologous

Type III vaccines contain what type of genes

Heterologous

Heterologous genes are found in what type of vaccine

Type III

What type of vaccine are DNA vaccines

Type IV

Type IV vaccines are

DNA vaccine

What type of vaccine has naked DNA that is expressed into the protein of interest

Type IV

Type IV vaccines have what type of DNA expressed into protein

Naked DNA

What are the 4 types of recombinant vaccines

1. Subunit vaccine 2. Gene Deleted 3. Live Vectored Vaccine 4. DNA vaccine

``` Subunit vaccine Gene Deleted Live Vectored Vaccines DNA Vaccine are all what type of vaccines ```

Recombinant

What type of vaccines have genes excised and inserted into a plasmid

Recombinant protein/subunit vaccine

Recombinant protein/subunit vaccines have genes that are

Excised and inserted into a plasmid

What type of vaccine consist of a fragment of a microbial pathogen expressed using recombinant DNA technology

Recombinant protein/subunit vaccines

Recombinant antigen is formulated in

adjuvant

Adjuvant formulates

Recombinant antigen

Feline leukemia Vaccine Hepatitis B Virus Human Papillomavirus are all examples of what vaccines

Recombinant vaccine

3 examples of Recombinant vaccines

Feline Leukemia Hepatitis B Human papillomavirus

What had the 1st commercially available subunit vaccine

Feline leukemia

Feline leukemia had the 1st commercially available

subunit vaccine

What is composed of the virus surface proteins produced in yeast

Hepatitis B

Hepatitis B is composed of the virus surface proteins produced in

yeast

What is composed of the major capsid protein

Human papillomavirus

Human papillomavirus is composed of the major ___protein

capsid

1. Safe 2. Non-replicating 3. Isolate protective antigen are all advantages of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I) vaccine

Subunit (Type I) vaccines have what 3 advantages

1. Safe 2. Non-replicating 3. Isolate protective antigen

Safe | Advantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

Non-replicating | Advantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

Isolate protective antigen | Advantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

1. Present limited number of epitopes to immune system 2. Require repeated administration and adjuvants 3. Post translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein Disadvantages of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

3 Disadvantages of Subunit (Type I) vaccines

1. Present limited number of epitopes to immune system 2. Require repeated administration and adjuvants 3. Postr translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein

True/False | E coli does not have golgi

True

Does E coli have golgi

Present limited number of epitopes to immune system | Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

Require repeated administration and adjuvants | Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit (Type I)

Post translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Subunit | Type I

What type of vaccine is Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

Type III

Type III vaccines are what type of vaccine

Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

In what type of vaccine has DNA encoding protein of interest inserted into a live vector

Type III

DNA encoding protein of interest is inserted into a live vector in what type of vaccine

Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

``` Vaccinia virus Canarypox Salmonella Adenovirus are all examples of ```

Vectors

What are some vectors that can be used

Vaccinia virus Canarypox Salmonella Adenovirus

When a recombinant pox virus containing viral gene is given as a vaccine what happens

Virus invades host cell

When virus invades a host cell then what happens

Viral antigen expressed on target cell surface

Where is viral antigen expressed

Target cell surface

When viral antigen is expressed on target cell surface it triggers what

Immune response

Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine is what type of vaccine

Type III

What is an example of a Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

Recombinant Canine Distemper Virus

Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine is what type of vaccine

Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

HA protein =

Hemagglutinin

F protein=

Fusion

What is the 1st step of Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine

RNA is reverse transcribed into cDNA

cDNA is what

DNA copy of RNA

DNA copy of RNA is known as

cDNA

cDNA is used for what 2 proteins

F and HA

Does Canarypox have a large enough genome to accommodate extra nuclear material

Yes

What step uses an in vitro procedure where cDNA is inserted into the genome of the canarypox virus

Step 2

When cDNA is inserted into genome of canarypox it makes what

rDistemper virus master seed

In step 3, rDistemper virus master seed is propagated in chick embryo fibroblast cell culture to produce

vaccine virus

1. Safe 2. Accommodate large foreign genes 3. Infect host cells but do not replicate 4. Express vaccine antigen in host cells 5. Stimulates both B cell and T cell responses 6. Can be administered orally 7. No interference with maternal antibodies are all advantages of what type of vaccine

Type III | Live-vectored recombinant vaccine

1. Virulence 2. Immunity to vector may reduce effectiveness are disadvantages of what type of vaccine

Type III

Safe | is an advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Accommodate large foreign genes | an advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Infect host cells but do not replicate | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Type III vaccines infect host cells but do not

replicate

Express vaccine antigen in host cells | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Stimulated both B cell and T cell responses | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Can be administered orally | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

When Type III vaccines are given orally it stimulates

Mucosal immunity

Mucosal immunity is stimulated when Type III vaccines ...

are given orally

No interference with maternal antibodies | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Virulence | disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

Virulence in Type III vaccines is especially dangerous in

immunocompromised host

Immunocompromised hosts are seen with what virus

Vaccinia virus

Vaccinia virus causes what type of host

immunocompromised

Immunity to vector may reduce effectiveness | Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Type III

rLyme is what type of vaccine used in veterinary medicine

Type I

An example of Type I vaccines

rLyme

rPseudorabies virus is what type of vaccine used in veterinary medicine

Type II

An example of Type II vaccines

rPseudorabies virus

The following are what type of vaccine ``` rFeLV rFeline Rabies rFerret Distemper rEquine West Nile and Influenza rCanine Distemper virus Raboral V-RG ```

Type III

rFeLV is what type of vaccine

Type III

rFeline Rabies is what type of vaccine

Type III

rFerret Distemper is what type of vaccine

Type III

rEquine West Nile and Influenza is what type of vaccine

Type III

rCanine Distemper virus is what type of vaccine

Type III

Raboral V-RG in canines and wildlife is what type of vaccine

Type III

``` r-Lyme r-Pseudorabies r-FeLV r-Ferret Distemper r-Equine West Nile and Influenza r-Canine Distemper virus Raboral V-RG ``` are all __________ vaccines

Live-vectored recombinant

What is the antigen/vector of rLyme

Osp-A

Osp-A is the antigen/vector of what

r-Lyme

What is the antigen/vector of rPseudorabies

gE/thymidine kinase gene deleted

gE/thymidine kinase gene deleted is the antigen/vector of what

rPseudorabies

What is the antigen/vector of rFeLV

Canarypox

What is the antigen/vector of rFeline Rabies

Canarypox

What is the antigen/vector of rFerret Distemper

Canarypox

What is the antigen/vector of rEquine West Nile and Influenza

Canarypox

What is the antigen/vector of rCanine Distemper virus

Canarypox

What is the antigen/vector of Raboral V-RG

Vaccinia virus

Canarypox is the antigen/vector of what

``` rFeLV rFeline Rabies rFerret Distemper rEquine West Nile and Influenza rCanine Distemper virus ```

Vaccinia virus is the antigen/vector of what

Raboral V-RG

What type of vaccine uses recombinant plasmid DNA engineered to express a gene encoding an antigen

Type IV

DNA vaccines use recombinant plasmid DNA to express a gene encodign what

an antigen

Cloned microbial DNA in plasmid can go 1 of 2 ways (which cells)

Immature DC | Transfected cell

Transfected cell can cause 1 of 2 processes

Apoptosis | Immune Response

Immature DC has 1 process which is

Matures to DC1 or DC2 =Immune resonse

Can apoptosis lead to an immune response?

Yes

``` Alum Polysaccharides Synthetic polymers TLR agonists are all (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants ```

Conventional adjuvants

Cytokines Chemokines Costimulatory molecules are all (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Genetic

Alum is | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Convential

``` Polysaccharides are (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants ```

Conventional

Synthetic polymers are | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Conventional

TLR agonists are | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Conventional

Cytokines are | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Genetic

Chemokines are | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Genetic

Costimulatory molecules are | (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants

Genetics

When CD4 T cell interacts with B cell what is produced

Antibodies

When CD8 T cell is presented on MHC I what happens

Activated lymphocytes

West Nile Virus Innovator vaccine Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon DNA melanoma vaccine are all examples of what type of vaccines

Type IV | DNA vaccines

West Nile Virus Innovator vaccine 1st licensed in what animals

Horses

Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon is what brand

Apex-IHN | Novartis

Apex-IHN and Novartis are vaccines of

Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon

DNA melanoma vaccine for what animals

Dogs

1. Safe 2. Do not require cold chain 3. Will be processed in host cells and proteins expressed by host cells 4. Stimulates B cell and T cell responses 5. Can add cytokines or CpGs 6. Can be administered orally 7. No interference with maternal antibodies are advantages of what type of vaccine

Type IV (DNA vaccines)

1. Not very effective 2. Possible integration of DNA into host genome and activate oncogenes are disadvantages of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Safe | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Do not require cold chain | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Will be processed in host cells and proteins expressed by host cells advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Stimulates B cell and T cell responses | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Can add cytokines or CpGs | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Can be administered orally | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

What type of vaccine stimulates mucosal immunity when administered orally

Type IV

How do Type IV vaccines stimulate mucosal immunity

By being administered orally

Type IV vaccines stimulate what when administered orally

mucosal immunity

No interference with maternal antibodies | advantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Not very effective | Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

Prime boost strategy and DNA followed by killed antigens do what to Type IV vaccines

Make them not very effective

Possible integration of DNA into host genome and activate oncogenes Disadvantage of what type of vaccine

Type IV

What vaccines protect against dangerous diseases

Core Vaccines

What is the goal of core vaccines

Protect against dangerous diseases

Failure to use core vaccines does what

Places an animat risk

4 core vaccines for cats

Parvovirus Calcivirus Herpes Rabies

4 core vaccines for dogs

Parvovirus Distemper Adenovirus 2 Rabies

Rhinotracheitis is commonly known as

Herpes

``` Parvovirus Distemper Adenovirus 2 Rabies Core vaccines for which animal ```

Dog

``` Parvovirus Calcivirus Herpes Rabies Core vaccines for which animal ```

Cat

Parvovovirus is core for

dogs and cats

Distemper is core for

Dogs

Adenovirus 2 is core for

dogs

Calcivirus is core for

cats

Herpes (rhinotracheitis) is core for

cats

Rabies is core for

Dogs and cats

What vaccine are used against rare diseases, mild diseases or untested vaccines

Noncore vaccines

What vaccines are used for geographical risk

Noncore vaccines

Noncore vaccines are used for

Mild-rare diseases, untested vaccines or geographical risk

These are all what type of vaccine ``` Lyme disease Giardia Canine Adenovirus-1 Coronavirus Leptopspirosis Parainfluenza Influenza ```

Noncore vaccines

Lyme disease | Core/Noncore

Noncore

Giardia | Core/Noncore

Noncore

Canine Adenovirus-1 | Core/Noncore

Noncore

Coronavirus | Core/Noncore

Noncore

Leptospirosis | Core/Noncore

Core

Parainfluenza | Core/Noncore

Noncore

Influenza | Core/Noncore

Noncore

AAEP vaccines are given how often

Annual

Tetanus Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis West Nile Virus Rabies Core/Noncore vaccines

Core

Equine herpes virus 1 and 2 Equine influenza virus Core/Noncore vaccines

Noncore | At RISK Vaccines

Tetanus | Core/At risk

Core

Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis | Core/At risk

Core

West Nile Virus | Core/At risk

Core

Rabies | Core/At risk

Core

Equine herpes virus 1 and 2 | Core/At risk

At risk

Equine influenza virus | Core/At risk

At risk

DOI stands for

Duration of Immunity

Rabies vaccine has a duration of immunity for how long

3 years

what vaccine has a DOI of 3 years

Rabies

Protective titers for feline panleukopenia lasts for

7 years

which protective titers last 7 years

Feline panleukopenia

Canine distemper vaccine protects how long

5-7 years

Which vaccine protects for 5-7 years

Canine Distemper

Why should we monitor vaccine titers in older animals

To make decisions about revaccination

AAHA/AAFP guidelines state core vaccines DOI is

> or equal to 3 years

What are the 5 requirements of a vaccine prior to licensure by USDA

``` Purity Safety Potency Efficacy Relevance ```

``` Purity Safety Potency Efficacy Relevance are all requirements of what ```

Vaccine prior to licensure

Who licenses vaccines

USDA

Free of extraneous microorgansims =

Purity

Purity = free of

extraneous microorganisms

Free of causing local/systemic reactions =

Safety

Safety = free of causing

local/systemic reactions

Relative strength =

Potency

Potency = relative

strength

Effective according to the indication on the label (demonstrated by statistically valid host animal vaccination-challenge studies) =

