Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NUR 164 > Exam 3 Ch: 6, 7, 24 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Ch: 6, 7, 24 Flashcards

1
Q

Define: Advocacy

A

Protection and support of another’s rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Autonomy

A

Self- Determination; being independent and self governing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: Beneficence

A

Principle of doing good.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: Bioethics

A

Ethics that encompass all those perspectives that seek to understand human nature and behavior, the domain of social science, and the natural world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: Care-Based Approach

A

Approach to bioethics that directs attention to the specific situations of individual patients viewed within the context of their life narrative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define: Code of Ethics

A

Principles that reflect the primary goals, values, and obligations of the profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define: Conscientious Objection

A

Refusal to participate in certain types of treatment and care based on the fact that these activities violate the nurse’s personal and professional ethical beliefs and standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define: Deontologic

A

Ethical systems in which actions are right or wrong independent of the consequences they produce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define: Moral Agency

A

Ability to behave in an ethical way; to do the ethically right thing because it is the right thing to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define: Ethical Dilemma

A

Situation that arises when attempted adherence to basic ethical principles results in to conflicting courses of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define: Ethics

A

System dealing with standards of character and behavior related to what is right or wrong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define: Feminist Ethics

A

Type of ethical approach that aims to critique existing patterns of oppression and domination in society, especially as these affect women and the poor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define: Fidelity

A

Keeping promises and commitments made to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define: Justice

A

Process that distributes benefits, risks, and costs fairly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define: Moral Resilience

A

Developed capacity to respond well to morally distressing experiences and to emerge strong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define: Morals

A

Like ethics, concerned with what constitutes right action; more informal and personal than the term ethics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define: Nonmaleficence

A

Principle of avoiding evil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define: Nursing Ethics

A

a subset of bioethics; formal study of ethical issues that arise in the practice of nursing and of the analysis used by nurses to make ethical judgement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define: Principle-Based Approach

A

An approach to bioethics that offers specific action guides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define: Utiliarian

A

Action-guiding theory of ethics that states that the rightness of wrongness of an action depends on the consequences of the action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define: Values

A

Set of beliefs that are meaningful in life and that influence relationships with others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define: Value Systems

A

Organization of values ranked along a continuum of importance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define: Values Clarification

A

Process by which people come to understand their own values and value system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define: Virtues

A

Human excellences; cultivated dispositions of character and conduct that motivate and enable us to be good human beings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define: Accreditation

A

Process by which an educational program is evaluated and then recognized as having met certain predetermined standards of education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define: Assult

A

Threat or an attempt to make bodily contact with another person without that person’s permission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define: Battery

A

Assault that is carried out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define: Certification

A

Process by which a person who has met certain criteria established by a nongovernmental association is granted recognition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define: Common Law

A

Law resulting from court decisions that is then followed when other cases involving similar circumstances and facts arise; common law is as binding as civil law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define: Credentialing

A

General term that refers to wats in which professional competence is maintained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define: Crime

A

Offense against people or property; the act is considered to be against the government, referred to in a lawsuit as “the people, “ and the accused is prosecuted by the state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define: Defamation of character

A

An intentional tort in which one party makes derogatory remarks about another that diminishes the other party’s reputation; slander is oral defamation of character; libel is written defamation of character.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define: Defendant

A

The one being accused of a crime or tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define: Expert Witness

A

Nurse who explains to the judge and jury what happened based on the patient’s records and who offers an opinion as to whether the nursing care met acceptable standards of practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define: Fact Witness

A

Nurse who has knowledge of the actual incident prompting a legal case; bases testimony on firsthand knowledge of the incident, not on assumptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define: Felony

A

(1) crime punishable by imprisonment in a state or federal penitentiary for more than 1 year; (2) crime of greater offense than a misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define: Fraud

A

Willful and purposeful misrepresentation that could cause, or has caused, loss or harm to people or property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define: Incident Report

A

A report of any event that is not consistent with the routine operation of the health care facility that results in or has the potential to result in harm to a patient, employee, or visitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define: Law

A

Rule of conduct established and enforced by the government of a society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define: Liability

A

Legal responsibility for one’s acts ( and failure to act); includes responsibility for financial restitution of harms resulting from negligent acts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define: Licensure

A

to be given a license to practice nursing in a state or province after successfully meeting requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define: Litigation

A

Process of lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define: Malpractice

A

Act of negligence as applied to a professional person such as a physician, nurse, or dentist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define: Misdemeanor

A

Crime of lesser offense than a felony and punishable by fines, imprisonment (usually for less than 1 year) , or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define: Negligence

A

Performing an act that a reasonably prudent person under similar circumstances would not do, or failing to perform an act that a reasonably prudent person under similar circumstances would do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define: Plaintiff

A

Person or government bringing a lawsuit against another

47
Q

Define: Root Cause Analysis

A

Deep investigation into a sentinel event to determine why the event occurred, and exploring the circumstances that led to it to determine where improvements can be made

48
Q

Define: Sentinel Event

A

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof.

49
Q

Define: Statutory Law

A

Law enacted by a legislative body

50
Q

Define: Tort

A

Wrong committed by a person against another person or that person’s property

51
Q

Define: Whistle-Blowing

A

Term generally used to refer to employees who report their employers’ violation of the law to appropriate law enforcement agencies outside the employers’ facilities.

52
Q

Define: Aerobic

A

Requiring oxygen to live and grow

53
Q

Define: Airborne Transmission

A

Spreading of microorganisms that are less than 5 mcm when an infected host coughs, sneezes, or talks, or when the organism becomes attached to dust particles.

54
Q

Define: Anaerobic

A

Capable of living without oxygen

55
Q

Define: Antibody

A

Immunoglobin produced by the body in response to a specific antigen

56
Q

Define: Antigen

A

Foreign material capable of inducing a specific immune response

57
Q

Define: Antimicrobial

A

Antibacterial agent that kills bacteria or suppress their growth.

