Exam 3 Part 2 Flashcards by Alyssa Becker

What type of hypersensitivity occurs within hours if prior sensitized

Type II

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How quickly can type II hypersensitivity occur if it is prior sensitized

within hours

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Type II hypersensitivity can occur within hours if …

prior sensitized

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What type of hypersensitivity includes the fixation of complement results in target cell lysis or phagocytosis of antibody coated phagocytes

Type II

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Type II hypersensitivity has what cells involved

Target cell lysis

Phagocytosis

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What Ig classes are important for type II hypersensitivity

IgG

IgM

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What type of hypersensitivity uses IgG and IgM

Type II

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What type of hypersensitivity has a clinical syndrome that consists of cytolysis of antibody coated cells leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia or neutropenia

Type II

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Type II hypersensitivities have a clinical syndrome of

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia

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Type II hypersensitivity is also known as

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

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Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is what type of hypersensitivity

Type II

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What type of hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies and complement destroy normal/healthy cells

Type II

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Type II hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies and complement do what

destroy normal/healthy cells

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What type of hypersensitivity has destruction of transfused RBCs when administered to mismatched recipient

Type II

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Type II hypersensitivity results in destruction of what

transfused RBCs

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What causes transfused RBCs to be destroyed

Administration to a mismatched recipient

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What happens to RBCs when they are administered to a mismatched recipient

Destruction

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When destruction of RBCs occurs disease is due to what

lysis of transfused RBCs

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What components play a role in lysis of transfused RBCs

antibodies and complement

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Antibodies and complement play a role in

lysis of transfused RBCs

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Mothers may become sensitized by their fetus during pregnancy and make antibodies against

Fetal RBCs

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Antibodies against fetal RBCs, when ingested in colostrum cause destruction of

Newborn animals RBCs

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Newborn animals RBCs are destroyed when ___ is ingested in colostrum

Antibodies against fetal RBCs

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When newborn animals ingest colostrum with antibodies against fetal RBCs, this disease is known as

hemolytic disease of the newborn

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What happens in hemolytic disease of the newborn

Ingests colostrum with antibodies against fetal RBCs

Some vaccines may induce anti-MHC antibodies in what animals

cows

In cows, some vaccines may induce ___ antibodies

anti-MHC

In cows what can induce anti-MHC antibodies

Vaccine

In cows vaccine can induce anti-MHC ___

antibodies

What occurs if anti-MHC antibodies are ingested in colostrum

lethal pancytopenia in calves

Lethal pancytopenia in calves occurs how

ingestion of colostrum with anti-MHC antibodies

When ingested in colostrum ____ cause lethal pancytopenia in calves

anti-MHC antibodies

How do calves obtain lethal pancytopenia

Colostrum

Lethal pancytopenia in calves is due to what antibodies

anti-MHC

Lethal pancytopenia is induce by what

vaccines

Vaccines can induce what in calves due to their mother

Lethal pancytopenia

What may bind to blood cells and make them targets of antibodies in type II reactions

Drugs

Drugs may bind to what and make them targets of antibodies in type II reactions

blood cells

Drugs may bind to blood cells and make them targets of ___ in type II reactions

antibodies

Drugs may bind to blood cells and make them targets of antibodies in what type of reactions

Type II

What antibodies may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

IgM | IgG

What antibody cannot cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

IgE

True/False | IgM, IgG and IgE may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

False | NOT IgE

____ may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

IgM | IgG

What does not cause disease when binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

IgE

IgG and IgM may cause disease by binding to their target ___

antigen

Antibodies that cause disease most often are

autoantibodies against self antigens

Autoantibodies against self antigens cause disease how often

Most often

Rare cases involve antibodies specific for ___antigens

foreign | microbial

What type of antigens are microbial

Foreign

Foreign antigens are also known as what type of antigens

microbial

Following ___ infections some invididuals produce anti-streptococcal antibodies that cross react with heart tissue

Streptococcal

Streptococcal infections cause individuals to produce anti-steptococcal antibodies that do what

cross react

What do anti-streptococcal antibodies cross react with

heart tissue

When anti-streptococcal antibodies cross react with heart tissue it induces what

rheumatic fever

Rheumatic fever is what type of disease

inflammatory

True/False | Rheumatic fever can lead to acute heart failure

True

Rheumatic fever can lead to what

acute heart failure

what inflammatory disease can lead to acute heart failure

rheumatic fever

Injury caused by anti-tissue antibody causes complement and Fc receptor mediated recruitment and activation of

inflammatory cells

What occurs to cause complement and Fc receptor mediated recruitment and activation of inflammatory cells

Injury caused by anti-tissue antibody

Antibodies can form ____ complexes

Immune

What can form immune complexes

antibodies

Where do immune complexes deposit

1. Blood vessels | 2. Organs

What deposit in blood vessels and organs

immune complexes

When immune complexes are deposited in blood vessels it causes what

Vasculitis

Vasculitis is caused when what are deposited in blood vessels

Immune complexes

Vasculitis is caused when immne complexes are deposited where

blood vessels

When immune complexes are deposited in organs, anti-streptococcal antibodies deposit where

Kidney gloemruli

When anti-streptococcal antibodies deposit in kidney glomeruli it causes what

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused when what are deposited in kideny glomeruli

Streptococcal antibodies

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused when streptococcal antibodies are depostied where

kidney glomeruli

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can lead to

renal failure

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is what type of disease

antibody-mediated

Rheumatic fever is what type of disease

antibody-mediated

Immune complex-mediated tissue injury causes complement and Fc receptor-mediated recruitment and activation of

inflammatory cells

Antibodies specific for cell antigens may bind to and promote ____

destruction of cells

Antibodies specific for cell antigens may bind to and interfere with

normal cellular functions

2 effector mechanisms of antibody-mediated diseases

opsonization and phagocytosis

opsonization and phagocytosis are effector mechanisms of what diseases

antibody-mediated

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in

tissues

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in tissues and cause injury by

inducing local inflammation

Complement and Fc receptor-mediated inflammation are effector mechanisms of what diseases

antibody-mediated

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in tissues and cause disease by interfering with

normal cellular functions

antibodies against ach receptor cause

paralysis

Paralysis is caused when there are antibodies against

Ach receptor

What is it called when antibodies against Ach receptor cause paralysis

myasthenia gravis

myasthenia gravis is when antibodies against Ach receptor cause

paralysis

Anti-TSH antibody induce

hyperthyroidism

Graves disease is known as

Hyperthyroidism

Hyperthyroidism is known as

Graves disease

Graves disease occurs when ___ antibody induce hyperthyroidism

Anti-TSH

Antibody stimulates receptor without hormone Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor these are 2 effector mechanisms of

antibody-mediated disease

Antibody can stimulate receptors without

hormone

Antibody inhibits binding of ___ to receptor

neurotransmitter

Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to

receptor

____inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor

Antibody

___ stimulate receptor without hormone

Antibody

Does this cause cell/tissue injury Antibody stimulates receptor without hormone Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor

No!

What disease has a target antigen of erythrocyte membrane proteins

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is what type of disease

antibody-mediated

What is the target antigen of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Erythrocyte membrane proteins

Examples of erythrocyte membrane proteins

Rh blood group antigens | I antigen

Rh blood group antigens I antigen are what type of target antigen

Erythrocyte membrane proteins

What disease has opsonization and phagocytosis of erythrocytes

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

What is the mechanism of disease of autoimune hemolytic anemia

Opsonization and phagocytosis of erythrocytes

What is the result of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Hemolysis | Anemia

Hemolysis and anemia are the manifestations of what disease

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Autoimmune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura is what type of disease

Antibody-mediated

what disease has a target antigen of platelet membrane proteins

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura has what type of target antigen

Platlet membrane proteins

Examples of platelet membrane proteins

gbIIb/IIIa integrin

gpIIb/IIIa integrins are what type of target antigen

platelet membrane proteins

What disease has opsonization and phagocytosis of platelets

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura has what mechanism of disease

opsonization and phagocytosis of platelets

What is the result of Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

Bleeding

What disease has the manifestation of bleeding

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

What type of disease is graves disease (hyperthyroidism)

Antibody-mediated

What disease has a target antigen of thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSH)

Graves disease

Graves disease has a target antigen of what

TSH

What disease has antibody-mediated stimulation of TSH receptors

Graves disease

What is the mechanism of Graves disease

Stimulation of TSH receptors

What is the result of graves disease

Hyperthyroidism

What disease has the manifestation of hyperthyroidism

Graves disease

What type of disease is myasthenia gravis

antibody-mediated

What disease has the target antigen acetylchline receptor

Myasthenia gravis

Myasthenia gravis has what target antigen

acetylcholine receptor

what disease has antibody that inhibits acetylcholine binding and down modulates receptors

Myasthenia gravis

What is the mechanism of myasthenia gravis

Antibody inhibits acetylcholine binding

What disease causes muscle weakness and paralysis

myasthenia gravis

What are the manifestations of myasthenia gravis

Muscle weakness | Paralysis

What type of disease is rheumatic fever

antibody-mediated

What disease has a target antigen of streptococcal cell wall antigen

Rheumatic fever

What disease has a target antigen of antibody cross reacting with myocardial antigen

Rheumatic fever

What are the 2 target antigens of rheumatic fever

Streptococcal cell wall | cross-reaction with myocardial antigen

What disease has a mechanism of inflammation and macrophage activation

rheumatic fever

What is the mechanism of Rheumatic fever

Inflammation | Macrophage activation

What is the overall effect of Rheumatic fever

Myocarditis and arthritis

What disease has manifestations of myocarditis and arthritis

Rheumatic fever

What type of disease is pemphigus vulgaris

Antibody-medited

What disease has proteins in intracellular junctions of epidermal cells (epidermal cadherin)

Pemphigus vulgaris

Pemphigus vulgaris has a target antigen of

proteins in epidermal cells

What disease has antibody-mediated activation of proteases, and disruption of intracellular adhesions