Efficacy

What is demonstrated by statistically valid host animal vaccination-channelge studies

Efficacy

Efficacy is effective according to

Indication on the label

Is the product clinically relevant? =

Relevance

Relevance = Is the product

Clinically relevant

Vaccine failure can be due to 2 things

Correct or incorrect administration

Correct or incorrect administration can cause

Vaccine failure

Correct administration has 2 outcomes

Animal responds or Animal fails to respond

In what type of administration does the animal either respond or the animal fail to respond

Correct administration

When the animal responds there are 3 outcomes

Vaccine given too late, animal already infected Wrong strain or organism used Nonprotective antigens used

Vaccine given too late, animal already infected | animal responds/fails to respond

Animal responds

Wrong strain or organism used | animal responds/fails to respond

Animal responds

Nonprotective antigens used | animal responds/fails to respond

Animal responds

Vaccine given too late, animal already infected Wrong strain or organism used Nonprotective antigens used causes what response

Animal responds

4 outcomes when the animal fails to respond

Prior passive immunization Animal immunosuppressed Biological variation Inadequate vaccine

Prior passive immunization | animal responds/fails to respond

Fails to respond

Animal immunosuppressed | animal responds/fails to respond

Fails to respond

Biological variation | animal responds/fails to respond

Fails to respond

Inadequate vaccine | animal responds/fails to respond

Fails to respond

Prior passive immunization Animal immunosuppressed Biological variation Inadequate vaccine causes what response

Animal fails to respond

Incorrect administration of vaccine causes what 3 outcomes

Inappropriate route of administration Death of live vaccine Administered to passively protected animal

Inappropriate route of administration is due to (correct/incorrect) administration

Incorrect administration

Death of live vaccine is due to (correct/incorrect) administration

Incorrect administration

Administered to passively protected animal (correct/incorrect) administration

Incorrect administration

Inappropriate route of administration Death of live vaccine Administered to passively protected animal are due to what type of administration

Incorrect administration

Vaccine given too late, animal already infected Wrong strain or organism used Nonprotective antigens used Prior passive immunization Animal immunosuppressed Biological variation Inadequate vaccine are due to what type of administration

Correct administration

Cancer cells may differ ____ from normal cells

Antigenically

___ cells may differ antigenically from normal cells

Cancer cells

What cells may trigger weak immune response

Cancer cells

Cancer cells trigger what type of immune response

Weak

True/False | Cancer cells can mutate as they grow

True

Survivors are selected for

lack of antigenicity

Spontaneous tumors are more likely killed by

NK cells

what type of tumors are more likely killed by NK cells

Spontaneous

NK cells recognize and attack cells that fail to express what

MHC I molecules

What cells recognize and attack cells that fail to express MHC I molecules

NK cells

CTLs, activated macrophages or antibodies can kill

cancer cells

Cancer cells can be killed by what 3 things

CTLs Activated macrophages Antibodies

Failure of what type of immunity is due to tumor cell selection, Tregs, masking antibodies

Antitumor

Failure of antitumor immunity is due to

Tumor cell selection Tregs Masking antibodies

True/False | There is no effective, consistent antitumor immunotherapy

True

What are some stategies for antitumor immunotherapy

Cytokine/antibody administration | Active immunization using tumor antigens

Cytokine/antibody adminsitration and active immunization using tumor antigens is a strategy for

Antitumor immunotherapy

True/False | Many tumors are immunosuppressive

True

Many tumors are

Immunosuppressive

``` Differentiation antigens Excessive amounts of normal proteins Mutated proteins Cancer/testis antigens Viral coded proteins are all.... ```

Tumor antigens

What are 5 tumor antigens

``` Differentiation antigens Mutated proteins Viral coded proteins Cancer/testis antigens Excessive amounts of normal proteins ```

What type of tumor antigen: | Proteins associated with specific stages of cell differentiation

Differentiation antigens

Differentiation antigens are ____ associated with specific stages of cell differentiation

Proteins

What type of tumor antigen: | Altered forms of normal cellular proteins

Mutated proteins

Mutated proteins are altered forms of ____ proteins

normal cellular

What type of tumor antigen: | Products of genes of oncogenic viruses

Viral coded proteins

Viral coded proteins are products of genes of ____ viruses

Oncogenic

What type of tumor antigen: | Proteins of unknown function

Cancer/testis antigens

Cancer/testis antigens are proteins of ____function

unknown

What type of tumor antigen: | Over production of normal cell products

Excessive amounts of normal proteins

Excessive amounts of normal proteins = ____ of normal cell products

Over production

Tumor localized inflammation promotes what

Tumor formation

Tumor formation is promoted by tumor ____

localized inflammation

Example of tumor localized inflammation which promotes tumor formation

post-vaccinal sarcoma in a cat

Inflammation causes the use of what transcription factors

NF-a and B | STAT3

Transcription factors NF-a and B and STAT3 are both caused by

Inflammation

Transcription factors NF-a and B and STAT3 recruit what 3 things

Chemokines Cytokines Prostaglandins

Chemokines Cytokines Prostaglandins are recruited by what transcription factors

NF-a and B and STAT3

Chemokines Cytokines Prostaglandins cause what recruitment

Inflammatory cell recruitment

Inflammatory cell recruitment is initiated by what 3 things

Chemokines Cytokines Prostaglandins

Inflammatory cell recruitment causes

Cancer related inflammation

Cancer related inflammation is caused by

Inflammatory cell recruitment

Oncogenic virus and Chemical carcinogen both cause

Maligant transformation

Malignant transformation is caused by what 2 things

Oncogenic virus | Chemical carcinogen

Which source of malignant transformation causes identical new antigens

Oncogenic virus

Oncogenic virus + Malignant transformation =

identical new antigens

Which source of malignant transformation causes dissimilar new antigens

Chemical carcinogen

Chemical carcinogen + malignant transformation =

Dissimilar new antigens

Oncogenic virus causes | (identical/dissimilar) new antigens

Identical

Chemical carcinogen causes | (identical/dissimilar) new antigens

Dissimilar

Oncogenic virus | =(homogenous/heterogenous maligancies)

Homogeous

Chemical carcinogen | =(homogenous/heterogenous maligancies)

Heterogeneous

CML stands for

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

CTL stands for

Cytotoxic T lymphocyte

EBNA stands for

Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen

EBV stands for

Epstein-Barr virus

Ig stands for

immunoglobulin

MART stands for

Melanoma antigen recognized by T cells

Ras mutations are caused by what human tumor antigen

Oncogenes

Example of Oncogenes

Ras mutations

10% of human carcinomas are caused by

Ras mutations

p210 product of Bcr/Abl rearrangments are due to

CML | Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Overexpressed Her-2/neu (breast and other carcinomas) are what type of human tumor antigen

Oncogens

Ras mutations p210 Her-2 are all what type of human tumor antigens

Oncogenes

Mutated p53 is what type of human tumor antigen

Tumor suppressor gene

What is present in 50% of human tumors

mutated p53

Example of Tumor suppresor gene

p53

Example of oncogenes

Ras mutations

Various mutated proteins in melanomas are recognized by

CTLs

CTLs recognize what

melanomas

p91A mutation in mutagenized murine mastocytoma are mutants of cellular genes not involved in

tumorigenesis

Cancer/testis antigens are expressed in ___ and many ____

melanomas | Carcinomas

Products of genes that are silent in most normal tissues are usually expressed where

Testis and placenta

Products of genes that are silent in most normal tissue are what kind of antigens

Cancer/testis

Tyrosinase, gp100, MART in melanomas (normally expressed in melanocytes) are products of

overexpressed genes

Papillomavirus E6 and E7 proteins (cervical carcinomas) are products of

oncogenic viruses

EBNA-1 protein of EBV (EBV associated lymphomas, nasopharyngeal carcinoma) are products of

Oncogenic viruses

SV40 T antigen (SV40 induced rodent tumors) are products of

Oncogenic viruses

Papillomavirus EBNA-1 SV40 are all products of

Oncogenic viruses

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) on many tumors, also expressed in liver and other tissues during inflammation is what type of antigen

Oncofetal antigen

Where is CEA expressed during inflammation

Liver

CEA stands for

Carcinoembryonic antigen

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is what type of antigen

Oncofetal antigen

AFP stands for

Alpha-fetoprotein

CEA and AFP are what types of antigen

Oncofetal antigens

GM2 and GD2 on melanomas are what

Glycolipids and glycoproteins

Prostate-specific antigen -differentiation antigens normally present where

In tissue of origin

Markers of lymphocytes include

CD10 CD20 Ig idiotypes on B cells

CD10 CD20 Ig idiotypes in B cells are

Markers of lymphocytes

Markers of lymphocytes -differentiation antigens normally present where

In tissue of origin

Prostate-specific antigen and markers of lymphoctes are both what types of antigens

Differentiation antigens present in tissue of origin

4 ways to manage tumors

Surgical removal Chemotherapy/Radiation Therapy Immunotherapy Immuno-modulation

3 parts of Immunotherapy

Antibody CTL Inhibit Tregs

What way to manage tumors includes Antibody CTLs Inhibit Tregs

Immunotherapy

Surgical removal of solid tumors Treat with chemotherapy/Radiation Therapy Immunotherapy Immuno-modulation and Vaccine development are all ways to do what

Manage tumors

What are the 2 ways tumors escape immune defenses

Anti-tumor immunity | Immune evasion by tumors

Anti-tumor immunity and Immune evasion by tumors are how tumors...

Escape immune defenses

T cell recognition of tumor antigen leading to T cell activation is what type of escape

Anti-tumor immunity

During Anti-tumor immunity T cell recognition of tumor antigen leads to

T cell activation

Immune evasion by tumors can have 3 outcomes

Failure to produce tumor antigen Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing Production of immuno-suppresive proteins

Failure to produce tumor antigen Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing Production of immuno-suppressive proteins are what type of escape

Immune evasion by tumors

Which 2 forms of immune evasion by tumors lacks T cell recognition of tumor

Failure to produce tumor antigen Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing

Which form of immune evasion by tumors has inhibition of T cell activation

Production of immuno-suppressive proteins

Failure to produce tumor antigen leads to lack of

T cell recognition of tumor

Mutations in mhC gene/genes needed for antigen processing leads to lack of

T cell recognition of tumor

Production of immuno-suppressive proteins leads to inhibition of

T cell activation

Which immune evasion has an antigen-loss variant of tumor cells

Failure to produce tumor antigen

Which immune evasion has Class I MHC deficient tumor cell

Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing

which immune evasion has inhibitory ligand (PD-L1) and Immunosuppressive cytokines (TGFB)

Production of immuno-suppreive proteins

Failure to produce tumor antigen = what type of tumor cell

Antigen-loss variant of tumor cell

Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing = what type of tumor cell

Class I MHC deficient tumor cell

Production of immuno-suppressive proteins have what 2 factors

``` Inhibitory ligand (PD-L1) Immunosuppressive cytokines (TGFB) ```

Lack of T cell recognition of tumor and Inhibition of T cell activation are both which mode how tumors escape immune defenses

Immune evasion by tumors

Evasion of Immune System by Tumors loose expression of

Tumor antigens

MHC-I and TAP are both

Tumor antigens

Tumors loose expression of which tumor antigens

MHC-I and TAP

During evasion of immune system by tumors they secrete what

immunosuppressive cytokines

IL-10 and TGF-B are both ...

Immunosuppressive cytokines

Tumors secrete what immunosuppressive cytokines

IL-10 and TGF-B

Tumor cells present antigens in what form to mature lymphocytes

Tolerogenic form

Tumor cells present antigens in tolerogenic form to

Mature lymphocytes

When tumor cells present antigens to mature lymphocytes it causes what

Depressed or lack of co-stimulatory molecules

Depressed or lack of co-stimulatory molecules are present when tumor cells do what

present antigens to mature lymphocytes

Tumor cells may induce

anergy

When tumor cells induce anergy =what kind of cells

Tregs

Tregs are produced by tumor cells when what happens

Anergy is induced

Production of programed death ligands that bind death receptors on T cells is known as

anergy

Anergy-production of programed death ligands that bind death receptors on

T cells

Antigen masking is known as

Blocking antibodies

Blocking antibodies is known as

Antigen masking

What is known as : Non-complement activating antibody may bind and mask tumor antigens

Antigen masking

Non-compliment activating antibody may do what to tumor antigens

Bind and mask

Antibody blinds and masks

tumor antigens

Major cell types involved in tumor destruction

T cell Macrophage NK cell

T cell Macrophage NK cell are all major cell types invovled in

Tumor destruction

Major cytokines involved in Tumor Destruction

IFN-y IL-2 TNF-a IL-12

``` IFN-y IL-2 TNF-a IL-12 are all major cytokines involved in ```

Tumor destruction

what 3 cells fight off tumor cells

T cell NK cell Macrophage

Macrophage NK cell T cell are important for

Tumor destruction

T cell to NK cell uses what 2 cytokines

IFN-y | IL-2

IFN-y IL-2 are important cytokines for what

T cell to NK cell

What cytokine is important for NK cells

IFN-y

NK cell to Macrophage uses what cytokine

IFN-y

Macrophage to NK cell uses what cytokines

TNF-a | IL-12

``` NK cells Activated macrophages Depressed regulatory cells Immunotoxins Activated cytotoxic cells are important components to fight tumor cells for what ```

Protective anti-tumor immune strategies

Protective anti-tumor immune strategies use what components to fight tumor cells

``` NK cells Activated macrophages Depressed regulatory cells Activated cytotoxic cells Immunotoxins ```

Protective anti-tumor immune strategies use what 2 categories

Immune stimulants | Cytokines

Cytokines and Immune Stimulanats are used for

Protective anti-tumor immune strategies

NK cells use | Immune stimulants/Cytokines

Immune stimulants

Activated macrophages use | Immune stimulants/Cytokines

Immune stimulants

Depressed regulatory cells use | Immune stimulants/Cytokines

Immune stimulants

Activated cytotoxic cells use | Immune stimulants/Cytokines

Cytokines

Immunotoxins use | Immune stimulants/Cytokines

Neither

Using a mouse with chemical carcinogen-induced tumor demonstrates

Tumor immunity

Using a mouse with chemical carcinogen-induced tumor has 1 of 2 pathways

Resect tumor | Isolate CD8 T cells

Transplant tumor cells into original tumor-bearing mouse uses (resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)

Resect tumor

Transplanting tumor cells into original tumor-bearing mouse = (tumor growth or no tumor growth)

No tumor growth

Transplant tumor cells into syngenetic mouse uses (resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)

Isolate CD8 T cells

Transplant tumor cell into syngeneic mouse = (tumor growth or no tumor growth)

Tumor growth

Adoptively transfer T cells into recipient of tumor transplant (resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)

Isolate CD8 T cells

Adoptively transfer T cells into recipient of tumor transplant (tumor growth or no tumor growth)

Eradication of tumor

Induction of anti-tumor T cell response is known as

Cross-priming

Cross-priming is when there is what response

Induction of anti-tumor T cell response

Tumor cells and antigens are ingested by

Host APCs

Host APCs ingest

Tumor cells and antigens

Does differentiation of tumor specific T cells occur

Yes

Effector phase of anti-tumor = what response

CTL response

What phase of anti-tumor = CTL response

Effector phase

What cell recognizes tumor cells

Tumor-specific CD8 CTL cells

Tumor specific CD8 CTL cells do what

Recognize tumor cells

What happens when Tumor specific CD8 CTL recognizes tumor cells

Killing of tumor cell

Induction of T cell Responses to Tumors = what overall outcome

Killing of tumor cells

Dendritic cells are transfected with plasmid expressing

Tumor antigen

What cells are transfected with plasmid expressing tumor antigen

Dendritic cells are pulsed with

Tumor antigens

Vaccinate with tumor-antigen presenting _____

dendritic cell

Tumor vaccines lead to activation of

tumor specific T cells

Tumor cell transfected with gene for lymphocyte costimulator ____ or ____

B7 or IL-2

B7 or IL-2 are both

Lymphocyte costimulators

Vaccinate with tumor cell expressing

Costimulators or IL-2

B7 expressing tumor cell stimulates

tumor specific T cell

IL-2 enhances proliferation and differentiation of

Tumor specific T cells

What enhances proliferation and differentiation of tumor specific T cells

IL-2

IL-2 enhances ___ and ____

proliferation and differentiation

Overall effect of enhancement of tumor cell immunogenicity

Activation of tumor specific T cells

1st step in adoptive transfer of tumor-specific cells

Isolate lymphocytes from blood or tumor infiltrate

2nd step in adoptive transfer

Expand lymphocytes by culture in IL-2

3rd step in adoptive transfer

Transfer lymphocytes into patient with or wtihout systemic IL-2

Adoptive transfer of tumor-specific cells overall leads to

Tumor regression

Isolate lymphocytes from blood or tumor infiltrate is what step of adoptive transfer

1st

Expand lymphocytes by culture in IL-2 is what step of adoptive transfer

2nd

Transfer lymphocytes into patient, with or without systemic IL-2 is what step of adoptive transfer

3rd

Treatment of dogs with stage _____ melanoma is canine melanoma vaccine

II/III

Local disease control has been achieved when negative/positive local LNs were what

Surgically removed or irradicated

Tyrosinase protein is overexpressed on what cells

melanoma cells

What protein is the antigen target in Canine Melanoma Vaccine

Tyrosinase

Tyrosinase is the antigen target in what vaccine

Canine Melanoma

Tyrosinase protein is (over/undereexpressed) on melanoma cells

Overexpressed

What type of protein is tyrosinase

Self protein

___ is a self protein

Tyrosinase

Xenogeneic DNA Immunization Strategy leads to immunity when (human/dog) tyrosinase antigen is inserted into a dog

Human

Xenogeneic DNA Immunization Strategy leads to ____ when dog tyrosinase antigen is injected into dog

No immunity

What causes activation of anti-tumor innate immune responses

BCG

What does BCG stand for

Bacille Calmette-Guerin

What factors activate macrophages in anti-tumor innate immune responses

TNF-a IL-12 NO

TNF-a IL-12 NO all activate what in anti-tumor innate immune responses

Macrophages

Theracys are what

Live BCG

Examplesx of Theracys

Human melanomas | Bladder tumors

Human melanomas Bladder tumors are examples of

Theracys

Regressin is

cell wall extract for equine sarcoids

What is the cell wall extract for equine sarcoids

Regressin

Mechanical Tissue Damage leads to

Inflammation

Papilloma virus on a horse can be treated by doing what

Squish warts with hemostats

Tissue exudate/DAMPs stimulate what

immune system

Anti-tumor antibodies are antibodies to

program death signals

Tumor cells can inhibit the bodys immune response by binding to

proteins

What is an example of a protein tumor cells can bind to

PD-1

Where do tumor cells bind to PD-1

Surface of T cells

Antibody therapies that block binding of tumor cell to PD-1 does what to the immune response

Reactivates

What does the T cell receptor recognize

Tumor cell

PD-1L binds what

PD-1

When PD-1L binds PD-1 it inhibits what

T cell response

What blocks inhibitory signal to PD-1

Antibody

Humanized mouse monoclonal is the form of antibody used for what specific antibody

Her-2/Neu CD20 CEA GD3

Humanized mouse monoclonal + immunotoxin is antibody for

CD10

Mouse monoclonal is antibody for

CA-125

CEA stands for

Carcinoembryonic antigen

Ganglioside is

GD3

CD20 is what

B cell marker

``` Her-2/Neu CD20 CEA GD3 used what form of antibody ```

Humanized mouse monoclonal

CD10 uses what form of antibody

Humanized mouse monoclonal + immunotoxin

CA-125 uses what form of antibody

Mouse monoclonal

what specific antibody is used for breast cancer clinical use

Her-2/Neu

Her-2/Neu is used for what clinical trial

Breast cancer

What specific antibody is used for B cell lymphoma

CD20

CD20 is used for what clincial trial

B cell lymphoma

What specific antibody is used for B cell lymphoma | in routine use to purge bone marrow of residual tumor cells

CD10

CD10 is used for what clinical trial

B cell lymphoma and purge bone marrow of tumor cells

What specific antibody is used for gastrointestinal cancers and lung cancers

CEA

CEA is used for what clinical trials

Gastrointestinal cancers | Lung cancer

What specific antibody is used for ovarian cancer

CA-125

CA-125 is used for what clinical trial

Ovarian cancer

What specific antibody is used for melanoma

GD3 ganglioside

GD3 is used for what clinical trial

Melanoma

Diagnositc test of flow cytometry/IHC for tumor markers detects

Immuno-phenotyping

Immuno-phenotyping uses what diagnostic test

Flow cytometry/IHC for tumor markers

Flow cytometry/IHC is used to detect

Tumor markers

What type of evaluation of cells is another diagnostic test

Cytologic

Molecular based assay is known as

PCR

Molecular based assay (PCR) is used to determine

mutations

What is the development of an individual organism or anatomical or behavioral feature from the earliest stage to maturity

Ontogeny

Ontogeny is the development of an individual organism/anatomical-behavioral feature from ____ to ____

Earliest stage to maturity

Development of the immune system in the fetus appears to follow what pattern

Consistent pattern

What is the 1st lymphoid organ to develop

Thymus

After the development of the thymus, what develops

secondary lymphoid organs

When do secondary lymphoid organs develop

Following development of thymus

What appears after lymph node developement

B cells

B cells develop after what

lymph node development

Even if B cells appear after lymph node development antibodies are not made until

Late gestation

Do antibodies get made as soon as B cells develop?

What develop late in gestation

Antibodies

The ability of the fetus to respond to ___may develop very rapidly

Antigens

Fetus responds to antigens very rapidly after what appear

lymphoid organs

Are all antigens equally capable of stimulating fetal lymphoid tissue

All antigens are not equally capable of stimulating what

Fetal lymphoid tissue

Ability to mount cell-mediated immune responses develops at the same time as

Antibody production

what develops at the same time as antibody production

cell mediated immune responses

(short/long) gestation leads to incomplete development of immune system at birth

Short

Short gestation leads to incomplete development of what

Immune system

When does short gestation lead to incomplete development of the immune system

Birth

In what animals do primary lymphoid organs develop after birth

Rodents

In rodents when do primary lymphoid organs develop

After birth

In rodents do primary lymphoid organs develop (before/after) birth

After

(short/long) gestation leads to full development of the immune system at birth but is highly vulnerable

Long gestation

Long gestation leads to full development of

immune system

When does long gestation lead to full development

at birth

which gestation (short/long) is highly vulnerable

Long

Why is long gestation highly vulnerable

Immune system is naive

Development of good immune responses by the neonate is __ driven

Antigen

What causes antigen driven good immune responses in the neonate

environmental exposure

Environmental exposure causes what

good immune responses

Long gestation can be found in what animals

most domestic animals

What developmental landmark happens in the rat at birth

Small NO's, B cells and T cells

When do rats have small NO's, B cells and T cells

At birth

What happens in rats at day 6

Demarcation of splenic architecture

When do rats have demarcation of splenic architecture

Day 6

What happens at day 21-28 (weaning) in rats

Germinal centers

When do rats have germinal centers

Day 21-28 | weaning

In humans what happens at weeks 14-18

Small NO's, B cells and T cells

In humans when are small NO's, B cells and T cells present

weeks 14-18

In humans what happens at 26 weeks

Demarcation of splenic architecture

When do humans have demarcation of splenic architecture

Week 26

What do humans experiment at 6-8 weeks after birth

Germinal centers

When do humans see germinal centers

Weeks 6-8 after birth

When is weaning for humans

104 weeks

104 weeks is when what occurs

human weaning

Development of the immune system in rats that happens before birth

Nothing

Development of the immune system in rats that occurs between birth and weaning

Small NO's, B cells and T cells Demarcation of splenic architecture

Development of the immune system in rats that occurs after weaning

Germinal centers

In the rat what development of the immune system occurs right at birth

Small NO's, B cells and T cells

Development of the immune system in humans that occurs Conception to birth

Small NO's, B cells and T cells Demarcation of splenic architecture

Development of the immune system in humans that occurs from birth to weaning

Germinal centers

Development of the immune system in humans that occurs after weaning

Nothing

IgM carrying cells are seen in what animals post-conception

Foal Calf Piglet Chick