Pemphigus vulgaris

Pemphigus vulgaris has what mechanism of disease

Activation of proteases | Distruption of intracellular adhesion

What disease has manifestations of skin vesicles (bullae)

Pemphigus vulgaris

What are the manifestations of Pemphigus vulgaris

Skin vesicles

Skin vesicles are also called

bullae

Bullae are known as

skin vesicles

Allo-immune reactions caused by incompatibility between donor and recipient can cause what

Type iI hypersensitivity

Allo-immune reactions are caused by ___ between donor and recipient

incompatibility

Allo-immune reactions are caused by incompatibility between ___ and ____

donor and recipient

___reactions are caused by incompatibility between donor and recipient

Allo-immune

Blood transfusion reactions are due to

blood group incompatibility

Blood group incompatibility causes

blood transfusion reactions

Allo-immune reactions can cause what type of reactions

blood transfusion reactions

____ define blood types

Erythrocyte Glycoproteins

Erythrocycte Glycoproteins are ___

antigens

Erythrocyte Glycoproteins define

blood types

Natural antibodies are made to antigens on

bacteria or food

When are natural antibodies made

first days of life

What type of antibodies are made to antigens of bacteria or food during first days of life

Natural

Antigens from natural antibodies have similar epitopes as

blood type glycoproteins

Blood type glycoproteins have similar epitopes as

antigens from natural antibodies

Anti-glycoprotein antibodies react with ____

RBC antigens

What type of antibodies react with RBC antigens

Anti-glycoprotein

What blood type is not found in cats

Type O

Type O blood type is not found in what species

cat

What are the 3 blood types of humans and cats

A B AB

Type A, B and AB are blood types of

humans and cats

What blood type is the universal recipient

Type AB

Type AB has what special feature

universal recipient

What blood type is the universal donor of packed red blood cells

Type O

Type O has what 2 special features

No antigens | Universal donor of packed RBCs

What blood type does not have antigens

Type O

Type O blood does not have

antigens

What is the plasma antibody for Type A blood

Anti-B

Anti-B is the plasma antibody for what blood type

Type A

What is the plasma antibody for type B blood

Anti-A

Anti-A is the plasma antibody for what blood type

Type B

Anti-A has what 2 Ig classes

IgG | IgM

IgG and IgM are found in what blood type

Type B

What plasma antibody has IgG and IgM

Anti-A

What blood type has no antibodies to red cell antigens

Type AB

What is the plasma antibody of Type AB

No antibodies to red cell antigens

What blood type has the plasma antibody Anti-A Anti-B

Type O

Type O has what plasma antibody

Anti-A | Anti-B

What is the half life of transfused blood

1 hour

Why can cats with Grp B blood type go into shock with 1 mL of Grp A blood

High titer IgM anti-A antibodies

Can cats with Grp B blood go into shock with 1 mL of Grp A blood

Yes

Which group is dominant in USA

Grp A (A antigen)

Which group has anti-B antibodies

Grp A

Which group is seen mainly in Europe/Australia (Persian cats)

Grp B (B antigen)

Which group has anti-A antibodies

Grp B

which blood type is rare in cats

AB antigens

On a card test for feline blood groups agglutination =positive/negative

Positive

On a card test for feline blood groups smooth = positive/negative

Negative

On a card test for feline blood groups what indicates negative

smooth

On a card test for feline blood groups what indicates positive

agglutination

Each spot on the card has ____ impregnated

antibody

How much blood should you add to a spot

a drop

What indicates the antibody is bound to RBC glycoproteins

Agglutination

Agglutination of RBCs indicates ___ is bound to ____

antibody | RBC glycoproteins

DEA 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 are blood types of what species

Dog

What does DEA stand for

Dog erythrocyte antigen

How many blood groups does the dog have

How many blood groups do cattle have

Which species has 11 blood groups

Cattle

How many blood groups do horses have

Which species has 7 blood groups

Horses

How many blood groups do pigs have

Which species has 16 blood groups

Pigs

HDN stands for

Hemolytic Disease of Newborn

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is also known as

HDN

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is what type of reaction

Allo-immune

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is seen in what species

``` Humans Horses Cattle Dogs Cats ```

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is what type of hypersensitivity

Type II

Fetal cells with parental antigen inherited from sire leak into ____

maternal circulation

when do fetal cells with parental antigen leak into maternal circulation

at birth

___ with paternal antigen leak into circulation

Fetal cells

Fetal cells with ___ leak into circulation

paternal antigen

Antibodies are produced by dam if ____ are foreign to dam (inherited from sire)

RBC antigens

____ are produced by dam if RBC antigens are foreign to dam

Antibodies

Antibodies are produced by dam if RBC antigens are

foreign to dam

if RBC antigens are foreign to dam they are inherited from

sire

Antibodies are produced by ___ if RBC antigens are foreign to dam

dam

subsequent foals or calves exposed to colostrum containing antibodies cause

hemolysis of RBCs

Subsequent foals or calves exposed to colostrum containing ____ causes hemolysis of RBCs

antibodies

Subsequent foals or calves exposed to ___ containing antibodies cause hemolysis of RBCs

colostrum

Mare with Aa-negative + Anti-Aa antibodies in colostrum =

hemolytic disease

Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to ___ incompatibility

Rh factor

Erythroblastosis fetalis is a type of what in humans

Neonatal Isoerythrolysis

Rh factor stands for

Rhesus factor on erythrocytes

Rh factor is present on

erythrocytes

What factor is present on erythrocytes

In Erythroblastosis fetalis are the following positive or negative Mother Father Baby

Mother Rh- Father Rh + Baby Rh+

When the mother is Rh-, maternal antibody is against what

Rh factor

When the mother is Rh-, ____ is against Rh factor

maternal antibody

In erythroblastosis fetalis maternal antibody is

against Rh factor

When IgG crosses the placenta, binds to fetal erythrocytes it causes

lysis | [complement activation]

___ crosses the placenta, binds to fetal erythrocytes, causing lysis

IgG

IgG crosses what

placenta

IgG crosses placent, binds to ___ and causes lysis

fetal erythrocytes

RBC breakdown generates what

bilirubin

____ generates bilirubin

RBC breakdown

___ accumulation in brain leads to encephalopathy

bilirubin

Bilirubin accumulation in ___ leads to encephalopathy

brain

Bilirubin accumulation in brain leads to

encephalopathy

Give anti-Rh antibody at 28 weeks of pregnancy and within 72 hours after birth is prevention for

Erythroblastosis fetalis

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by giving ___

anti-Rh antibody

To prevent Erythroblastosis fetalis anti-Rh antibody needs to be given when

28 weeks of pregnancy and within 72 hours after birth

Secondary immune mediated cause of Type II hypersensitivity has altered epitopes or new epitopes created by

underlying causes

Haptenic drug mediated hypersensitivity may cause

Anemia Thrombocytopenia Neutropenia

What drug mediated hypersensitivity may cause anemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia

Haptenic

Complement-coated penicilling modified red blood cells are phagocytosed by

macrophages

Penicillin modified red blood cells use what receptors

complement

Macrophages present

peptides

Macrophages present peptides from

penicillin-protein conjugate

When macrophages present peptides, they activate specific CD4 T cells to become

Th2 cells

What cells become Th2 cells

CD4 T cells

B cells are activated by

antigen

B cells are activated by antigen and help from activated __ cells

Th2

Plasma cells secrete penicillin specific ___

IgG

What cells secrete penicillin specific IgG

Plasma

Penicillin-specific IgG binds to modified

RBC

Activation of complement components C1-C9 and formation of membrane attack complex causes

lysis of RBC

Activation of complement components ___ cause lysis of RBC

C1-C9

Formation of what complex causes lysis of RBC

membrane attack complex

Activation of complement components ___ leads to covalent bonding of C3b

C1-C3

Activation of complement components C1-C3 leads to covalent bonding of

C3b

Activation of complement components C1-C3 also causes phagocytosis of antibody and complement coated ___

RBC

Secondary immune mediated causes of type II hypersensitivity has altered epitopes or new epitopes created by underlying causes or

infectious agents

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause ___ to be exposed, stimulating antibody production

new epitope

____ on RBCs cause new epitopes to be exposed, stimulating antibody production

Hemoparasites

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause new epitopes to be exposed stimulating

antibody production

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause new epitopes to be

exposed

Icterus is also known as

Jaundice

Mycoplasma canis or felis is what type of agent

Tick borne

Ab coats ___ with or without complement leading to extravascular or intravascular hemolysis and icterus

RBCs

What coats RBCs with/without complement leading to hemolysis and icterus

Ab coats RBCs with or without complement leading to extravascular or intravascular ___ and ___

hemolysis and icterus

Coombs anti-globulin test is a diagnostic test for

Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia

What is a diagnostic test for Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia

Coombs anti-globulin test

What does Coombs anti-globulin test for

Antibody on surface of RBCs

What diagnostic test, tests for antibody on the surface of RBCs

Coobs anti-globulin

Coombs anti-globulin test for

antibody

Coombs tests for antibody on

surface of RBCs

Coombs tests for ___ on surface of RBC

antibody

During what diagnostic test should you look for agglutination of RBCs

Coombs anti-gloulin

During a Coombs test you should look for what on RBCs

agglutination

Patient erythrocytes have what Ig on their surface

IgG

Coombs reagent is (monoclonal/polyclonal)

Polyclonal sera

Polyclonal sera includes what 4 components

Anti-dog IgG Anti-dog IgM Anti-dog IgA Anti-C3b

IgG on patient erythrocyte + Coombs reagent =

agglutination

Precipitation and agglutination assay is a diagnostic test for

antibodies

Add what amount of antigen to precipitation and agglutination assay

Constant

In precipitation and agglutination assay add constant amount of

antigen

What can cause false negatives in precipitation and agglutination assay

Antibody or antigen excess

Equivalence in Precipitation tests leads to what formation

lattice

Pro zone has an excess of

Antibody

What zone is there an excess of antibody

Pro zone

Post zone has an excess of

Antigen

What zone is there an excess of antigen

Post zone

Ab stands for

antibody

Ag stands for

Antigen

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry is a diagnostic test for

antibodies

What does the direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry detect

antibody-coated cells

What are antibody coated cells

RBC or platelets

RBCs and platelets are known as

antibody coated cells

What test detects antibody coated cells

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry

What test is more sensitive and not dependent on agglutination

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry is more sensitive and is not dependent on

agglutination

Fluorescent anti-equine IgG antibody + patient cells coated with antibody =

Fluorescence

Indirect immunofluorescence is a diagnostic test for

antibodies

What test is used to detect antibody in serum reactive to penicillin coated RBCs

Indirect immunofluorescence

Indirect immunofluorescence detects antibody in serum reactive to

penicillin coated RBCs

Fluorescent Anti-equine IgG antibody + patient antibody from serum + donor cells + penicillin =

fluorescence

In the indirect immunofluorescence test what 2 extra things do you need beside Anti-IgG antibody and patient antibody

Donor cells | Penicillin

Secondary to drug treatment Secondary to infectious agents Primary IMHA due to autoimmune process these are all causes of

Immune-mediated Anemia or Thrombocytopenia

Hapten carrier complex is seen secondary to

drug treatment

What complex is seen secondary to drug treatment

Hapten-carrier complex

Causes of Immune-mediated anemia or thrombocytopenia

Secondary to drug treatment Secondary to infectious agents Primary IMHA due to autoimmune process

Haptens are too small to be

Antigenic

What are too small to be antigenic

Haptens

Penicillin is a type of

Hapten

Penicillin binds to

RBCs

When penicillin binds to RBCs, RBC acts as the

carrier

Triple sulfa antibiotics bind to

platelets

When triple sulfa antibotics bind to platelets, platelets act as the

carrier

Mycoplasma canis, M felis, Anaplasma are what type of diseases

tick borne

What virus has molecular mimicry

Equine infectious anemia

This is the treatment of what disease Withhold colostrum Provide blood transfusion and glucocorticoids

Hemolytic disease of newborns

What are some treatment options for hemolytic disease of newborns

withhold colostrum blood transfusion glucocorticoids

To provide treatment for hemolytic disease in newborns you need to determine if it is ___ or ____

primary or secondary

If secondary treat for

underlying condition

(primary/secondary) treat for underlying condition

secondary

What would you treat with if bacterial

antibiotics

What would the treatment option be if disease is drug induced

Remove drug

(primary/secondary) use immunosuppressive drugs

Primary

autoimmune disease is | primary/secondary

primary

Use immunosuppressive drugs | primary/secondary

primary

Glucocorticoids Azathioprine used to treat (primary/secondary) disease

primary

2 drugs that can be used to treat primary disease

Glucocorticoids | Azathioprine

Azathioprine inhibits what 2 things

IL-2 | proliferation

IL-2 and proliferation are both inhibited by what drug

Azathioprine

Blood transfusion reaction and neonatal isoerythrolysis are both what type of reactions

Allo-immune

Secondary immune mediated hypersensitivity are caused by what 3 things

Haptenic drugs Infectious agents Cancer

Cancer Haptenic drugs Infectious agents are all due to what type of hypersensitivity

Secondary immune mediated

3 causes of Type II hypersensitivities

Allo-immune reactions secondary immune mediated primary immune mediated

What type of hypersensitivity is due to immune complex mediated tissue injuries

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity occurs within hours if prior sensitized

Type III

Type III hypersesnsitivity occurs how quickly

within hours

Type III hypersensitivity occurs within hours if

prior sensitized

What are the main cells involved in Type III hypersensitivity

Neutrophils

Neutrophils are the main cell involved in what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

Neutrophils, some mast cells, infilitrate secondary to complement activation are the cells involved in what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

What Ig classes are involved in type III hypersensitivities

IgG | IgA

IgG and IgA are the Ig classes of what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity has immune complexes that deposit on capillaries, complement activation leading to immune complex disease

Type III

What is the clinical syndrome of hypersensitivity type III

Immune complex disease

Vasculitis Glomerulonephritis Arthritis all lead to what disease

immune complex disease

What are 3 things that lead to immune complex disease

Vasculitis Glomerulonephritis Arthritis

Where does immune complex formation occur in type III hypersensitivity

vessels

When immune complex formation occurs in the vessels it leads to what response

inflammatory response

Inflammatory response primarily affect what areas of the body

``` Skin synovia lung eye kidney vessels in organs (liver) ```

Immune complex deposits Complement cascade activated Activation of neutrophils/mast cells are the 3 phases of

Hypersensitivity type III

Hypersensitivity type III has what 3 phases

1. Immune complex deposits 2. Complement cascade is activated 3. Activation of Neutrophils/Mast cells

Immune complex includes what 2 components

antigen-antibody

Where do immune complex components get deposited

tissue/blood vessels

What complex is deposited in tissues/blood vessels

Immune complex

What phase of Type III hypersensitivity includes chemotactic complement proteins released and recruits cells

Complement cascade is activated

What 2 cells does the complement cascade recruit when it is activated

Neutrophils and Mast cells

What are released when the complement cascade is activated

chemotactic complement proteins

C3a and C5a are what type of proteins

chemotactic complement

What phase of hypersensitivity type III leads to release of enzymes and ROS that damage tissues/vessels

Activation of neutrophils/mast cells

activation of neutrophils/mast cells leads to the release of ___ and ____

enzymes and ROS

Release of enzymes and ROS damages what

tissues/vessels

What 2 things that are released during activation of neutrophils/mast cells damage tissues/vessels

enzymes and ROS

During arthus reaction, locally injected antigen in immune individual with what type of antibody

IgG

Locally injected antigen in immune individual with IgG antibody is due to what reaction

Arthus reaction

In the arthus reaction the local immune-complex formation occurs if what is already present in circulation

antibody

What complex is formed if antibody is already present in circulation

Local immune-complex

Local immune-complex formation occurs if antibody is already present where

in circulation

Activation of complement releases ____ and induces ____

inflammatory mediators Mast-cell degranulation

C5a, C3a, C4a and C5a are all what

inflammatory mediators

Activation of ___ releases inflammatory mediators and induces mast-cell degranulation

Complement

Local inflammation, movement of fluid and protein into tissue and blood vessel occlusion are all what reaction

Arthus

Arthus reaction causes __ inflammation

Local

Arthus reaction has movement of what into tissue

fluid and protein

In the arthus reaction movement of fluid and proteins goes where

into tissue

Arthus reaction causes what occlusion

blood vessel

Arthus reaction causes blood vessel ___

occlusion

In the arthus reaction, injecting repeatedly normal horse serum via what route

subcutaneous

In the arthus reaction what is injected repeatedly subcutaneously

normal horse serum

Later injections in arthus reaction can lead to

Edema | Indurations hemorrhagic necrosis

Edema and indurations hemorrhagic necorsis are all due to (sooner/later) injections

later

What reaction manifests as localized form of generalized hypersensitivity

Arthus

Arthus reaction manifests as what form of generalized hypersensitivity

localized form

Damage in the arthus reaction is due to what complexes

antigen and antibody

When there is damage caused due to antigen and antibody complexes it leads to activation of

complement

Arthus reaction releases what molecules

inflammatory

Arthus reaction can cause what

tissue necrosis

Arthus reaction has vascular permeability and infilitration of

neutrophils

Arthus reaction has ___ permeability and infilitration of neutrophils

vascular

In arthus reaction where is the site of immune-complex deposition

perivascular area

Perivascular area is the site of immune-complex deposition for what reaction

Arthus

In farmers lung alevolar infiltrates consist of

neutrophils

In what disease do alveolar infilitrates consist of neutrophils

Farmers lung

Farmers lung consists of immune complexes where

alevolar capillary walls

What disease has immune complexes in alveolar capillary walls

Farmers lung

In farmers lung the antigen is what type of spores

fungal

What disease has an antigen that is fungal spores

Farmers lung

What is the route of how farmers lung is obtained

inhaled

What disease has a site of imune-complex deposition at the alveolar/capillary interface

Farmers lung

In farmers lung, the site of immune-complex deposition is where

alveolar/capillary interface

Farmers lung is known as what in horses

heaves

Heaves in horses is known as what in humans

farmers lung

Intravascular antigen-antibody complex formation leads to deposit in

blood vessel

Deposit of antigen-antibody complex in blood vessel leads to

Vasculitis

Vasculitis is caused by

deposit of antigen-antibody complex in blood vessel

Vasculitis is obtained by what route

Intravenous (high dose)

What disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in blood vessel walls

vasculitis

Vasculitis has a site of immune-complex deposition where

blood vessel walls

What disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in renal glomeruli

nephritis

Nephritis has a site of immune-complex deposition where

Renal glmoeruli

what disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in joint spaces

arthritis

Arthritis has a site of immune complex deposition where

joint spaces

Immune complex formation | phase 1,2,3

Immune complex deposition | phase 1,2,3

Complex-mediated inflammation | phase 1,2,3

Post. strept. equin vasculitis lesions are due to what disease

vascultiis

Purpura hemorrhagia is due to what disease

vasculitis

Blue eye is what type of response

Local type III

What is an example of a local type III response

blue eye

Blue eye is specifically known as

corneal edema

Corneal edema is commonly known as

blue eye

Ag-Ab complexes to canine MLV adenovirus vaccine I or infection deposits where

in cornea

What type of complexes to canine MLV adenovirus vaccine I or infection depositions in cornea

Ag-Ab

Ag-Ab compleses to what vaccine leads to deposits in cornea

MLV adenovirus vaccine

When complement binds Ab-complement system is activated it stimulates emigration of what

neutrophils

When there is emigration of neutrophils it causes

anterior uveitis

Anterior uveitis is due to emigration of

neutrophils

Complement binds what system, and when activated stimulated emigration of neutrophils

Ab-complement system

What binds Ab-complement system and when activated sitmulates emigration of neutrophils