``` Foal Calf Piglet Chick Have what Ig ```

IgM

IgG carrying cells are seen in what animals post-conception

Calf Lamb Kitten Chick

``` Calf Lamb Kitten Chick have what Ig ```

IgG

What animals have peyers patches post-conception

Calf | Lamb

What animals have peripheral blood lymphocytes post-conception

Foal Calf Lamb

What animals have lymph nodes post-conception

Foal Calf Lamb

What animals have bone marrow and spleen post-conception

Foal | Calf

What animals do not have a fetal thymus post-conception

Kitten | Marsupials

What animal has a gestation of 340 days

Foal

A foal has a gestation of how long

340 days

Lymphoid cells in a goal are first seen in thymus when

60-80 days

60-80 days is when what happens in the foal

lymphoid cells are 1st seen in thymus

Lymphoid cells are 1st seen in the thymus of a foal during what time period

post-conception

When are mes. lymph node and intestinal lamina propria seen in the foal

90 days

90 days is when what happens in the foal

mes. lymph node and intestinal lamina propria are seen

When is the spleen seen in a foal

175 days

175 days in a foal is when what happens

Spleen is seen

In the foal peripheral blood lymphocytes appear when

80 days

80 days is when what happens in the foal

peripheral blood lymphocytes are seen

In the foal what is the earliest detection of immune response

200 days

In the foal what happens at 200 days

Earliest detection of immune response

Coliphage T2 is seen at what day

200

VEE is seen at what day

230

In newborn foals small amounts of what are detectable

IgG/IgM

In the foal regulatory T cells (Tregs) may actively suppress what

B cell functions

How long can Tregs suppress B cell functions

First few months after birth

Regulatory T cells are called

Tregs

What cells suppress B cell functions

Tregs

How long is calf gestation

280 days

When does the immune system of a calf develop

very early in fetal life

What happens very early in fetal life of the calf

immune system develops

Fetal thymus of the calf is recognizable by what day

40 days

What happens at 40 days in the calf

Thymus is recognizable

Thymus in the calf is recognizable 40 days (before/after) conception

post conception

Time of the earliest detection of serum antibodies in the calf depends on

sensitivity of techniques used

Sensitivity of technique used determines what in the calf

Earliest detection of serum antibodies

In the calf the earliest detection of immune response is when

Day 73

What happens in the calf at day 73

Earliest detection of immune response

When is rotavirus detected

Day 73

When is parvovirus detected

Day 93

When can peripheral blood lymphocytes in a calf respond to mitogens

Day 78-90

What happens at days 78-90 in the calf

peripheral blood lymphocytes can respond

In the calf what do peripheral blood lymphocytes respond to

Mitogens

Peripheral blood lymphocytes are temporarily lost when in the calf

At birth

Why are peripheral blood lymphocytes in the calf temporarily lost at birth

Elevated serum steroid levels

What part of the immune system in the calf is the first to develop

Thymus

What part of the immune system in the calf is the last to develop

Peyer's patches

How long is the gestation in the piglet

115 days

What animal has a gestation of 115 days

Piglet

In the piglet the fetal thymus is recognizable when

40 days

What is recognizable at 40 days in the piglet

Thymus

The thymus is seen 40 days (before/after) conception

post

When do piglets produce antibodies to parvoviruses

58 days

What happens in piglets at 58 days

Produce antibodies to parvoviruses

When can piglets reject allografts

58 days

When can piglet lymphocytes respond to mitogens

72-90 days

What happens in the piglet 72-90 days

lymphocytes respond

In the piglet lymphocytes respond 72-90 days (before/after) conception

Post

When does NK cell activity develop in the piglet

Several weeks after birth

The number of circulating Ig-bearing cells rises when in the piglet

70-80 days

what rises dramatically at 70-80 days in the piglet

Number of circulating Ig-bearing cells

Response to pathogens (like BVD virus) is often determined by

State of immunological development of the fetus

State of immunological development of the fetus is determines by

response to pathogens

BVD stands for

Bovine viral diarrhea virus

What virus cases disease in cattle which reduces productivity and increases death loss

BVD

what virus has the family Flaviviridae and genus Pestivirus

BVD

BVD clincal signs depend on what 2 things

Timing of infection | Status of the animal

``` Pregnant animals Non-pregnant animals Persistently infected animals Mucosal disease Hemorrhagic syndrome ``` all play a part in what part of BVD

Clinical signs

What animals are antigen positive, antibody negative and the source of virus infection in a herd

Persistently infected animals

Persistently infected animals are antigen

positive

persistently infected animals are antibody

negative

persistently infected animals are the source of virus for

infection in a herd

BVD virus----Transient infection----then what

Naturally immune

BVD virus----then what----Naturally immune

Transient infection

What happens at month 1

Embryo death

What happens months 2-4

Persistent infection

What happens months 5-9

Abortion Deformities Normal Calves

What happens when a PI calf constantly shedding BVD virus to herdmates Calves

Calves exposed to PI calf may develop pneumonia, diarrhea

What happens when a PI calf constantly shedding BVD virus to herdmates Pregnant cow

Pregnant female whose fetus may become infected

What happens when a PI calf constantly shedding BVD virus to herdmates Cow/calf pair

Cow and calf that may both develop acute infections Cow may suffer from infertility

What happens when a PI calf constantly shedding BVD virus to herdmates Herd bull

Herd bull may become acutely infected and expose cows while breeding

Neonates are vulnerable to infection because innate immunity suppressed by fetal cortisol released during birth does what

suppressed phagocytic function

What causes suppressed phagocytic function

suppressed innate immunity by cortisol release

What suppresses innate immunity

cortisol release

Adaptive immunity is naive and dependent on

exposure to antigens

Primary immune responses have prolonged ___periods

lag periods

Primary immune responses have low concentrations of

antibodies

What type of immune responses have low concentrations of antibodies

Primary

What type of immune responses have prolonged lag periods

Primary

Neonatal immune responses are biased toward what immune responses

Th2

Neonatal immune responses suppress what immune responses

Th1

TLR engagement in innaate immune responses promotes secretion of

Th2 cytokines

Neonatal __ cells are highly sensitive to apoptosis

Th1

What makes neonatal Th1 cells highly sensitive to apoptosis

Th2 cytokines | IL-4

Innate immune responses in neonatal antigen presenting cells (DCs) promote secretion of which cytokines

IL-6 IL-1B IL-10 IL-23

What cytokine is secreted in low amounts

IL-12

What 2 cytokines during T cell activation promotes the maintenance of Th2 and Th17 T cell differentiation pathway

IL-10 | IL-23

Th1 pathway would require what cytokine

IL-12

Why are neonatal immune responses biased toward Th2 and suppress Th1

IFN-y damages placenta

What cytokine damages the placenta

IFN-y

__ recognize foreign MHC I expressed by the fetus

CTLs

CTLs recognize foreign __ expressed by the fetus

MHC I

Neonatal immune responses are super susceptible to what

intracellular bacteria

How long are foals susceptible to Rhodococcus equi

until 6 months of age

What immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies from 1 individual to another

Passive Immunity

Passive immunity is the transfer of active ____ immunity

humoral

Passive immunity is transferred in the form of ready-made _____ from one individual to another

antibodies

Histologically the most primitive placenta has how many tissue barriers

Presence of absence of primitive placenta tissue barriers affects the transfer of

Maternal antibodies

What Ig type are maternal antibodies

IgG

Presence or absence of these barriers affects transfer of maternal antibody to the fetus in

utero

Fetal-derived layers come from

choroin

Maternal derived layers come from

endometrial epithelium

Fetal derived layers include

Endothelium of fetal blood vessels Chorionic connective tissue Chorionic epithelium

Endothelium of fetal blood vessels Chorionic connective tissue Chorionic epithelium (fetal or mother derived)

Fetal

Mother dervied layers

Uterine epithelium Uterine connective tissue Endothelium of maternal blood vessels

Uterine epithelium Uterine connective tissue Endothelium of maternal blood vessels (fetal or mother derived)

Mother

Endothelium of fetal blood vessels | fetal/mother

Fetal

Chorionic connective tissue | fetal/mother

Fetal

Chorionic epithlium | fetal/mother

Fetal

Uterine epithelium | fetal/mother

Mother

Uterine connective tissue | fetal/mother

Mother

Endothelium of maternal blood vessels | fetal/mother

Mother

what species has hemoendothelial placentation

Rodents

What species has hemochorial placentation

Primates

What species has endotheliochorial placentation

Dogs | Cats

What species has syndesmochorial placentation

Ruminants

What species has epitheliochorial placentation

Horse Donkey Pig

What species has no placentation

Chicken | egg

Rodents have how many tissue layers between circulation

Primates have how many tissue layers between circulation

Dogs and cats have how many tissue layers between circulation

Rumiants have how many tissue layers between circulation

Horse, Donkey, Pig have how many tissue layers between circulation

Chicken has how many tissue layers between circulation

N/A

Do rodents have prenatal IgG transfer

Yes

How do rodents transfer prenatal IgG

freely

Do primates have prenatal IgG transfer

Yes

How do primates transfer prenatal IgG

Freely

Do dogs and cats have prenatal IgG transfer

Slight (5-10%)

Do ruminants have prenatal IgG transfer

Do Horse, Donkey, Pig have prenatal IgG transfer

Does the chicken have prenatal IgG transfer

Yes

what Ig transfer does the chicken use

IgY

How is the neonate protected while the immune system becomes fully competent

Passive immunity

Passive immunity involves the passive transfer of

maternal immune protection

Passive transfer of maternal immune protection is

Passive immunity

Passive immunity provides what by an external source

Antibodies and cells

Maternal antibody is passed via

Colostrum or placenta

What is transferred via colostrum or placenta

Maternal antibody

Antibodies can also be transferred by administration of

Plasma that contains antibodies

Fighting infection, rejecting transplant | natural/artifical (active/passive)

Natural active

From mother via milk or placenta | natural/artificial (active/passive)

Natural passive

Vaccination (injection of antigens) | natural/artificial (active/passive)

Artificial active

Injection of antibodies | natural/artificial (active/passive)

Artificial passive

Example of natural active

Fighting infection | Rejecting transplant

Example of natural passive

From mother via milk or placenta

Example of artificial active

Vaccination (injection of antigens)

Example of artifical passive

Injection of antibodies

Passive transfer of maternal immune protection is seen in

Mare/foal | Cow/calf

Dam has ___ immunity to pathogens via natural exposure or vaccination

Adaptive immunity

Dam passes her immunity to the newborn in the form of

maternal antibody

Peak serum immunoglobulin levels are normally reached between ___ and ___ after birth

12 and 24 hours

Levels of immunoglobulin in foal serum during the first ____ of life, show relative contributions of maternal antibody and antibody synthesized by the foal

15 weeks

Levels of immunoglobulin in foal serum during first 15 weeks of life show relative contributions of what 2 things

Maternal antibody | Antibody synthesized by the foal

When do foals/calves begin to produce antibodies

Immediately upon exposure to antigens after birth

What happens when foals/calves immediately upon exposure to antigens after birth

Produce antibodies

Antibodies are detectable within ____ of life

1-2 weeks

Antibodies reach protective levels by ___

2 months

Colostrum are mammary gland secretions which occur late in pregnancy due to ___ and ____

estrogen and progesterone

Colostrum in most domestic species is rich in

IgG | 65-90%

Colostrum in most domestic species also contain minor amounts of __ and ___

IgA and IgM

Colostrum of primates are predominantly ___

IgA

Majority of Ig in milk is produced locally in the udder by

lymphoid tissue

Milk is/is not transferred from serum like colostrum

is not

Colostrum is transferred from

serum

In ruminants what is predominant in both milk and colostrum

IgG1

IgG1 is predominant in ruminants in what

Milk and colostrum

What is predominant in non-ruminants

IgA

Colostral IgG gets into the blood and provides what type of immunity

Systemic

Colostral IgG gets into __ and provdies systemic immunity

Blood

Colostral ___ gets into blood and provides systemic immunity

IgG

IgG from where gets into the blood and provides systemic immunity

Colostral

Milk Ig (IgA/IgG1) stays in the gut and provides protection from

enteritis

Milk Ig stays in the gut and provides what type of immunity

Intestinal immunity

Milk Ig (IgA/IgG1) stays in the ___ and provides protection from enteritis

Gut

Milk Ig (______) stays in the gut and provides protection from enteritis

IgA/IgG1

___Ig (IgA/IgG1) stays in the gut and provides protection from enteritis

Milk

What intake is required to protect young animals against septicemic disease

Colostrum

Prolonged intake of ___ is necessary to ensure protection of the GI tract against enteric infection

Milk

Gut closure affects what

Passive transfer

Passive transfer is affected by

gut closure

Maternal IgG binds to neonatal ____ on intestinal epithelial cells

Fc receptor

Neonatal Fc receptor

FcRn

Where is the neonatal Fc receptor located

intestinal epithelial cells

What binds to neonatal Fc receptor

Maternal IgG

Complex is inernalized by

pinocytosis

Optimal time for complex to enter lacteals and intestinal capillaries

within 6 hours

Calves and foals ingest an average of ___ liters of colostrum

After 24 hours, a new layer of ____form

Enterocytes

Once the new layer of enterocytes form, it prevents the absorption because they lack what

FcRn

When FcRn is lacking it leads to

gut closure

How long does maternal antibody last

up to 6 months

Do maternal antibodies degrade over time

Yes

FPT stands for

Failure of Passive Transfer

FPT refers to what type of immunity

Maternal immunity

If foals/calves don't receive enough maternal antibodies they can easily develop infections to

Environmental pathogens

What ways can environmental pathogens cause infections

If they are Ingested Inhaled Acquired through patent umbilicus

FPT affects what 3 systems

GI tract Respiratory tract Blood (septicemia)

What can cause production failure

FPT

Production failure by FPT causes

Insufficient secretion or poor quality colostrum Premature lacatation Premature neonate

Insufficient secretion or poor quality colostrum Premature lactation Premature neonate are all signs of what part of FPT

Production failure

What is used for testing colostrum quality of cattle

Colostrometer

Colostrometer tests what

Colostrum qualitiy

What is used for horses and cattle to measure the concentration of dissolved solids in a solution

Brix refractometer

Brix refractometer measures what

concentration of dissolved solids in a solution

Brix % <15 is what qualitiy of colostrum

poor

Brix % 15-20 is what qualitiy of colostrum

Fair

Brix % 20-30 is what qualitiy of colostrum

Good

Brix % >30 is what qualitiy of colostrum

Very good

IgG concentraion of 0-28 is what Brix %

<15 %

IgG concentration 28-50 is what Brix %

15-20%

IgG concentration of 50-80 is what Brix %

20-30%

IgG concentration of >80 is what Brix %

>30%

Ingestion failure of colostrum can be caused by

FPT

Ingestion failure of colostrum includes

Inadequate intake | Poor suckling drive

Inadequate intake Poor suckling drive are due to what part of FPT

Ingestion failure of colostrum

Inadequate intake can be caused by

Multiple births | Poor mothering

Multiple births Poor mothering can cause

inadequate intake

Poor suckling drive can be casued by

Jaw defects | Damaged teats

Jaw defects Damaged teats can be casued by

Poor suckling drive

Failure of intestinal absorption of maternal immunoglobulins can be due to

FPT

Failure of intestinal absorption of maternal immunoglobulins is caused by

suckling that occurred after gut closure

Suckling after gut closure can cause failure of intestinal absorption of

maternal immunoglobulins

Requirements for adequate maternal antibody requires minimum ______

IgG requirements

Calves require ___ mg/dl

>1000 mg/dL | 1 g/dL

<1 g/dL is ____

Complete FPT

Complete FPT is

<1 g/dL

Recommend how many liters of colostrum for calves

2-4 L

Foals require _____ mg/dL

800 mg/dL | greater is preferred

Partial FPT for a foal is ___-__ mg/dL

200-800 mg/dL

200-800 mg/dL is (partial/complete) FPT

Partial

Complete FPT for a foal is ____ mg/dL

<200 or <400 mg/dL

<200 or <400 mg/dL is (partial/complete) FPT

Complete

FPT affects 2.9-25% of newborn foals but only ___% become septic

2.5%

Septic

Bacteria in blood

When do you need to test serum to determine adequate/inadequate passive transfer

18 hours after birth

TP-albumin=

globulins

___-albumin =globulins

TP-__= globulins

albumin

Salt precipitation in calves and llamas

Sodium sulfite

Sodium sulfite is the salt precipitation in which animals

Calves | Llamas

Salt precipitation in foals

Zinc sulfate

Zinc sulfate is the salt precipitation in which animal

Foals

ELISA stands for

Enzyme linked immunosorbant test

Example of ELISA test used on foals

SNAP IgG test

SNAP test is why type of test

ELISA

What does RID stand for

Radial Immunodiffusion assay

RID is what type of test

precipitation test

What can be used as a rough estimate to determine adequate/inadequate passive transfer

Total Protein (TP)

What is the TP in a well hydrated calf is ____g/dL

5.5 g/dL

5.5 g/dL TP is ___ mg/dL of Ig

1000 mg/dL | 1 g/dL

Assay tests for TP in calves has ___% high diagnostic sensitivity

94%

TP in calves has___% low diagnostic specificity

76%

TP in calves ___ PPV

68%

TP in calves ____% NPV

96%

Well hydrated foals have a TP of ___g/dL

6.0

TP of 6.0 g/dL has ___ mg/dL of Ig

800 mg/dL

Measuring protein electrophoresis of serum samples from a calf before and after colostrum ingestion measures the

Total protein

At birth before suckling TP=

TP=5.0 g/dL

After suckling TP=

TP=6.0 g/dL

At birth before sucking Gamma globulin =

<0.1 g/dL

After suckling | Gamma globulin=

1.0 g/dL

BOVA-S Bovine FPT test kit tests for what in calves

Sodium sulfite

LLAMA-S Llama FPT test kit tests for what in llamas

Sodium sulfite

EQUI-Z Equine FPT test kit tests for what in foals

Zinc sulfate

How do you test salt precipitation

add serum to salt solution

Precipitates form if ___are present

immunoglobulins

Clear solution indicates what

FPT

Tests for salt precipitation can be read 2 ways

Visually or spectrophotometer

In an ELISA | Add enzyme + substrate =

color reaction

In an ELISA | Add reagent which is

anti-equine IgG

In an ELISA | Add foals serum which is

Colostral IgG

In an ELISA | Anti-equine IgG =(monoclonal/polyclonal)

Polyclonal | -coats the catridge

How much time does ELISA take

Less than 10 minutes

<400 mg/dL IgG = what color intensity of sample spot (lighter/darker)

Lighter

400-800 mg/dL IgG =what color intensity of sample spot

Darker than 400 spot | Lighter than 800 spot

>800 mg/dL IgG =what color intensity of sample spot

Darker

ELISA tests are effective with what type of blood

Serum or whole blood

In RID tests ____ is measured and compared to wells 1-5

Diameter of ring

Disadvantage of RID

Takes 18-24 hours for results

RID takes how long

18-24 hours

The agarose of RID consits of

Anti-species IgG

Diameter of ring =

concentration (mg/dL)

Standards with known IgG 10.0 mm =___ mg/dL

650 mg/dL

Standards with known IgG 20.0 mm= ___ mg/dL

2300

What is the timeline prior to gut closure

<15 hours

If the foal is <15 hours give ___Liters of colostrum

2-3L

Colostrum can be frozen at -20C for how long

less than a year

If the foal is >15 hrs and <3 weeks old with FPT give

plasma infusion

When to give a foal plasma infusion

>15 hours but <3 weeks

If the foal is >3 weeks watch and give

antibiotics

By what age should the foal have been exposed to environmental antigens and primary immunity initiated

>3 weeks

Foal with FPT ____ needs antibiotics

>3 weeks

When should you recheck IgG levels after treatment

12-24 hours

12-24 hours after treatment you should recheck ___

IgG

___antibodies may enhance or inhibit immune responses in the neonate

Maternal

Maternal antibodies coat __

pathogens

Maternal antibodies (increase/decrease) pathogens infectivity and tag them for destruction by immune cells

reduce

When maternal anitbodies reduce pathogen infectivity and tag for destruction this can also reduce ______ when using live replicating vectors

Vaccine efficacy

Maternal antibody-coated pathogens are more effectively taken up by phagocytes that express ____

Fc receptors

____ to T cells is also improved by taking up phagocytes that express Fc receptors

Antigen presentation

Maternal antibody-coated antigen is trapped by

follicular dendritic cells

Dendritic cells that express Fc recepotrs facilitates ____ of B cells

priming

B cell epitopes can be masked by ____ and interfere with B cell priming

maternal antibody

Vaccination of young animals causes the maternal antibodies to interfere with ____

active immunization

Vaccination of young animals depends on

Amount of maternal antibodies transferred Half life of maternal immunoglobulins involved Type of vaccine

Other factors that influence vaccination of young animals

Stress | Nutritional status

Which types of vaccines can overcome interference

Live recombinant vaccines | DNA vaccines

Adaptive immunity is mature when

2 weeks prior to birth

When does fetal stress (cortisol) and hypothermia cause immunosuppression

Birth-2 weeks

When do they recover from immunosuppression and continue to mature (mucosal immune system)

2-4 weeks

When does possible nutritional immunosuppresion due to decreased vitamine E and selenium (Se) occur

4-6 weeks

At 4-6 weeks immunosuppression is due to decreased

Vitamin E and Se

When does the immune system mature

6-9 weeks

When do maternal antibodies interfere with active immunization

6-9 WEEKS

When do maternal antibodies decline

10-20 weeks

Earliest recommended age to vaccinate

6-8 weeks

Start vaccinations at ____ week intervals and continue until ___

2-4 week intervals | Continue until 18-20 weeks old

When to start vaccinations in calves and foals

3-4 months

___ revaccinations at __ week intervals

1-2 4 week intervals

If vaccinated before ____ then revaccinate at ____

6 months | 6 months

Defects caused by genetic mutations that affect immune system development result in

immunodeficiency

Defects by genetic mutations that affect immune system development = immunodeficiency occurs in

Newborns

Defects in ___immunity include deficiencies in phagocytosis, leukocyte adherence and intracellular killing

Innate Immunity

Defects in innate immunity cause deficiencies in

Phagocytosis Leukocyte adherence Intracellular killing

Defects in innate immunity leads to increased susceptibility to

bacterial diseases

Defects in ___ function predispose host to intracellular [viral] infections

T cell

Defects in T cell function predipose host to ____infections

intracellular [viral]

Defects in ___ function predipose animals to extracellular [bacterial] disease

B cell function and immunoglobulin production

Defects in B cell function and immunoglobulin production predipose animals to ___disease

Extracellular [bacterial]

Intracellular disease are

viral

Extracellular disease are

bacterial

Viral diseases are (intra/extracellular)

intracellular

Bacterial diseases are (intra/extracellular)

Extracellular

Combined immunodeficiencies are severe since affect animals lack resistance to (none, some, all) infectious agents

All

Defects in lymphocyte maturation, activation or from defects in the effector mechanisms of innate and adaptive immunity cause what immunodeficiency

Congenital and acquired

Immunodeficiency causes increased susceptibility to ___ and ____

microbial infections | and cancer

___ causes increased susceptibility to microbial infections and cancer

Immunodeficiency

What type of immunodeficiency is primary

Congenital

congenital immunodeficiency is (primary/secondary)

Primary

What type of immunodeficiency is genetic

Congeital

What type of immunodeficiency involves innate immune response components

Congenital

Congenital immunodeficiency includes response components from what type of immunity

Innate

Congential immunodeficiency has adaptive immune response components which cause what defects

B cell and T cell

What is the most common inherited trait for congenital immunodeficiency

Inherited traits [Autosomal recessive; X linked]

Acquired immunodeficiency is (primary/secondary)

Secondary

Acquired immunodeficiency causes what type of infections

microbial | [Retroviruses]

What type of genetic disorder does the parent carry the gene defect

Autosomal recessive

In autosomal recessive disorders who carries the gene defect

Parents

In autosomal recessive disorders what % of offspring are affected

25%

What type of genetic disorder has mutations in the X chromosome

X-linked

X linked disorders have no ____-to ___ transmission

Male to male

What disorder has no male to male transmission

X linked

Primary immunodeficiency = ___ immunity disorders

Innate

Which type of immunodeficiency has innate immunity disorders

primary

What disease has defective leukocyte adhesion and migration linked to decreased or absent expression of b2 integrins

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 has recurrent what

bacterial and fungal infections

What disease has mutations in the gene encoding the b chain (CD18) of b2 integrins

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 has mutations in what gene

b chain (CD18)

LAD stands for

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

What are 2 forms of LAD

Bovine LAD | Canine LAD

Normal inflammation has what 3 processes

Adherence Emigration Bacterial destruction

Integrin deficiency has what 2 processes

No adherence | Bacterial growth

Bacterial growth occurs when there is/is not adherence

No adherenc

Bacterial destruction occurs when there is/is not adherence

Is adherence

What 2 factors change conformation of integrin expression

TNF-a and IL-1

TNF-a and IL-1 change conformation of what

Integrin expression

L-selectins Integrins (CD11/CD18) are present on leukocyte or endothelial cell

Leukocyte

E or P Selectin ICAM (intracellular adhesion molecule) are present on leukocyte or endothelial cell

Endothelial cell

Which are present on the leukocyte L selectins E or P selectins Integrin (CD11/CD18) ICAM

L selectin | Integrin

Which are present on endothelial cell L selectins E or P selectins Integrin (CD11/CD18) ICAM