Complement

Enzymes/substances released from PMNs leads to

corneal edema

Corneal edema leads to

fluid accumulation and opacity

What causes fluid accumulation and opacity

corneal edema

Enzymes/substances are released from ___ leading to corneal edema

PMNs

What are released from PMNs that lead to corneal edema

Enzymes/substances

To diagnose what disease, perform a direct immunofluorsecent antibody test

Glomerulonephritis

Glomerulonephritis is diagnosed by performing what test

direct immunofluorescent antibody test

Direct immunofluorsecent antibody test uses fluorescent anti-species ___ on tissue biopsies

IgG

Immunofluorescence test to diagnose glomerulonephritis detects ___

antibody

Immunofluorescnece test to diagnose glomerulonephritis detects antibody coating

glomerulus

Blue eye due to adenovirus type I MLV is due to what type of reaction

Local

``` Pneumonitis Serum sickness Peritonitis Dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis Glomerulonephritis are all (loca/systemic reactions) ```

Systemic

Heaves in horses is due to

moldy hay

Moldy hay causes what in horses

heaves

What reaction occurs when farmer's lung in people or heaves in horses happens

Pneumonitis

Pneumonitis is caused by

Farmers lung or heaves

Anti-serum depositions in vessels of liver causes

hepatitis

Hepatitis is due to anti-serum depositions where

liver

Anti-serum depositions in kidney causes

Glomerulonephritis

Glomerulonephritis is due to anti-serum depositons where

kidney

Anti-serum depositions in joints causes

arthritis

Arthritis is due to anti-serum depositions where

joints

What reaction occurs when immune complex formation to anti-serum depositions in liver, kidney, joints

Serum sickness in horses/humans

Serum sickness in horses/humans is when immune complex formation causes depositions of what

anti-serum

Serum sickness depositions in what 3 spaces

liver kidney joints

Serum sickness is caused by what 2 serum types

anti-tetanus | anti-venom

Anti-tetanus serum or anti-venom serum causes what reaction

serum sickness

What reaction occurs due to feline infectious peritonitis virus

Peritonitis

Peritonitis is due to what virus

feline infectious peritonitis

Peritonitis due to feline infectious peritonitis virus causes

vasculitis

Vasculitis in peritonitis is due to accumulation of what fluid

peritoneal fluid

Vasculitis of peritoneal fluid causes what reaction

peritonitis

What reaction is due to strangles

dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis

Dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis is due to what

strangles

Streptococcus equi is what disease

strangles

Strangles causes what

purpura hemorrhagica

Purpura hemorrahgica is due to what disease

strangles

Glomerulonephritis is caused by

Lyme disease

Lyme disease causes

glomerulonephritis

Streptococcus equi is due to what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

What disease has the major lesion purpura

Streptococcus equi

Streptococcus equi has what major lesion

purpura

Staphylococcus aureus is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

Type III

What disease has the major lesion dermatitis

Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus has what major lesion

dermatitis

Canine adenovirus I is due to what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

What disease has the major lesion uveitis, glomerulonephritis

Canine adenovirus I

Canine advenovirus I has what major lesion

Uveitis, glomerulonephritis

Hog cholera is what type of hypersensitivity

Type III

What 3 diseases have the major lesion of glomerulonephritis

Hog cholera African swine fever virus Equine infections anemia virus

Hog cholera African swine fever virus Equine infectious anemia virus all have what major lesion

glomerulonephritis

What type of hypersensitivity is african swine fever virus

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity is equine infectious anemia virus

Type III

What type of hypersensitivity is equine viral arteritis

Type III

What disease has a major lesion of arteririts

Equine viral arteritis

Equine viral arteritis has what major lesion

Arteririts

Treat the underlying condition if what is present

pathogen

Often the pathogen is long gone and the immune response is responsible for what

clinical syndrome

What 2 drugs suppress the immune system

Glucocorticoids | Cyclophosphamide

Glucocorticoids and Cyclophosphamide does what to the immune system

Suppress

What type of hypersensitivity has cell-mediated tissue injuries

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity is seen with what injuries

Cell-mediated tissue injuries

What type of hypersensitivyt occurs in 2-3 days if prior sensitized

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs how quickly if prior sensitized

2-3 days

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs within 2-3 days if

prior sensitized

What type of hypersensitivity has a delayed timing of clinical signs

Type IV

What type of hypersensitivity involved Th1, CTLs and macrophages

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity involves what cells

Th1 CTLs macropages

What Ig classes are involved in type IV hypersensitivity

N/A

What type of hypersensitivity has granulomas or cellular apoptosis induced by CD8's

Type IV

Type IV hypersensitivity has what clinical syndrome

granulomas or cellular apoptosis (CD8)

In type IV hypersensitivity apoptosis is induced by what cell

CD8

What type of hypersensitivity is known as delayed hypersensitivity

Type IV

In type IV hypersensitivity what 2 Th1 cytokines are accumulated and released

IFN-y | TNF-a

Type IV hypersensitivites activate what cells

macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

The immune mechanism of what type of hypersensitivity activates macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

Type IV

the immune mechanism of what type of hypersensitivity has Th1 CD4 T cells and CD8 T cell antigens sensitizied

Type IV

IFN-y and TNF-a are cytokines of what cells

Th1

The immune mechanism response of type IV hypersensitivity occurs at what time frame

72 hours

Immune mechanism response of what type of hypersensitivity occurs at 72 hours

Type IV

Swelling, induration or granuloma at site of antigen due to accumulation of macrophages and lymphocytes is a immune response of what type of hypersensitivity

What cells accumulate due to immune response in type IV hypersensitivity

macrophages and lymphocytes

Granulomas form at site of

antigen

___ forms at the site of antigen due to accumulation of macrophages and lymphocytes

Granuloma

Cytotoxic T cells destroy cells expressing what

target antigen

___ cells destroy cells expressing the target antigen

Cytotoxic T cell

T cell mediated tissue injury is what type of mechanism

Effector

Cytokine mediated inflammation leads to

Inflammation and tissue injury

T cell mediated killing of host cells leads to

cell death and tissue injury

Antigen is introduced into subcutaneous tissue and processed by local _____

antigen presenting cells

Antigen is introduced into ____ tissue

subcutaneous

____ is introduced into subcutaneous tissue and processed by local antigen presenting cells

Antigen

a ____ cell recognizes antigen and releases cytokines which act on vascular endothelium

Th1 effector

a Th1 effector cell recognizes ____

antigen

A Th1 effector cell recognizes antigen and releases ____

cytokines

A Th1 effector cell recognizes antigen and releases cytokines which act on

vascular endothelium

Recruitment of T cells, phagocytes, fluid and protein to site of antigen injection cause

visible lesion

Recruitment of T cells, phagocytes, fluid and protein to site of ____ injection cause visible lesion

antigen

What type of test has Th1 immune response to mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens

Positive tuberculin skin test

Positive tuberculin skin test has what type of immune response

Th1

Positive tuberculin skin test has Th1 immune response to what antigens

mycobacterium tuberculosis

Contact dermatitis to penicillin, poison ivy, metal ions are antigens that act as

haptens

when contact dermatitis to penicillin, poision ivy and metal ions act as haptens they bind what cells

skin cells (carriers)

Positive tuberculin skin test is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

type IV

contact dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

Type IV

contact dermatitis occurs due to what 3 products

Penicillin Poison ivy Metal ions

Penicillin, poison ivy and metal ions all cause what

contact dermatitis

Tissue rejection after tissue transplantation or exposure to hidden antigens is caused by what type of hypersensitivity

Type IV

Tuberculin skin reaction is a memory ___ response

Th1

Tuberculin skin reaction is a memory Th1 response to

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What reaction is a memory Th1 response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Tuberculin skin reaction

Purified protein derivative of M. tuberculosis (PPD) is injected into skin and processed by

APCs

When purified protein derivative of M tuberculosis is injected into the skin it is processed by APCs and attracts what cells

memory effector T cells (CD4) and macrophages

When protein is injected into the skin it results in induration by

48-72 hours

Induration = | positive/negative reaction

positive reaction

Induration casues a

tubercle or granuloma

During an in vivo test tuberculin skin test is read at what time frame

72 hours

TB skin test is used commonly in what species

cattle

When there is no swelling or induration | negative/positive reaction

negative

(positive/negative reaction) is when the animal has never been exposed to TB whole organis

negative

Induration is a (positive/negative reaction)

Positive

Induration causes what 2 signs

redness | firm swelling

(positive/ negative reaction) means the animal was previously exposed

Positive

What time frame does induration peak

48-72 hours

When posion ivy oil acts as a hapten and binds to skin proteins (carrier) it causes

contact dermatitis

Posion ivy oil acts as a

hapten

Contact dermatitis stimulates ___ to induce apoptosis of keratinocytes

CTLs

contact dermatitis stimulates CTLs to induce apoptosis of

keratinocytes

contact dermatitis stimulates CTLs to induce ___ of keratinocytes

apoptosis

What stimulates CTLs to induce apoptosis of keratinocytes

contact dermatitis

What type of hypersensitivity reaction can occur due to topical drugs

Type IV

What type of topical drugs can cause type IV hypersensitivity

Penicillin

Type IV hypersensitivity can occur due to what type of drugs

Topical

True/False | Lesions due to topical drugs are resolved after drug removal

True

Chemicals can also cause what disease

contact dermatitis

What chemical is in cosmetics, textiles, furinature, upholstery, newspaper dyes, paper, rubber of milking machine

Formaldehyde

What chemical binds proteins easily causing skin hypersensitivity and asthma

formaldehyde

Formaldehyde binds proteins easily causing ___ and ____

skin hypersensitivity and asthma

What chemical dissolves in the weak acid environment of sweat and binds to proteins (albumin component)

Nickel

Nickel dissolves in what environement

weak acid

Nickle dissolves in the weak acid environment of ___

sweat

Nickel binds to what type of proteins

albumin complement

What chemical causes hypersensitivity to costume jewelry, dog collars, metal eyeglass

Nickel

Nickel hapten binds to what cells

keratinocytes

When nickel hapten binds to keratinocytes it causes what cells to induce apoptosis

cytotoxic T cells

When nickel hapten binds to keratinocytes it causes cytotoxic T cells to induce apoptosis of

keratinocytes

What is the diagnosis of contact dermatitis

in vivo tuberculin skin test

Tuberculin skin test for diagnosis of contact dermatitis tests for what type of immunity

cell-medaited

Tuberculin skin test for diagnosis of contact dermatitis tests for cell mediated immunity to

M tuberculosis

In vitro test for T helper cell proliferation or cytotoxic T cell activity to the antigen is used to diagnose

Contact dermatitis

In vitro test for T helper cell proliferation or cytotoxic T cell activity to antigen is used because there is no ____ test available

commerical

In vitro test, test for ___ proliferation

T helper cell

In vitro test, tests for ____ activity to antigen

cytotoxic T cell

Treatment for contact dermatiits

avoid contact with chemical or substance

Avoid contact with chemical or substance is a treatment option for

contact dermatitis

What drugs can be used to treat contact dermatitis

Anti-inflammatory Glucocorticoids Antibiotics

For contact dermatitis antibiotics are only used if there is what type of infection (primary/secondary)

secondary

What drugs are only used for contact dermaitis if secondary infection is ppresent

antibiotics

Anti-inflammatory drugs Glucocorticoids Antibiotics are all treatment options for what disease

contact dermaitits

Organ graft rejection is mainly due to ___ disparity

MHC class I

What is mainly due to MHC class I disparity

Organ graft rejection

For tissue grafts antigen is expressed by what chromosome

True/False | Male tissue will be rejected by females

True

Why will male tissue will be rejected by females

Antigen is expressed by Y chromosome

___ vs ___ is important in bone marrow recipients

Graft vs Host

What type of lymphocytes in immunosuppressed recipient destroys recipients cells and tissues

Foreign

Foreign lymphocytes in what type of recipient destroys recipients cells and tissues

immunosuppressed

foreign lymphocytes in immunosuppressed recipient destroys recipients ___ and ___

cells and tissues

What develops in testicular tissue when spermatozoa leaks out following trauma

sperm granuloma

Sperm granuloma develops where

testicular tissue

Sperm granuloma develops in testicular tissue when __ leaks out

spermatozoa

Sperm granuloma develops in testicular tissue when spermatozoa leaks out following

trauma

Sperm granulomas can also develop what type of antibodies

anti-sperm

Anti-sperm antibodies can develop in

sperm granuloma

Sperm granulomas have what type of immune response

Th1

What has a Th1 immune response with CTLS and activated macrophages

sperm granuloma

What cells cause a Th1 immune repsonse in sperm granuloma

CTLs and activated macrophages

What type of graft is indefinitely

Autograft

What type of graft lasts hours

Zenograft

What type of graft lasts 1-2 weeks

Allograft

Type I (insulin dependent) diabetes mellitus is what type of disease

T cell mediated

What type of diabetes mellitus is insulin dependent

Type I

Insulin, glutamic acid, decarboxylase are all what type of antigens

Islet cell antigens

what are some islet cell antigens

insulin glutamic acid decarboxylase

what disease has a specificity of pathogenic T cells using islet cell antigens

Type I diabetes mellitus

Type I diabetes mellitus uses the specificty of pathogenic T cells using what antigens

Islet cell antigens

What type of disease is rheumatoid arthritis

T cell mediated

What disease has specificity of pathogenic T cells using unkown antigen in joint synovium

Rheumatoid arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis uses specificity of pathogenic T cells using what

unkown antigen in joint synovium

What type of disease is multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomelitis

T cell mediated

Multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis uses specificity of pathogenic T cells using

myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein

Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for what disease

multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis

What type of disease is inflammatory bowel disease

T cell mediated

Crohns and ulcertaitve colitis are what type of disease

inflammatory bowel disease

What are examples of inflammatory bowel disease

Crohns | Ulcerative colitis

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for inlammatory bowel disease

Unkown

The specificity of pathogenic T cells is unkown for what disease

Inflammatory bowel disease

What type of disease is peripheral neuritis

T cell mediated

Specificity of pathogenic T cells is P2 protein of peripheral nerve myelin for what disease

peripheral neuritis

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for peripheral neuritis

P2 protein of pheripheral nerve myelin

Autoimmune myocarditis is what type of disease

T cell medaited

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for autoimmune myocarditis

myocardial proteins

Specificity of pathogenic T cells is myocardial proteins for what disease

autoimmune myocarditis

Tolerance goes along with regulation of what type of immunity

acquired immunity | adaptive

What is known as self-nonself discrimination in the immune system and its failure

Tolerance

What cells must be made tolerant to self-antigens

Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes are made tolerant to what

self-antigens

What are killed through central tolerance

self-reactive lymphocytes

Self-reactive lymphocytes are killed through what type of tolerance

central tolerance

Self reactive lymphocytes are turned off by what during peripheral tolerance

inappropriate signaling

Inappropriate signaling turns off self reactive lymphocytes in what type of tolerance

Peripheral tolerance

Lymphocytes must be made tolerant to self antigens and can be done what 2 ways

Central tolerance | Peripheral tolerance

Central and peripheral tolerance play a role in

Lymphocytes becoming tolerant to self-antigens

antigens stimulate what responses

immune responses

Immune responses are stimulated by

antigens

Very low or very high antigen doses cause

tolerance

Tolerance is caused by very low or very high ___ doses

antigen

Antibodies tend to regulate antibody production through (positive/negative) feedback mechanisms

Negative

What type of feedback hinders successful vaccination of newborn animals as a result of maternal immunity

negative

Immune responses may also be controlled by the activities of what cells

Regulatory T cells (Treg)

Treg cells secrete what 2 cytokines

IL-10 and TGF-B

IL-10 and TGF-B are secreted by what cells

Tregs

Tregs control what type of responses

immune responses

Th17 cells regulate what

inflammation

Inflammation is regulated by what cells

Th17

Th17 cells regulate inflammation by secreting

IL-17 | interleukin-17

IL-17 is secreted by what cells to regulate inflammation

Th17

True/False | Immunity is a balance

True

Normal immune response with tolerance leads to

immunity against pathogens

When there is not sufficient immunity against pathogens it leads to increases in what 2 things

infections | cancers

Defective response against pathogens is known as

immunodeficiency

immunodeficiency is (defective or excessive response)

defective

``` Autoimmunity Lymphoid tumors Hypersensitivities (allergies) are all what type of response (excessive/defective) ```

Excessive

When there is beyond sufficient immunity against pathogens it can cause what 3 things

Autoimmunity Lymphoid tumors Hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivities are also commonly known as

allergies

TCR and BCR are both what type of receptors

antigen binding

True/False | Antigen binding receptors are generated randomly in germline

True

What are 2 antigen binding receptors

TCR and BCR

Antigen binding receptors are generated randomly in

germline

amino acid sequences of antigen binding receptors may bind to

self antigens

What % of TCR and BCR's bind self antigens

20-50%

20-50% of TCR and BCR bind what

self antigen

What type of tolerance requires that self-reactive lymphocytes are 1. destroyed 2. turned off

self tolerance

Self tolerance requires self-reactive lymphocytes to be what

1. destroyed | 2. turned off

When self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed this is postive or negative selection

negative

When self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during maturation of immune cells it occurs in what type of organs (primary/secondary)

primary

What happens to self-reactive lymphocytes in primary organs

Destroyed

Self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during what phase

maturation

self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during maturation of what cells

immune cells

what type of selection occurs in primary lymphoid organs during self tolerance

negative selection

What type of tolerance has destruction of self reactive lymphocytes in primary lymphoid organs

Self tolerance

During self tolerance what type of lymphocytes are destroyed

self reactive

Self-reactive lymphocytes are turned off in what type of organs (primary/secondary)

secondary

Self-reactive lymphocytes are turned off in secondary lymphoid organs (earlier/later) in life

later

In what type of tolerance are self-reactive lymphocytes turned off in secondary lymphoid organs

self tolerance

During self tolerance what type of lymphocytes are turn off later in life

self reactive lymphocytes

What is the term for unresponsive to an antigen

tolerance

Tolerance is unresponsive to ___

an antigen

Tolerance can occur if ____ are exposed to antigen early in life

immature lymphocytes

True/False Tolerance can occur if immature lymphocytes are exposed to antigen early in life and lymphocytes remain tolerant even when exposed later in life

True

What can occur if immature lymphocytes are exposed to antigen early in life

Tolerance

What is the term for reactivity against self

Autoimmunity

Autoimmunity is reactivity against

self

If reacivity against self is severe it can result in

Autoimmune disease

what is a condition characterized by a specific antibody or cell mediated immune response against the constituents of the body's own tissues