E or P selectin | ICAM

What is the intracellular adhesion molecule of endothelial cells

ICAM

What disease is a defective leukocyte adhesion and migration linked to decreased or absent expression of leukocyte ligands for endothelial E and P selectins causing failure of leukocyte migration into tissues

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 has recurrent what

Bacterial and fungal infections

What disease causes decreased or absent expression of leukocyte ligands for endothelial E and P selectins

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2

What disease causes failure of leukocyte migration into tissues

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 causes failure of leukocyte migration into

tissues

What disease causes decrease or absent expression of b2 integrins

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

What disease has mutations in genes encoding a GDP-fucose transporter required for synthesis of sialyl Lewis component of E and P selectin ligands

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 has mutations in genes encoding waht

GDP-fucose transported

What disease has a defective vesicle fusion and lysosomal function in nutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, NK cells, cytotoxic T cells

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Chediak Higashi syndrome causes defective ____ fusion and ____ function

Vesicle | Lysosomal

What disease has mutation in LYST leading to defect in secretory granule exocytosis and lysosomal function

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Chediak-Higashi syndrome has a mutation in what

LYST

CHS stands for

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

What species does CHS affect

``` Cats Cattle Rats Beige mice Mink Killer whales Humans ```

``` What disease affects Cats Catle Rats Beige mice Mink Killer whales Humans ```

CHS

What disease is an autosomal recessive disorder with a mutation in LYST gene

CHS

CHS is what type of disorder | recessive/dominant

Autosomal recessive

CHS has enlarged granules in what cells

Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Melanocytes

What disease causes enlarged granules in neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, elanocytes

CHS

Susceptibility to disease and early death are consequences of what disease

CHS

CHS has what 2 consequences

Susceptibility to diseases and Early death

What disease has defective production of reactive oxygen species by phagocytes

Chronic granulomatous disease

What disease has recurrent intracellular bacterial and fungal infections

Chronic granulomatous disease

Chronic granulomatous disease has defective production in what

reactive oxygen species

Chronic granulomatous has recurrent what

INTRACELLULAR bacterial and fungal infections

What disease has mutation in genes of phagocyte oxidase complex

Chronic granulomatous disease

Chronic granulomatous disease has mutations in what complex

phagocyte oxidase

What disease has mutation in phox-91 (cytochrome b558a subunit) in the X linked form

Chronic granulomatous disease

What disease has recurrent infections because of defects in TLR and CD40 signaling

Toll like receptor signaling defects

Toll like receptor signaling defects cause recurrent infections due to defects in ___ and ____

TLR and CD40 signaling

What disease has mutations in NEMO, IkBa, and IRAK4 comprise NF-kB activation downstream of Toll like receptors

Toll like receptor signaling defects

Toll like receptor signaling defects have mutations in what

NEMO IkBa IRAK4

IRAK4 stands for

IL-1 receptor associated kinase 4

NEMO stands for

NF-kB essential modulator

Complement deficiencies comprise ___% of all primary immunodeficiencies

1-10%

Genetic deficiency of what components leads to susceptibility to meningococcal disease

C5-C9 components

Genetic deficiency of C5-C9 compoents leads to susceptibility to what

Meningococcal disease

Is Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

Is Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 2 | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

Is Chediak-Higashi syndrome | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

Is Chronic granulomatous disease | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

Is Toll like receptor signaling defects | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

Adaptive immunity disorders in primary immunodeficiency has steps in the immune system where development blcoks may lead to

immunodeficiencies

SCID stands for

severe combined immunodeficiency

Agammaglobulinemia is also known as

B cell deficiency

B cell deficiency is

Agammaglobulinemia

Thymis hypoplasia is also known as

T cell deficiency

T cell deficiency is

Thymis hypoplasia

Common variable immunodeficiency and selective immunoglobulin deficiency are both primary___ immunity disorders

Adatpvie

Stem cell can give rise to what 2 precursors

Lymphoid | Myeloid

Lymphoid and Myeloid precursors come from what

stem cell

Myeloid precursors change into neutrophils and cause

Neutrophil defects

Lymphoid precursors lead to ___immunodeficiency

Combined

Lymphoid precursors can lead to what 2 processing events

Thymic and Bursal

Thymic and Bursal processing stem from what precursors

Lymphoid precursors

Thymic processing ---T cells --- leads to what

Cell mediated immunity

Bursal processing ---B cells----leads to what

Antibodies

T cells come from what processing

Thymic processing

B cells come from what processing

Bursal processing

T cells produce what

cell mediated immunity

B cells produce what

Antibodies

Thymic processing leads to what issue

Thymis aplasia

Bursal processing leads to what issue

Agammaglobulinemia

What issues can arise between B cells transitioning to antibodies

Deficiencies in individual immunoglobulin classes

Thymic aplasia stems from what processing

Thymic processing

Agammaglobulinemia stems from what processing

Bursal processing

SCID stands for

Severe combined immunodeficiency

What disorder causes defects in both antibody and T cell immune responses

SCID

SCID causes defects in both ___ and ___ immune responses

Antibody and T cell

SCID causes defects in what cells

T cells B cells NK cells

What disorder has very low circulating lymphocytes

SCID

SCID has very low what

circulating lymphocytes

SCID causes failure to synthesize

immunoglobulins

Failure to synthesize immunoglobulins is due to what disorder

SCID

Hypoplasia means

lack of development

Word for lack of development

Hypoplasia

SCID causes hypoplasia of what

lymphoid tissues

What disorder causes hypoplasia of lymphoid tissues

SCID

What are the 2 modes of inheritance of SCID

Autosomal recessive | X-linked

Which mode of inheritance of SCID is DNA dependent Protein Kinase catalytic subunit

Autosomal recessive

DNA-dependent protein kinase catalytic subunit can be abbreviated

DNA-PKcs

Autosomal recessive SCID includes what 2 genes

RAG1 and RAG2

RAG1 and RAG2 stand for

Recombination Activating Gene

RAG1 and RAG2 are seen in what mode of inheritance of SCID

Autosomal recessive

XSCID is what

X-linked mode of SCID

Which mode of inheritance of SCID has a gamma chain (yC) of IL-2 receptor

X-linked

X-linked mode of SCID has a gamma chain of what receptor

IL-2

X-linked mode of SCID has ___chain of IL-2 receptor

Gamma

Decreased numbers of T and B cells and Functional NK cells are defects in what mode of SCID

Autosomal recessive

Defects seen with autosomal recessive SCID are due to the defect in what

DNA-PKcs

Autosomal recessive SCID causes decreased numbers of

T and B cells

Autosomal recessive SCID causes functional ___

NK cells

In autosomal recessive SCID, DNA recombination occurs (yes/no)

In X-linked SCID there is/is not V(D)J recombination

In X-linked SCID there is a defect in what

Gamma chain

Defect in gamma chain of IL-2R (IL-2Ry) is due to what mode of SCID

X-linked

X-linked SCID causes decreased numbers of

T cells and NK cells

X-linked SCID has normal numbers of ___

B cells

Even though X-linked SCID has normal numbers of B cells, there is a decreased ___

function

What mode of SCID has decreased numbers of T cells and NK cellls and Normal numbers of B cells (but decreased function)

X-linked

STAT stands for

signal transudcer and activator of transcription

IL-2 produces what cells

T cells and DCs

What cytokine has a receptor expressed by T cells, B cells and NK cells

IL-2

IL-4 produces what cells

T cells NKT cells Eosinophils Mast cells

What cytokine has a receptor expressed by T cells, B cells, NK cells, mast cells and basophils

IL-4

What STAT are present on IL-2

1 3 5

What STAT are present on IL-4

5 | 6

IL-7 produces what cells

stromal cells epithelial cells fibroblasts

What cytokine has a receptor expressed by T cell, pre-B cells and DCS

IL-7

What STAT are present on IL-7

1 3 5

IL-9 produces what cells

T cells

What cytokine is expressed by T cells, mast cells, epithelial cells and eosinophils

IL-9

What STAT does IL-9 express

IL-15 produces what cells

Monocytes DCS Epithelial cells

What cytokine is expressed by T cells and NK cells

IL-15

What STAT does IL-15 express

IL-21 produces what cells

CD4 T cells | NKT cells

What cytokine is expressed by T cells, B cells, NK cells and DCs

IL-21

What STATE does IL-21 express

1 3 5

SCID is autosomal (recessive/dominant)

recvessive

What disorder is found most commonly in Arabian/Arbian cross breed horses Jack Russell Terrier Mice strain

SCID

SCID Arabian foals are born healthy and can survive until what are metabolized

Maternal antibodies IgG

SCID foals are extremely susceptible to

infections

In what disease are there very low circulating lymphocytes (<1000 mm3) (Normal is 2000-4000)

SCID

What disease has the presence of functional NK cells, monocytes, and granulocytes

SCID

SCID has the presence of what functional cells

NK cells Monocytes Granulocytes

SCID has a decreased number of what cells

T and B cells

SCID foals fail to produce their own

antibodies

A SCID puppy has hypoplasia of what organ due to T cell depletion

thymus

SCID puppy has hypoplasia of the thymus due to depletion of what

T cells

SCID can cause hypoplasia of the lymph node due to lack of what

T and B cells

When there is a lack of T and B cells in a SCID puppy it causes hypoplasia of what organ

lymph node

When there is hypoplasia of the lymph node there is an absence of ___ and ____

cortical follicles and germinal centers

When is there an absence of cortical follicles and germinal centers

Hypoplasia of lymph node

Anti-CD3 shows lack of what in the paracortex and medullary regions

T cells

Anti-CD3 shows lack of T cells in what regions

Paracortex and medullary

what shows a lack of T cells in the paracortex and medullary region

Anti-CD3

Anti-CD79 shows a lack of B cells where

Germinal centers

Anti-CD79 shows lack of what in the germinal centers

B cells

What shows a lack of B cells in the germinal centers

Anti-CD79

What 2 dog breeds are commonly affected by XSCID

Basset hound | Welsh corgi

Dogs with XSCID have a reduced __ concentration

lymphocyte

Dogs with XSCID have a reduced lymphocyte concentration by what %

20% of normal

Dogs with XSCID have T cells that are not responsive to

IL-2

Dogs with XSCID have T cells that are not rsponsive to IL-2 but can produce

IL-2

XSCID in dogs cause decreased numbers of

T cells | NK cells

What disorder in dogs causes a reduced lymphocyte concentration

XSCID

What disorder has normal numbers of B cells but decreased function

XSCID

XSCID has normal numbers of ___ cells but (increased/decreased) function

B cells | Decreased

Dogs with XSCID have normal amounts of what Ig

IgM

Dogs with XSCID lack what Ig

IgG | IgA

Dogs with XSCID have normal amounts of what Ig but lack IgG and IgA

IgM

Dogs with XSCID have normal amounts of IgM but lack what Ig

IgG | IgA

In dogs with XSCID the thymus is what % of normal weight

10%

In dogs with XSCID what organ is 10% its normal weight

thymus

What percentage of thymocytes are CD4-CD8-

40%

40% of thymocytes in dogs with XSCID are CD4+/- CD8+/-

CD4-CD8-

What deficiency is most common in standardbreds, thoroughbreds, quarter horses

B cell deficiency | Agammaglobulinemia

X-linked inheritance is found in all (male/female) animals

Male

What inheritance is found in all male animals

X-linked

X-linked inheritance causes mutations in what gene

BTK

BTK gene stands for

B-cell Tyrosine Kinase

What disorder is seen with mutations in BTK gene

X-linked inheritance

X-linked inheritance leads to (decrease/increase) in serum Ig isotypes and B cell numbers

decrease

what disorder has a decrease in serum Ig isotypes and B cell numbers/primary follicles and germinal centers

X-linked inheritance

What disease has a decrease in all serum Ig isotypes and reduced B cell numbers

Autosomal recessive forms

What disease has a pre-B receptor checkpoint defect

Autosomal recessive forms

Autosomal recessive forms have what checkpoint

Pre-B receptor

Autosomal recessive forms have a mutation in what chain

IgM heavy chain

What disease has mutations in IgM heavy chain, surrogate light chains, Iga, BLNK

Autosomal recessive forms

what is the abbreviation of IgM heavy chains

What is the abbreviation of surrogate light chains

Autosomal recessive forms are seen in (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Primary

What deficiency has a decreased IgA

Selective IgA deficiency

What deficiency causes B. hypogammaglobulinemias/isotype defects

Selective IgA deficiency | CVID

What deficiency may be associated with icnreased susceptibility to bacterial infections and protozoa such as Giardia lamblia