Autoimmunity

Autoantigens are constituents of the body's own

tissues

Autoimmunity is characterized by what type of antibody or what type of immune response

specific antibody | cell-mediated immune response

Autoimmunity is when a specific antibody or cell-mediated immune response goes against what

autoantigens

Dizygotic means identical or non-identical

non-identical

What is the term when non-identical calf twins share a placenta

dizygotic

Dizygotic is when non-identical calf twins share a

placenta

Bone marrow cells colonize each other in what type of calves

Chimeric calves

Chimeric calves have what type of cells that colonize each other

Bone marrow

Each chimera is tolerant to what cells

its twin's cells

Each chimera is tolerant to its twin's cells and will accept ___ from its twin despite the genetic differences

skin graft

Each chimera is tolerant to its twin's cells and will accept skin graft from its twin despite _____

genetic difference

CTLs do not reject what

skin grafts

____ do not reject skin grafts

CTLs

BVDV intrauterine infection is an example of

Tolerance

What type of infection is an example of tolerance

BVDV intrauterine infection

Non-cytopathic BVDV infects __

fetus

What type of BVDV infects fetus

Non-cytopathic

Non-cytopathic -__ infects fetus

BVDV

Non-cytopathic BVDV infectus fetus around what days

50 to 120 days

Around 50-120 days what infects fetus

Non-cytopathic BVDV

PI stands for

persistently infected

Calves become persistently infected and remain ___ for life

carriers

___ become persistently infected and remain carriers for life

Calves

Calves become persistently infected and remain carriers for how long

life

Calves persistently infected and remain carriers for life are (seronegative/seropositie) and tolerant to virus

seronegative

Pregnant BVDV-PI female is (least/most) common route

Least | Less than 10%

``` Pregnant female (non-PI) infected with BVDV virus during first half of gestation is (least/most) common ```

Most | Over 90%

BVDV virus is shed from what animals

infected animals

PI calf will (constantly/occasionaly) shed BVD virus

Constantly

What type of BVDV pregnant cow (PI or non-PI) is the most common route

Non-PI

What type of BVDV pregnant cow (PI or non-PI) is the least common route

Central and Peripheral are mechanisms of induction of

tolerance

What are the 2 mechanisms of induction of tolerance

Central | Peripheral

Central tolerance affects (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs

Primary

Primary lymphoid organs are affected by what type of tolerance

Central

``` Bone marrow Peyer's patches Thymus Bursa are all (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs ```

Primary

``` Bone marrow Peyer's patches Thymis Bursa are all induced by what type of tolerance ```

Central

Central tolerance induces what organs

Bone marrow Peyer's ptaches Thymus Bursa

In what type of tolerance do developing lymphocytes react to self antigens

Central

In central tolerance ___ react to self antigens

developing lymphocytes

in central tolerance developing lymphocytes react to

self antigens

In central tolerance when developing lymphocytes react to self antigens it induces (positive/negative selection)

negative selection

What type of tolerance induces negative selection

central

what type of selection is induced when developing lymphocytes react to self antigens

Negative

What type of tolerance is induced by secondary lymphoid organs

Peripheral

Peripheral tolerance is induced by (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs

secondary

Peripheral tolerance is when ___ recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues

Mature lymphocytes

In what type of tolerance do mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues

Peripheral

When mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues it leads to mechanisms of

removal or inactivation

In peripheral tolerance mature lymphocytes recognize

self antigen

What recognize self antigen in peripheral tolerance

mature lymphocytes

mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in what tissues

peripheral lymphoid

What recognize self antigens in peripheral lymphoid tissues and leads to mechanisms of removal or inactivation

mature lymphocytes

What type of tolerance leads to removal or inactivation

Peripheral tolerance

What type of cells are more easily made tolerant

T cells

T cells are more easily made tolerant within ___ hours

24 hours

T cells are more easily made __ within 24 hours

tolerant

What cells remain longer in a tolerant state

T cells

___ cells more easily made tolerant and remain longer in a tolerant state than ___ cells

T cells | B cells

Pre-T cells become

Thymocytes

Thymocytes originate from

Pre-T cells

What type of tolerance involes a thymocyte

central tolerance

Thymocyte in central tolerance leads to a response within

thymus

Response within the thymus in central tolerance leads to ___ by apoptosis

clonal deletion

What type of tolerance leads to clonal deletion by apoptosis

central

what type of tolerance involves a T cell

Peripheral tolerance

T cell originates from

thymocyte

thymocyte produces a

T cell

Low doses of antigen and lack of costimulation are both due to what type of tolerance

peripheral

Peripheral tolerance leads to ___

anergy

What tolerance leads to anergy, apoptosis or T cell regulation

peripheral

During Central Tolerance T cell selection occurs where

Thymus

In what type of tolerance are T cells selected in thymus

Central Tolerance

During central tolerance what type of cells are selected in the thymus

T cells

Thymic epithelial cells express what factor

aire transcription

Aire transcription factor is expressed by what cells

Thymic epithelial cells

expression of aire transcription factor promotes express of

self proteins

what facor promotes expression of self proteins

aire transcription factor

Insulin Thyroglobulin Myelin basic protein are all examples of what

self proteins

Name a few self proteins

Insulin Thyroglobulin myelin basic protein

Aire transcription factor promotes expression of self proteins except antigens of what 3 organs

brain eye testis

T cells with TcRs that bind with high affinity to many self antigens are programmed to

die

What type of selection occurs when cells are programmed to die (positive/negative)

Negative selection

What 2 things bind during negative selection which program self antigens to die

T cells with TcRs

T cells with TcRs bind with (high/low) affinity to cause negative selection

high

T cells with TcRs bind with high affinity to what

self antigens

Negative selection is regulated by what gene

aire gene

aire gene regulates what

negative selection

aire stands for

Autoimmune Regulator

if pre-T cells react strongly with self antigens what occurs

apoptosis

If pre-T cells do not react strongly with self antigens they go on to react with

self-MHC

When cells react weakly or not at all with self-MHC what occurs

apoptosis

When cells react with self-MHC and proliferate what type of cells occur

MHC-restricted non-self reactive mature T cells

When pre-T cells react or do not react with self-antigens this is negative or positive selection

negative

When cells react with self-MHC or they do not this is negative or positive selection

positive

What leads to ineffective central tolerance and autoimmunity

gene defects

Gene defects lead to ineffective central tolerance and

autoimmunity

gene defects lead to ineffective ____ and autoimmunity

central tolerance

defects in ___ lead to autoimmune diseases that effects multiple organs

aire

Defects in aire lead to

autoimmune diseases

Mutations in ____ leads to apoptosis

fas

CD95 is known as

fas

Fas is what CD

CD95

Death receptor pathway is also known as

apoptosis

True/False | Self reactive lymphocytes do not undergo apoptosis when there is a mutation in fas

True

Do self reactive lymphocytes undergo apoptosis when there is a mutation in fas

What cannot occur when there are mutations in fas

negative selection of T cells

Can negative selection of T cells occur when there are mutations in fas

Immature B cells that bind self antigens with high affinity undergo what 2 things

negative selection | receptor editing

Immature B cells bind self antigens with high or low affinity to cause negative selection or receptor editing

high

What bind to self antigens with high affinity to undergo negative selection or receptor edting

immature B cells

Immature B cells bind ___ with high affinity

self antigens

Negative selection is also known as what process

apoptosis

Receptor editing occurs on what region of genes

variable regions

What happens to genes in the variable region when immature B cells bind self antigens

receptor editing

Immunoglobulin genes recombine so that a new ___ chain is spliced with a __ chain

light | heavy

Immunoglobulin genes ___ so that a new light chain is spliced with a heavy chain

recombine

What type of genes recombine so that a new light chain is spliced with a heavy chain

immunoglobulin

when immunoglobulin genes recombine it produces what type of receptor

B cell

When immunoglobulin genes recombine it produces a B cell receptor that is no longer specific to

self antigen

Mature self-reactive cells that leave the thymus can be suppressed by what 3 mechanisms

Anergy Deletion Supression

Anergy Deletion Suppression are all mechanisms of

supressed mature self-reactive cells

Mature self-reactive cells leave the ___

thymus

Mature self-reactive cells that leave the thymus are suppressed in the ___

periphery

What is the term for functional inactivation

Anergy

Anergy is ....

functional inactivation

What is it called cells recognize self-antigens without adequate levels of costimulatory signals (second signals)

Anergy

Anergy is when cells recognize self-antigens without adequate levels of

costimulatory signals

Anergy is when cells recognize ____ without adequate levels of costimulatory signsl

self-antigens

What is activation induced apoptosis

Deletion

Deletion is activation induced

apoptosis

What is it called when activation of cell by self-antigen stimulates T cell clones that kill each other

Deletion

Deletion is activation of cell by self-antigen which stimulates

T cell clones

T cell clones kill each other by what pathway

FasL/Fas

Suppression by Tregs produces what 2 cytokines

TGF-B or IL-10

TGF-B and IL-10 are produced by

suppresion by Tregs

Inflammatory signals provided by ___ interactions

PRR-PAMP

PRR-PAMP interactions provide

inflammatory signals

Cytokines are also known as what kind of signals

inflammatory

inflammatory signals are also called

cytokines

TcR binding to antigen without co-stimulatory signals or inhibition of co-stimulatory pathway results in

anergy

TcR binding to antigen without ____ signals or inhibition of ____ pathway results in anergy

co-stimulatory

Inhibitory receptors include

CTLA-4 | PDI

CTLA-4 and PDI are both what types of receptors

Inhibitory

What cell presents CD28

Naive T cell

what cell presents B7

APC

Anergy is when what cells are costimulator deficient

APC

APCs are costimulator deficient during

anergy

Antigen recognition without costimulation results in what type of APC

costimulator deficient

What type of T cell response occurs when there is restimulation with APC expressing costimulators

No response

Antigens recognized in the presence of strong co-stimulation/growth factors stimulate production of

anti-apoptotic proteins

Antigens recognized in the presence of which strong co-stimulation growth factor stimulates production of anti-apoptotic proteins

IL-2

Inducers of apoptosis is sequestered where

mitochondria

Activated T cells leads to T cell ___ and ____

proliferation and differentiation

cell death is caused by engagement of

death receptors

Engagement of death receptors causes

cell death

Expression of death receptor ligand and receptor leads to

apoptosis

Recognition of self antigens may trigger

apoptosis

Apoptosis resutls in deletion of self-reactive T cells through expression of

Fas/fas ligand

What are deleted through expression of fas

self reactive T cells

Regulatory T cells are generated by the combined actions of __ and ___

IL-2 and TGF-B

Presence of retinoic acid generates

Tregs

IL-2 TGF-B Retinoic acid are generate

Tregs

Tregs are generated bt 3 things

IL-2 TGF-B retinoic acid

Tregs characteristically produce what suppressive cytokines

TGF-B IL-10 IL-35

TGF-B IL-10 IL-35 are

suppressive cytokines

TGF-B, IL-10 and IL-35 all cause suppresion of what function

T cell and macrophage

Tregs mediate suppression by secreting

TGF-B and IL-10

Th1 is what type of T cell

Effector T cell

Effector T cells + IFN-y create what type of cell

activated macrophae

Effector T cells need what type of cytokine to become an activated macrophage

IFN-y

Tregs cause contact dependent inhibition of what responses

T cell

What cells cause contact dependent inhibition of T cell responses

Tregs

Tregs cause cytokine mediated inhibition of what response

T cell

What cells cause cytokine mediated inhibition of T cell respones

Tregs

Cytokine mediated inhibition of T cell responses affects what type of T cells

Effector T cells

Contect dependent inhibition of T cell responses affects what type of T cells

Naive

Tregs cause ____

suppression

Self-reactive B cells can occur in what type of lymphoid tissues

secondary lymphoid tissues

Self-reactive ___ cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

B cells

what type of tolerance occurs when self-reactive B cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

Peripheral B-cell

Peripheral B cell tolerance is when --- B cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

self -reactive

Antibody diversity is generated by

VDJ rearrangement Random somatic mutation self-reactive receptors

VDJ rearrangement Random somatic mutation self-reactive receptors all generated what

antibody diversity

VDJ rearranagment occurs in what type of lymphoid organs

primary

Random somatic mutation occurs in what organ

lymph nodes or spleen

Random somatic mutation occurs in which portion of the lymph node

germinal center

55-75% of early immature B cells may have what type of receptors

self-reactive

55-75% of what type of cells may have self-reactive receptors

immature B cells

Mature B cells become what

plasma cells

Exhaustive antigen challenge leads to

clonal exhaustion

what causes clonal exhaustion

exhaustive antigen challenge

Absence of costimulation Excessive suppressor cell activity Excessive T-independent antigen all cause what

funtional deleteion

Excessive T-independent antigen can also cause

receptor blockade

receptor blockade is caused by

excessive T-independent antigen

Functional deletion is caused by

Absence of costimulation Excessive suppresor cell activity Excessive T-independent antigen

Clonal exhaustion Functional deletion Receptor blockade are all mechanisms of

peripheral B cell tolerance

Presence of maternal antibody in a newborn animal (delays/speeds up) the onset of immunoglobulin synthesis

Delays

Presence of maternal antibody in a newborn delays onset of immunoglobulin synthesis through (positive/negative) feedback process

negative

Presence of ___ in newborns delays the onset of immunoglobulin synthesis

maternal antibody

presence of maternal antibody in a newborn animal delays the onset of ___

immunoglobulin synthesis

CD32 has a (high/low) affinity for IgG

low

FcyRIIB is the receptor for which CD

___ has a low affinity for IgG

CD32

CD32 has a low affinity for

IgG

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and (down/up) regulates antibody production

down

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and down regulates what

antibody production

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and down regulates antibody production in the presence of

IgG antigen complexes

Down regulation of antibody production in the presence of IgG antigen complex is due to which CD

CD32

Which CD has a low affinity for IgG

CD32

Down regulation of antibody production due to IgG antigen complex lowers the production of IgG by what cells

B cells

Feedback loop lowers the production of IgG by B cells when there is

surplus

Feedback loop lowers the production of ___ by B cells when there is a surplus

IgG

Cell death signals by what cells

T cells

Encounter of the anergic B cell with a CD4 T cell leads to signaling through

Fas

Signaling through Fas occurs when an anergic B cell encounters what other cell

CD4 T cell

Signaling through Fas occurs when what cell encounters a CD4 T cell

anergic B cell

Signaling through Fas causes

induced apoptosis | Eliminates autoreactive B cells

What type of antibodies are antibodies to variable regions of a prior antibody molecule

idiotypic

Idiotypic antibodies are antibodies to __ regions of a prior antibody molecule

variable

Clonal exhaustion is caused by repeated ____

antigenic challenge

What is caused by repeated antigenic challenge

clonal exhaustion

Clonal exhaustion results in what cells

plasma cells

Does clonal exhaustion result in memory B cells

Clonal exhaustion results in plasma cells but no

memory B cells

What results in plasma cells but no memory B cells

clonal exhaustion

Clonal exhaustion results in ___ but no memory B cells

plasma cells

Immune complexes bind what receptors during peripheral tolerance

B-cell inhibitory receptors

Immune complexes bind B cell inhibitory receptors during what type of tolerance

Peripheral

CD32 (FcyRII) induces

anergy

Anergy is induced by what during peripheral tolerance

CD32

Myeloma patients Maternal antibodies in neonates are examples of what type of immune complexes

Those which bind B-cell inhibitory receptors

What are examples of immune complexes that bind B-cell inhibitory receptors

Myeloma patients | Maternal antibody in neonates

What is an antibody to Rh factor

Rhogam

Rhogam prevents the Rh- mother from responding to

Rh+ cells

Rhogam is an antibody to what

Rh factor

Rhogam prevents ___ mother from responding to Rh+ cells

Rh-

Rhogam prevents Rh- mother from responding to

Rh+ cells

T cells induce B cell apoptosis via what expression

Fas

___ induce B cell apoptosis via Fas expression

T cells

T cells induce ___ via Fas expression

B cell apoptosis

Idiotypic networks dampen what responses

antibody

__ dampens antibody responses

Idiotypic networks

Idiotypes are antibodies against

antibodies

___ are antibodies against antibodies

Idiotypes

What is the prevention or treatment of diseases/abnormalities with substances that stimulate or inhibit immune responses

Immunotherapy

Immunotherapy is the prevention or treatment of disease/abnormaltities with substances that stimulate or inhibit

immune responses