Selective IgA deficiency

Selective IgA deficiency is associated with increased susceptibility to

Bacterial infections and protozoa

What deficiency has mutations in TAC1 in some patients

Selective IgA deficiency

Selective IgA deficiency has mutations in what gene

TAC1

What does CVID stand for

Combined Variable Immunodeficiency

What deficiency is known as hypogammaglobulinemia

CVID

What deficiency has normal or decreased B cell numbers

CVID

CVID has (normal/decreased/increased) B cell numbers

Normal-decreased

What deficiency has mutations in ICOS and TACI in some patients

CVID

CVID has mutations in which genes

ICOS and TACI

C Hyper-IgM syndromes can be seen with what deficiencies

X-linked

What deficiency has defects in T helper cell-mediated B cell, macrophage and dendritic cell activation

X-linked

What deficiency has defects in somatic mutation, class switching and germinal center formation

X-linked

What type of immunity is defective in X-linked

cell-mediated

What deficiency has defective cell-mediated immunity

X-linked

What deficiency has mitations in CD40L

X-linked

X-linked has deficiencies in what gene

CD40L

ICOS stands for

Inducible co-stimulator

TACI stands for

Transmembrnae activator and calcium modulator and cyclophilic ligand interactor

CVID has mutations in what 2 genes

ICOS and TACI

Hyper-IgM syndrome has mutations in what pathway

CD40 signaling pathway

What syndrome has mutations in the CD40 signaling pathway

Hyper-IgM

What syndrome has defects in T-dependent B cell activation, APC activation and cell mediated immunity

Hyper-IgM syndrome

What syndrome has mitations in CD40 ligand, CD40 and NEMO

Hyper-IgM syndrome

What deficiency is an immunodeifiency caused by B and T cell activation

CVID

CVID is common in horses of what age

>3 years

What dog breed is CVID common in

miniature dachsund

What defiency has a lack of B cells in blood, bone marrow or spleen

CVID

CVID has a lack of __ cells in blood, bone marrow or spleen

B cells

What deficiency is common in horses >3 years and miniture dachshund

CVID

What deficency can have agammaglobulinemia or hypogammaglobulinemia

CVID

In CVID lymphocytes are nonresponsive to

LPS

In what deficency are lymphocytes nonresponsive to LPS

CVID

What deficiency is susceptible to infections (bacterial, Pneumonocystis carinii)

CVID

Gamunex is a purified ____

gamma globulin

Gamunex is a treatment for what | 35 g every 5 weeks

CVID

Human immunodeficiency virus infection | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiencies

Secondary

Protein-calorie malnutrition | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Secondary

Irradiation and chemotherapy treatments for cancer | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Secondary

Cancer metastases and leukemia involving bone marrow | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiency

Secondary

Immunosuppression for transplants, autoimmune diseases | (primary/secondary) immunodeficiences

Secondary

Removal of spleen | (primary/secondary)immunodeficiency

Secondary

Secondary immunodeficiencies have what type of immunity

Acquired

What defiency causes the depletion of CD4 helper T cells

Human immunodeficiency virus infeoction

Human immunodeficiency virus infection causes depletion of what cells

CD4 helpter T cells

What deficiency causes metabolic derangements which inhibit lymphocyte maturation and function

Protein calorie malnutrition

Protein calorie malnutrition inhibits lymphocye...

maturation and function

What deficiency causes decreased bone marrow lymphocyte precursors

Irradiation and chemotherapy treatments for cancer

Irradiation and chemotherapy treatments for cancer cause decreased ___

bone marrow lymphocyte precursors

What deficiency reduces the site of leukocyte development

Cancer metastases and leukemia involving bone marrow

Cancer metastases and leukemia involving bone marrow reduces the site of

leukocyte development

What deficiency has reduced lymphocyte activation

Immunosuppression for transplantas, autoimmune diseases

Immunosuppression for transplants, autoimmune diseases reduce lymphocyte ...

activation

What deficiency has a decreased phagocytosis of microbes

Removal of spleen

Removal of spleen causes decreased phagocytosis of

microbes

In secondary immunodeficiencies are viruses affecting what cells

immune cells

What cells have infectious bursal disease virus which leads to atrophy of bursa

B cells

What cells are involved with retroviruses, target CD4 T cells and follicular dendritic cells

T cells

What cells are involved with FIV and SIV

T cells

FIV

Feline immunodeficiency virus

SIV

Simian immunodeficiency virus

What cells are important in bovine viral diarrhea virus, porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus

Macrophages

PRRSV

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus

Colostrum deprivation Vitamin A; Vitamin D Exercise/Obesity/aging/cancer Can all cause

Secondary immunodeficiences

Retinoic acid is what vitamin

What is the term for an undesirable reaction produced by the normal immune system including allergies and autoimmunity

Hypersensitivity reaction

Hypersensitivity reactions can also be called

intolerance

Hypersensitivity reactions include what 2 things

allergies | autoimmunity

Hypersensitivity reaction is an undesirable reaction produced by what

normal immune system

Hypersensitivity reactions can be what 3 things

Damaging Uncomfortable Occasionally fatal

What can be damaging, uncomfortable, or occasionally fatal

Hypersensitivity reaction

Hypersensitivity reactions require what state of the host

pre-sensitized immune state

What reactions require a pre-sensitized immune state of the host

Hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivity reactions require a pre-senstizied immune state of what

Host

How many types of hypersensitivites are there

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is immediate within minutes if prior sensitized

Type I

Type I hypersensitivity reactions have clinical signs that ocur how quickly

immediate within minutes

Type I hypersensitivity can occur within minutes if what

prior sensitized

What cells are involved with type I hypersensitivity

Mast cells basophilis Eosinophils

Mast cells Basophils Eosinophils are cells involved with what type of hypersensitivity

Type I

What Ig class is important in Type I hypersensitivity

IgE

IgE is an important Ig class for what type of hypersensitivity

Type I

Allerfies Asthma Anaphylaxis are the clinical syndrome of what type of hypersensitivity

Type I

Type I hypersenstivity has what clinical syndrome

Allergies Asthma Anaphylaxis

What type of hypersensitivity occurs within hours if prior sensitized

Type II and III

Type II and III hypersensitivites occur within hours if

prior sensitized

Fixation of complement results in targe cell lysis or phagocytosis of antibody coated phagocytes in what type of hypersensitivity

Type II

What Ig classes are important in Type II hypersensitivies

IgG | IgM

IgG and IgM are important Ig classes for what type of hypersensitivites

Type II

Cytolysis of antibody coated cells leads to anemia or thrombocytopenia or neutropenia are clinical syndrome of what type of hypersensitivity

Type II

What is the clinical syndrome of Type II hypersensitivity

anemia Thrombocytopenia Neutropenia

Neutrophils, some mast cells infiltrate secondary to complement activation are cells involved in what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

Type III hypersensitivity uses what cells

Neutrophils | some mast cells

What Ig classes are important for Type III hypersensitivity

IgG | IgA

IgG and IgA are important Ig classes for which type of hypersensitivity

Type III

Immune complexes deposit on capillaries, complement activation leads to immune complex disease (vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, arthritis) are clinical syndrome of what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

Type III hypersensitivities invovle what clinical syndrome

vasculitis glomerulonephritis arthritis

How quickly does Type IV hypersensitivity happen

2-3 days if prior sensitized (delayed)

What type of hypersensitizivity is delayed

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs 2-3 days if

prior sensitized

What type of hypersensitivity happens in 2-3 days

Type IV

Th1 CTLs Macrophages are cells involved in what type of hypersensitivity

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity has what cells involved

Th1 CTL macrophages

Granulomas or cellular apoptosis induced by CD8s is the clinical syndrome of what type of hypersensitivity

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivy has a clinical syndrome of

apoptosis induced by CD8

What Ig classes are important in type IV hypersensitivity

N/A

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by ___ attached to mast cells

IgE

IgE attached to mast cells mediates what type of hypersensitivity

Type I

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE attached to

mast cells

In type I hypersensitivity disease is caused by inflammatory molecules released from

mast cells

Clincal signs of allergic disease depend on the entry route of

antigens (allergens)

Inflammatory molecule released by mast cells cause

allergic anaphylaxis

Inflammatory molecules release what cells to cause allergic anaphylaxis

Mast cells

Animals may die due to contraction of critical ____ llining the bronchi

smooth muscle

Common reactions

Alleries to food Inhaled antigens Vaccines Drugs

Allergies may manifest as intesne

pruritus

Treatment of allergic reactions

Epinephrine

What is used to treat allergic anaphylaxis

Epinephrine

What is used to treat local inlammation and desensitizing injections of allergen for prolonged control

corticosteroids

What does epinephrine treat

allergic anaphylaxis

what does corticosteroids treat

local inflammation

Self eliminate (self cure) round worms (helminthes) in the gut ``` Eliminate allergen (antigen) from muco-cutaneous surfaces are 2 purposes of ```

Type I hypersensitivity

2 purpose s of Type I hypersensitivity

1. self eliminate round worms in the gut | 2. eliminate allergen from muco-cutaneous surfaces

Type I hypersensitivty involves what

Mast cells and IgE

IgE and mast cells are involved in what type of hypersensitivity

Type I

``` Mucus formation runny nose sneezing itching coughing vomiting diarrhea ``` are all signs of what

Type I hypersensitivity

Clinical signs of type I hypersensitivity

``` Mucus formation runny nose sneezing itching coughing vomiting diarrhea ```

smooth muscle contration leads to

bronchoconstriction

Bronchoconstriciton is due to

smooth muscle contraction

Vascular permeability leads to

edema formation

Type I hypersensitivity has IgE microgram quantities in blood with (shortest/longest) half life

shortest

``` Th2 cells IgE antibody Mast cells Eosinophils pathologic immune mechanisms of what type of hypersensitivity ```

Immediate hypersensitivity Type I

Type I hypersensitivity includes what pathologic immune mechanisms

Th2 cells IgE mast cells eosinophils

Mast cell derived mediators include

vasoactive amines lipid mediators cytokines

Vasoactive amines lipid mediators cytokines are mediators dervied from what

mast cells

Cytokine mediated inflammation comes from what cells

eosinophils | Neutrophils

Common inhaled allergens

Pollen | House dust mite

``` Plant pollens Dander of domesticated animals Mold spores Feces of very small animals (house dust mites) are what type of allergens ```

inhaled

common injected allergens

Wasp | Drug

``` Inset venoms Vaccines Drugs Therapeutic proteins are what type of allergens ```

Injected

Common ingested allergens

Peanuts | Shellfish

Food Orally administered drugs are what type of allergen

Ingested

FceRs with their ligands stimulates many different responses in

Mast cells

What Ig can lead to FceRI and FceRII

IgE

``` What Fc receptor has mast cell degranulation Eosinophil ADCC Dendritic cells Macrophages ```

FceRI

``` What Fc receptor has B cell down regulatio Macrophage phagocytosis NK cells Dendritic cells Eosinophils ```

FceRII

FceRI has what main event

Mast cell degranulation

FceRII has what main event

B cell down regulation

CR2 leads to what Fc receptor

FceRIII

B cell stimulation and survival is what Fc receptor

FceRIII

Main event of FceRIII

B cell stimulation/survival

what are the 3 Type I hypersensitivity effector cells

Mast cells Basophils Eosinophils

Mast cells Basophils Eosinophils are effector cells of what

Type I hypersensitivity

Which cell has purple granules

Mast cells

Purple granules are what type of substances

vasoactive

vasoactive substances are seen as what in mast cells

purple granules

Mast cells are seen where

skin connectiv e tissue mucosal surface

what cells are found in skin, connective tissue and mucosal surfaces

mast cells

Mast cells produce what

Histamine Heparin Serotonin

Histamine Heparin Serotonin are made by what cells

Mast cells

Serotonin is found in what species

ruminants

FceRI has a high affiniry for

IgE

What cells have similar features as mast cells but in blood

Basophils

Basophils are similar to mast cells but are found where

Blood

What cells are major basic protein Neurotoxins Pagocytic and used antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity for parasite destruction

Eosinophils

Eosinophils are phagocytic and use antibody dependent cell ___

cytotoxicity

what do eosinophils use antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity for

parasite destruction

Mast cells stain intensely because of the ___ in their cytoplasmic granules

Heparin

``` Neuropeptides IgG and antigen IgE and antigen Lipopolysaccharides Endothelins Adenosine are all stimuli that make mast cells do what ```

degranulate

Antigen bound through ___ causes rapid complete degranulation

IgE

True/false | In inflammatory responses the degree of mast cell degranulation is tailored to local defensive needs