True/False | Drugs can modulate immune system

True

Corticosteroids are the most widely used drugs which do what to immune responses

suppress

What are the most widely used drugs that suppress immune responses

Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids prevent what activation

NF-kB

What prevents NF kB activation

Corticosteroids

True/False | Corticosteroids block many immune functions

True

What drugs are used to prevent allograft rejection/treat autoimmune disease

Immunosuppressive drugs

Immunosuppressive drugs are used to prevent allograft rejection and treat

autoimmune disease

Immunosuppressive drugs are used to prevent ___ and treat autoimmune disease

allograft rejection

What drugs are nonspecific inhibitors of cell division

immunosuppressive

Immunosuppressive drugs are nonspecific inhibitors of

cell division

Immunosuppressive drugs are (specific/nonspecific) inhibitors of cell division

nonspecific

Immunosuppressive drugs are nonspecific (inhibitors/activators) of cell division

inhibitors

Immunosuppressive drugs specifically block T cell activation by interfering with

signal transduction

Immunosuppressive drugs specifically block ___ activation by interfering with signal transduction

T cell activation

What drugs speficially block T cell activation by interfering with signal transduction

Immunosuppressive

What drugs are nonspecific inhibiors of cell division

Immunosuppressive drugs

PAMPs activate

PRR

Immune system stimulants include

PAMPs

Immune system stimulants include PAMPS that activate PRRs in what type of fashion

nonspecific

Immune system stimulants include PAMPs that (activate/deactiate) PRRs

activate

Cytokine therapy may be used but are hindered due to what 2 things

Toxicity and cost

Toxicity and cost are 2 main concerns with what type of therapy

cytokine

Stimulants or Inhibitors of Immunotherapy act on what tyep of immune system

Innate, adaptive or both

Can stimulants or inhibitors of immunotherapy act on innate and adaptive immune systems

Yes

What does BRM stand for

Biological Response Modifiers

Immunotherapy employs what substances

BRM

What are the 3 biologics of BRMs used in Immunotherapy

Monoclonal antibodies Cytokines PAMPs

ENBREL (anti TNF-a) is what aspect of biologics in BRMS

Monoclonal antibodies

ENBREL is anti what

TNFa

Name a monoclonal antibody used in BRM

ENBREL

IL-2/GM-CSF is what aspect of biologics in BRM

Cytokines

Name a cytokine used in BRM

IL-2/GM-CSF

CpGs is what aspect of biologics in BRM

PAMPs

Name a PAMP used in BRM

CpG

Corticosteroids and non-corticosteroid inhibitors are small chemical drugs known as

BRMS

Name 2 small chemical drugs of BRMS

corticosteroids | non-corticosteroid

Hypersensitivity reactions Cancer Infectious agents are all target diseases/abnormalities of

Immunotherapy

Immunotherapy has what 3 common target diseases/abnormalitites

Hypersensitiity reactions Cancer Infectious agents

Etanercept has the trade name

Enbrel

Enbral is the trade name for

Etanercept

What is a biopharmaceutical that treats autoimmune diseases by acting as a TNF-a inhibitor

etanercept

Etanercept is a biopharmaceutical that treats what diseases

autoimmune

Etanercept is a biopharmaceutical that treats autoimmune diseases by acting as a

TNF-a inhibitor

What is approved to treat rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, plaque psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis

Etanercept

IL-2 is used in the treatment of

maligant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

What cytokine is used in the treatment of malignant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

IL-2

What is approved for use in Hairy-cell leukemia, Kaposi's sarcoma, Follicular lymphoma, Chronic myeloid leukemia and melanoma

IFN-a

EqStim is known as what type of biologic

PAMP

Example of a PAMP

EqStim

What drug is Propionobacterium acnes (CpG DNA motifs) which stimulate TLR 9 receptors in cytosol

Eqstim

Eqstim stimulates which receptors

TLR 9

EqStim stimulates TLR 9 receptors in

cytosol

What activates sentinel cell killing mechanisms

EqStim

EqStim activates what type of cell killing mechanism

sentinel

you should treat horses prior to transport with what to reduce respiratory infections

EqStim

EqStim is used to treat horses prior to

transport

EqStim is used to reat horses prior to transport to reduce

respiratoryinfections

Zelnate is known as

Bayer

Bayer is another name for

Zelinate

Zelinate: Bayer is what type of biologic

PAMP

BCG stands for

Bacille Calmette-Guerin

BCG is what type of biologic

PAMP

BCG activates what cells

Macrophages

BCG requires which 3 components to activate macrophages

TNF-a, IL-12 and NO

What activates macrophages using TNF-a, IL-12 and NO

BCG

Theracys is what type of BCG

Live

Theracys are live BCG used to treat

human melanomas, bladder tumors

What BCG is used to treat human melanomas and bladder tumors

Theracys

what is a cell wall extract for equine sarcoids

Regressin

Regressin is a cell wall extract for what

equine sarcoids

What type of therapy is a preventative hypo-sensitizatio therapy

Desensitization therapy

Desensitization therapy is a preventative ____ therapy

hypo-sensitization

multiple increasing dose antigen immunization stimulates what

blocking antibody IgG

When multiple increasing dose antigen immunization stimulates blocking antibody IgG it binds allergen leading to

phagocytosis

What stimulates blocking antibody IgG

multiple increasing dose antigen immunization

Th1 cytokines are

IFN-y

Th1 cytokines inhibit ___

Th2

Th1 cytokines inhibit Th2 and prodyction of

IL-4 and IgE

Production of IL-4 and IgE are inhibited by

Th1 cytokines

Th1 cytokines can induce tolerance by stimulating

Tregs

What cytokine is involves with Tregs

IL-10

Th1 cytokines induce ____ by stimulating Tregs

tolerance

Increasing doses of allergens (increase/decrease) Type I cytokines (IFN-g and IgG)

Increase

IFN-g and IgG are involved in what type of cytokines

Type I

Increasing doses of allergens (increase/decrease) type 2 cytokines

decrease

Increasing doses of allergen (increase/decrease) regulatory T cells

Increase

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines reduces mediator release from

mast cells

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines decreases the number of

mast cells in tissues

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines decreases serum __ levels

IgE

Increasing doses of allergen ultimately leads to what 3 things

Reduces mediator release from mast cells Decreases # of mast cells in tissues Decreases serum IgE levels

What is the principle of desensitization therapy

Increasing doses of allergen

Desensitization therapy regulates the production of

antibody

During hypo-sensitization therapy what can happen

switches antibody class

True/false | During hypo-sensitization therapy switches antibody class

True

Corticosteroids are a class of

steroid hormones

What are a class of steroid hormones produced in the adrenal cortex

Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids are produced where

adrenal cortex

True/false | synthetic analogues of corticosteroids are also produced in adrenal cortex

True

What are the 2 classes of corticosteroids

Glucocorticoids | Mineralocorticoids

Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids are both classes of

corticosteroids

Prednisolone is what type of drug

immunosuppressive

Prednisolone is what class of corticosteroid

glucocorticoids

What is a drug in the glucocorticoid class

prednisolone

What drug is an anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, anti-proliferative and vasoconstrictive

Prednisolone

Prednisolone has what 4 effects

Anti-inflammatory Immunosuppressive Anti-proliferative Vasoconstrictive

What is a drug in the mineralocorticoid class

aldosterone

Aldosterone is in what class of corticosteroids

mineralocorticoids

What drug regulates electrolyte and water balance

Aldosterone

Aldosterone regulates __ and ___

electrolyte and water balance

Prednisolone and Aldosterone are in what general category of drugs

Corticosteroids

Corticosteroid are (lipid soluble/insoluble) molecules

lipid-soluble

What drugs are lipid-soluble molecules that enter cells by diffusing across the plasma membrane and bind to their receptors in the cytosol

Corticosteroid

Corticosteroids are lipid-soluble molecules that enter a cell by diffusing across the plasma membrane and bind to their receptor where

in the cytosol

binding of corticosteroid to the receptor displaces a dimer of a heat-shock protein

Hsp90

When the receptor displaces Hsp90 it exposes hat region of the receptor

DNA-binding region

Steroid-receptor complex enters the nucleus and binds to specific DNA sequences in what regions

promoter regions of steroid responsive genes

Corticosteroids exert their numerous effects by modulating

transcription

Corticosteroids exert their numerous effects by modulating transcription of a large or small variety of genes

wide

Steroid receptors are found in the | ___

cytoplasm

Steroid receptors are found in the cytoplasm complexed with

Hsp90

Steroids cross the cell membrane and bind to the steroid receptor complex releasing

Hsp90

Once the steroid receptor releases Hsp90 the steroid: receptor complex can now

cross the nuclear membrane

In the ___ the steroid receptor binds to specific gene regulatory sequences

nucleus

when the steroid receptor binds to spcific gene regulatory sequences in the nucleus it activates

transcription

Following immune stimulation cytokine synthesis occurs when what happens

transcription factor NF-kB dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

Following immune stimulation what occurs

cytokine synthesis

What occurs when the transcription factor NF-kB dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

cytokine synthesis

Cytokine synthesis occurs when what dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

transcription factor NFkB

Cytokine synthesis occurs when transcription factor NFkB dissociates from

its inhibitor IkBa

What is the inhibitor of NF-kB

IkBa

IkBa is the inhibitor of

NF-kB

NF-kB is what type of factor

trasncription facotr

What happens when IkBa is released

degraded

NF-kB continues on to do

transcription and cytokine synthesis

Corticosteroids stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of

IkBa

What stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa

corticosteroids

When corticosteroids stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa it binds to

NF-kB

when corticosteroidds stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa it binds to NF-kB and continues to do what

prevent its activation

What is the overall outcome of the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids

control immune mediated disease, autoimmune diseases and lymphoid cancers

Control immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes of the mechanism of action of what

glucocorticoids

immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes of what 2 things

reduced gene transcription and cytokine synthesis

NF-kB causes reduced gene transcription and cytokine synthesis leading to

immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes

Decrease in IL-1, TNF-a, GM-CSF, IL-3, IL-4, IL-8 all cause what physiological effect

decreases inflammation caused by cytokines

Decreases NOS leads to what physiological effect

decreased NO

decreased phospholipase A2 and cyclooxygenase type 2 but increases lipocortin-1 cause what physiological effect

decreases prostaglandins and leukotrienes

decreased adhesion molecules cause what physiological effect

reduced emigration of leukocytes from vessels

increased endonucleases causes what physiological efect

induction of apoptosis in lymphocytes and eosinophils

What cells decrease chemotaxis

neutrophils | Macrophages (APCS)

What cells decrease phagocytosis

Neutrophils | Macrophages

What cells decrease cytokine production

lymphocytes

what cells depress antigen processing

macrophages

what cells depress lymphocyte proliferation

lymphocytes

what cells depress immunoglobulin

some lymphocytes decrease | B cells are fairly resistant

Azathioprine (Imuran) is what type of drug

Cytotoxic

Inhibits nucleic acid (purine) synthesis Targets S phase of cell cycle Affects T cell proliferation is the mode of action of what drugs

cytotoxic | Azathioprine

Azathioprine inhibits what

nucleic acid synthesis

Azathioprine targets what phase of the cell cycle

Azathioprine affects what

T cell proliferation

Azathioprine is used in combination with steroids for the treatment of what diseases

immune mediated and autoimmune diseases

Cyclophosphamide is what type of drug

Cytotoxic

Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that cross links what

DNA helices

Cyclophosphamide is toxic for what cells

resting and dividing cells

What drug is an alkylating agent that cross links DNA helices

cyclophosphamide

what drug is toxic for resting and dividng cells

cyclophosphamide

what drug impairs B and T cell responses

cyclophosphamide

Cyclophosphamide impairs what responses

B and T cell

what drug is used for lymphoid neoplasia, autoimmunity, immune mediated diseases

Cyclophosphamide

What drug can suppress bone marrow

cyclophosphamide

Cyclophosphamide can suppress what

bone marrow

Tacrolimus and cyclosporine are both what type of drugs

immunosuppressive

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus both prevent activation of the signaling molecule

calcineurin

Calcineurin is what type of molecule

signaling

When cyclosporine and tacrolimus prevent activation of calcineurin the transcription factor NF-AT is

inhibited

NF-AT is what type of factor

transcription

When NF-AT is inhibited activation of genes forIL-2 production are

prevented

What drugs are used for kidney transplants and autoimmune diseases

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus

True/false | Cyclosporine and tacrolimus can be used in combination with steroids

True

mTOR

mammalian target of rapamycin

what is a serine/theronine kinase which belongs to phosphatidylinositol-3 kinase (PI3K) related to kinases (PKK) family

mTOR

mTOR regulates what 3 things

cellular metabolism growth proliferation

what is a target for the development of mTOR inhibitors

mTOR

What is the mode of action of Rapamycin

blocks activation of mTOR

what blocks the activation of mTOR

rapamycin

Rapamycin is what type of drug

immunosuppressive

when mTOR is blocked numerous cell functions are blocked including what 2 things

gene activation pathways and cell cycle progression

NSAID stands for

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

what drugs provide analgesic (pain killing) and antipyretic (fever reducing) effects and in higher doses anti-inflammatory effects

NSAID

Apoquel is an example of what kind of drug

NSAID

``` What drug is a Janus kinase inhibitor JAKI JAK2 JAK3 TKY2 ```

Apoquel

what drug is used to control pruritius associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis

apoquel

Apoquel inhibits the function of a variety of what type of cytokines

proinflammatory and cytokines involved in JAK1 or JAK3 activity

Apoquel targets specific ___ that cause itch and inflammation in allergic skin disease releving symptoms

cytokines

Steroids inhibit what

phospholipases

phospholipases are inhibited by

steroids

aspirin inhibits what

cyclooxygenase

cyclooxygenase is inhibited by

aspirin

What LT's have increases vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction

C D E

LTC, LTD, LTE all have increased what

vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction

what leukotriene involves chemotaxis of blood leukocytes (neitrophils and eosinophils)

LTB4

When aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, what is not made

prostaglandins

If prostaglandins are inhibited it makes more

leukotrienes

Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes are both what

vasoactive lipids

What are 2 vasoactive lipids

Leukotrienes | Prostaglandins

Exam 3 Part 2 Flashcards

(1159 cards)