True

IgE is attached to what cell

mast cell

Biologically active molecules are released by

mast cells and basophils

when are biologically active molecules released by mast cells and basophils

antigen cross-links 2 IgE molecules on the mast cell surface

IL-4 is produced by what cells

Th2 cells

Th2 cells produce what cytokine

IL-4

Once IL-4 is released it promotes development of more Th2 cells which are the major sources of this cytokine and promote what responses

IgE

Degranulation of mast cells releases

IL-4

NK cells may serve as an initial source of

IL-4

What cells may add as a source of IL-4

NK cells

Once antigen activates Th2 cells and IgE is stimulated what occurs in B cells

class switching

When the B cell does class switching what is produced

IgE

IgE binds to FceRI on what

Mast cells

when a mast cell is activated it releases what

mediators

what causes an immediate hypersensitivity reaction minutes after repeat exposure to antigen

Vasoactive amines, lipid molecules

What causes late phase reaction 6-24 hours after repeat exposure to allergen

Cytokines

Cytokines cause a reaction how quickly after repeat exposure to allergen

6-24 hours

Vasoactive amines, lipids cause a reaction how quickly after repeat exposure to allergen

Minutes

Soluble mediators released from degranulating mast cells fall into 3 categories

Granule exocytosis Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion Cytokine synthesis and secretion

How quickly does granule exocytosis occur

seconds

how quickly does eicosanoid synthesis and secretion occur

minutes

how quickly does cytokine synthesis and secretion occur

hours

What soluble mediator is released within seconds

granule exocytosis

what soluble mediator is released within minutes

eicosanoid synthesis and secretion

what soluble mediator is released within hours

cytokine synthesis and secretion

``` Histamine Serotonin Tryptase Kallikreins Proteases Proteoglycans are all part of what category of soluble mediators ```

Granule exocytosis

Granule exocyosis includes what

``` Histamine SErotonin Tryptase Kallikreins Proteases Proteoglycans ```

What category of mediators is: | Histamine

Granule exocytosis

What category of mediators is: | Serotonin

Granule exocyotsis

What category of mediators is: | Tryptase

Granule exocyotiss

What category of mediators is: | Kallikreins

Granule exocyotosis

What category of mediators is: | Proteases

Granule exocyotsis

What category of mediators is: | Proteoglycans

Granule exocytosis

Leukotrienes Prostaglandins Platelet-activating factor are part of what soluble mediator category

Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion

Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion include

Leukotrienes Prostaglandins Platelet-activating factor

LTB-4 is a

Leukotriene

Netrophil recruitment is done by

Prostaglandins

ROS is a

platelet-activating factor

What is an example of a leukotriene

LTB-4

Prostaglandins do what

neutrophil recruitment

Platelet-activiating factor

ROS

What category of mediators is: | Leukotriene

Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | Prostaglandins

Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | Platelet-activating factor

Eicosanoid synthesis and secretion

``` IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 IL-13 TNF-a MIP-1a are all what category of mediators ```

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

Cytokine synthesis and secretion include

``` IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 IL-13 TNF-a MIP-1a ```

what cytokine is important for eosinophil recruitment

IL-5

IL-5 is a major basic protein which is important for

eosinophil recruitment

IL-5 can cause what damage

Epithelial cell damage

Epithelial cell damage is done by what cytokine

IL-5

What category of mediators is: | IL-4

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | IL-5

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | IL-6

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | IL-13

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | TNF-a

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

What category of mediators is: | MIP-1a

Cytokine synthesis and secretion

Molecules released from exocytosed granules Lipids (eicosanoids) synthesized within minutes Proteins synthesized over several hours are all what

3 categories of soluble mediators

IL-33 is a mediator of

Type I Hypersensitivites

IL-33 acts on what 4 cells

Mast cells Basophils Eosinophils Th2 cells

``` What cytokine acts on Mast cells Basophils Eosinophils Th2 cells ```

IL-33

IL-33 stimulates production of ___ and ___ from many different cell types

Inflammatory cytokines and chemokines

Inflammatory cytokines and chemokines are produced from what cytokine

IL-33

IL-33 is constitutively released by what cells following tissue injury

Epithelial, endothelial, smooth muscles

Epithelial, endothelial and smooth muscle cells following tissue injury release what

IL-33

IL-33 is released from epithelial, endothelial and smooth muscle cells following

tissue injury

What 2 cytokines are important for mast cells

IL-6 | IL-13

IL-6 IL-13 are important for what cell

mast cell

What cytokines are important for basophils

``` IL-3 IL-4 IL-6 IL-13 Histamine GM-CSF ```

``` IL-3 IL-4 IL-6 IL-13 Histamine GM-CSF are important for what cell ```

Basophil

What 2 cytokines are important for eosinohpils

IL-8 | Degranulation

IL-8 Degranlation are important for what cell

Eosinophils

What 2 cytokines are important for Th2 cells

IL-5 | IL-13

IL-5 IL-13 are important for what cells

Th2 cells

What cytokines are needed for mast cells to be activated to tissue eosinophils

IL-3 IL-5 GM-CSF

``` Chemokines Histamine ECF-A Leukotriene B4 Imidazole acetic acid These are produced by ```

Chemotaxis of mast cells

What cytokine is needed for Th2 cells to go to bone marrow

IL-5

What cytokines are needed for Th2 to be activated to tissue eosinophils

IL-3 IL-5 GM-CSF

(Early/Late)phase reaction Eosinophil mobilization, chemotaxis and activation is regulated by factors released by mast cell degranulation and th2 cytokines

Late phase

Molecules released from activated eosinophils contribute to what process

acute inflammatory process

What cells exacerbate the inflammation triggered by mast cells

Eosinophils

Eosinophils exacerbate the inflammation triggered by what cells

mast cells

O2 and H2O2 are what

oxidants

Name 2 oxidants

O2 | H2O2

``` Phospholipase D Lysophospholipase Histaminase Catalase are what ```

enzymes

CXCL8 CCL3 CCL5 are what

Chemokines

Prostraglandins Leukotrienes PAF are what

Lipid mediators

``` Major basic protein Eosinophil cationic protein Eosinophilic neurotoxin Eosinophil peroxidase are what ```

Cationic granule proteins

``` TGF-1 TGF-B TNF-a GM-CSF PDGF are what ```

cytokines

What cells express trimeric FceRI

DCs

DCs express trimeric FceRI which bind antigen to what to form a complex

IgE

Th2 cells secrete ___

cytokines

Th2 cells secrete cytokines urther promotes what response

IgE

What cells secrete cytokines which further promote the IgE response

Th2

Mast cell activation is triggered by ___ of 2 bound IgE molecules with antigen

Cross linking

What cells are activated when triggered by cross linking of 2 bound IgE molecules with antigen

Mast cell

Mast cell activation is triggered by cross linking of what 2 molecules with antigen

IgE

Signal transduction of mast cells leads to

degranulation leukotriene and prostaglandin synthesis cytokine production

What causes inflammation (leukocyte recruitment)

Cytokines

Inflammation recruits what

leukocytes

What causes smooth muscle contraction

Leukotrienes

what causes vascular dilation

Prostaglandins

What causes tissue damage

Proteases

What causes vascular dilation, smooth muscle contraction

Vasoactive amines

What are lipid mediators

Prostaglandins | Leukotrienes

Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes are what mediators

lipid

Cytokines cause what

inflammation

leukotrienes cause what

smooth muscle contraction

prostaglandins cause what

vascular dilatation

proteases cause what

tissue damage

vasoactive amines cause what

vascular dilatation and smooth muscle contraction

``` Vascular dilatation Smooth muscle contraction Tissue damage Inflammation are all outcomes of what ```

Mast cell activation/degranulation

(Immediate/Late) phase causes mast cell degranulation

Immediate

(Immediate/Late) phase happens in 30 minutes and has fluid leakage

Immediate

How quickly does the immediate phase occur

30 minutes

(Immediate/Late) phase uses leukotrienes and chemokines

Late

(Immediate/Late) phaseuse eosinophils around 6-8 hours

Late

How quickly does late phase occur

6-8 hours

Allergic rhinitis, sinutis is known as

Hay fever

What allergic reaction has increased mucus secretion and inflammation of upper airways/sinuses

Allergic rhinitis, sinutis

Allergic inhalant dermatitis is most common in

Dalmatians

Bronchial asthma occurs in the lower airways of

cats

What allergic reaction has airway obstruction caused by smooth muscle hyperactvitiy and inflammation and tissue injury

Bronchial asth,a

Eosinophilic granuloma complex is common in

dogs/cats

Parasite allerfies are due to what

fleas

What allergic reaction causes increased peristalsis due to contraction of the intestinal muscle

Food allergies

Atopic Dermatitis has high levels of circulating

IgE

What has high levels of circulating IgE

Atopic Dermatitis

Atopic dermatitis has high levels of circulating IgE ___x higher than other individuals

Humans have an overexpression of what cytokine when they have atopic dermatisis

IL-4

What dog breeds are predisposed to atopic dermatitis

Cairn Terriers West Highland White and Scottish terriers Irish setters

Horses can have urticaria (hives) following exposure to

alfalfa

Urticaria in boxers is seen after exposure to

being stung by wasos

What is the term for systemic allergic responses

Anaphylaxis

Anaphylaxis is known as

systemic allergic responses

True/False Anaphylaxis can lead to life threatening clinical signs

True

Vascular permeability during anaphylaxis leads to

massive edema

Epiglottal sweeling causes compression of the

trachea

Fluid can accumulate in the shock organ known as the

lung

Term for blood and fluid loss

hypovolemia

Hypovolemia is

blood and fluid loss

Hypovolemia causes a drop/decrease in

blood pressure and cardiac output

What causes a drop in blood pressure and a decreased cardiac output

Hypovolemia

Bronchople constriction leads to

asphyxiation

Anaphylaxis in dogs can cause fluid loss from ____ and visceral pooling of blood in liver

GI Vomiting Diarrhea Urination

What are 2 ways to inhibit mast degranulation and effects

Epinephrine | Cromolyn sodium

Epinephrine and Cromolyn sodium can inhibit what

mast degranulation

what causes smooth muscle relaxation and vasoconstriction

Epinephrine

Epinephrine causes ___ and ____

smooth muscle relaxation and vasoconstriction

Epinephrine cannot be used in

cattle

What 2 drugs should be used in cattle instead of epinephrine

norepinephrine and Dexamethasone

What inhibits intracellular calcium increase

Cromolyn sodium

Cromolyn sodium inhibits what

intracellular calcium increase

You can inhibit histamines by using

anti-histamines

When anti-histamines bind histamine receptors on cells this does what

inhibits histamines

What stabilize membranes and prevents arachidonic acid break down and inflammation

corticosteroids

Corticosteroids tabilize membranes and prevent ___ and ___

arachidonic acid break down and inflammation

What is preventative hypo-sensitization therapy called

Desensitization therapy

Antigen immunization which stimulates blocking antibody IgG which binds allergen leading to phagocytosis is what type of dose

Multiple increasing dose

Multiple increasing dose is when antigen immunization blocks what

antibody IgG

Th1 cytokines are

IFN-y

Th1 cytokines inhibit what

Th2

Th1 cytokines lead to production of

IL-4 and IgE

Th1 cytokines induce tolerance by stimulating

Tregs (IL-10)

Increasing dose of allergen promote a ___ response

Th1

Reducing ___ response regulates antibody production

Th2

RIST stands for

Radio-Immunosorbent Test

RIST is what type of diagnostic test

Serum test

RIST measures total what

IgE

Radioactive IgE competes with patient IgE for

anti-IgE

When RIST tests have false positives what does that say about IgE

non-specific | high IgE levels with parasitism

RAST stands for

Radio-allergosorbent Test

What test measures patient IgE specific to allergen using radioactive or enzyme conjugated anti-dog IgE

RAST

RAST measures patient IgE specific to

antigen

RAST is a test for IgE to

allergens

Why are RAST tests uses

if you are worried a patient may react adversely to the ID test

What test should be used if you are worried patient may react adversely to the ID test

RAST

What type of diagnostic test is used to test for flea IgE

ELISA

What type of test do you inject small amount of allergen into the dermis

Intradermal

Intradermal skin tests are used to measure what response

wheal and flare response

Intradermal skin test can measure the wheal and flare response and compare it to ___ and __ injections

histamine and saline

What is the negative control in an intradermal skin test

Saline

What is a postivie control in an intradermal skin test

Histamine

What increases vascular permeability results in wheal

Histamine

Exam 3 Flashcards

(1739 cards)