58
Q

Define: Asepsis

A

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms; using methods to prevent infection

59
Q

Define: Bacteria

A

The most significant and most commonly observed infection-causing agents

60
Q

Define: Bundles

A

Evidence-based best practices that have proven positive outcomes when implemented together to prevent infection

61
Q

Define: Direct Contact

A

Way for organisms to enter the body that involves proximity between the susceptible host and an infected person or a carrier, such as through touching, kissing, or sexual intercourse.

62
Q

Define: Disinfection

A

Process used to destroy microorganisms; destroys all pathogenic organisms except spores

63
Q

Define: Droplet Transmission

A

Transmission of particles greater than 5 mcm

64
Q

Define: Endemic

A

Something that occurs with predictability in one specific region or population and can appear in a different geographical location.

65
Q

Define: Endogenous

A

Infection in which the causative organism comes from microbial life harbored within the person

66
Q

Define: Exogenous

A

Infection in which the causative organism is acquired from outside the host

67
Q

Define: Fungi

A

Plant-like organism (molds and yeasts) that can cause infection

68
Q

Define: Health care-associated infection (HAI)

A

An infection that was not present on admission to a health care institution and develops during the course of treatment for other conditions.

69
Q

Define: Host

A

Animal or person on or within which microorganisms live

70
Q

Define: Iatrogenic

A

Infection that occurs as a result of a treatment or diagnostic procedure

71
Q

Define: Indirect Contact

A

Personal contact with either a vector, a living creature that transmits an infectious agent to a human, usually an insect; or an inanimate object, called a fomite, such as equipment or countertops.

72
Q

Define: Infection

A

Disease state resulting from pathogens in or on the body

73
Q

Define: Isolation

A

Protective procedure designed to prevent the transmission of specific microorganisms; also called protective aseptic techniques and barrier techniques.

74
Q

Define: Medical Asepsis

A

Practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens; synonym for clean technique.

75
Q

Define: Nosocomial

A

Something originating or taking place in the hospital (i.e., infection)

76
Q

Define: Parasites

A

Organism that lives on or in a host and relies on it for nourishment

77
Q

Define: Pathogen

A

Disease-producing microorganism

78
Q

Define: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

A

Gloves, gowns, masks, and protective eye gear designed to minimize or prevent the health care worker’s exposure to infectious material

79
Q

Define: Reservoir

A

Natural habitat for the growth and multiplication or microorganisms

80
Q

Define: Standard Precautions

A

CDC precautions used in the care of all patients regardless of their diagnosis or possible infection status; this category combines universal and body substance precautions.

81
Q

Define: Sterilization

A

(1) the process by which all microorganisms, including spores, are destroyed; (2) surgical procedure performed to render a person infertile.

82
Q

Define: Surgical Asepsis

A

Practices that render and keep objects and areas free from microorganisms; synonym for sterile technique.

83
Q

Define: Transmission-based precautions

A

CDC precautions used in patients known or suspected to be infected with pathogens that can be transmitted by airborne, droplet, or contact routes; used in addition to standard precautions.

84
Q

Define: Vector

A

nonhuman-carriers- such as mosquitos, ticks, and lice- that transmit organisms from one host to another

85
Q

Define: Virulence

A

Ability to produce disease

86
Q

Define: Virus

A

Smallest of all microorganisms; can be seen only by using an electron microscope.

87
Q

4 Categories of HAIs

A
  • Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)
  • Surgical site Infection (SSI)
  • Central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)
  • Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)
88
Q

3 sources of HAI

A
  • exogenous
  • endogenous
  • iatrogenic
89
Q

Exogenous

A

when the causative organism is acquired from OTHER PEOPLE

90
Q

Endogenous

A

When infection occurs when the causative organism comes from microbial life harbored INSIDE THE PERSON

91
Q

Types of bacteria that cause the most HAIs

A
  • C. Difficile
  • E. Coli
  • S. Aureus
  • Streptococcus Faecalis
  • Pseudomonas
92
Q

Devices that are common caused of HAI

A
  • Urinary Catheter

- Venous access catheter

93
Q

Infection Cycle: 6 Components

A
  1. INFECTIOS AGENT- Bacteria, viruses, fungi
  2. RESERVOIR- natural habitat of the organism
  3. PORTAL OF EXIT- point of exit for the organism (respiratory tract, oral tract, etc.)
  4. MEANS OF TRANSMISSION- direct contact, indirect contact, airborne route
  5. PORTALS OF ENTRY- point at which organisms enter a new host (inhalation, etc.)
  6. SUSCEPTIBLE HOST- must overcome resistance mounted by host’s defenses
94
Q

4 phases of infection development

A
  1. INCUBATION PERIOD: bacteria infects host. no symptoms. 1-2 days
  2. PRODROMAL STAGE: most infectious stage. symptoms are vague like fatigue and low grade fever. hours to days
  3. FULL (ACUTE) stage of illness: All symptoms. you are sick
  4. CONVALESCENT PERIOD: Recovery from infection
95
Q

The practice of ASEPSIS includes activities to….

A

Prevent infection or break the chain of infection.

- A nurse uses aseptic techniques to halt the spread of microorganisms and minimize the threat of infection.

96
Q

2 Categories of Asepsis

A
  1. Medical Asepsis, or clean technique. ex. Hand Hygiene or wearing gloves.
  2. Surgical Asepsis, or sterile technique. ex. inserting IV or urinary catheter
97
Q

5 Moments for hand washing

A

Moment 1 – Before touching a patient
Moment 2 – Before a clean or aseptic procedure
Moment 3 – After a body fluid exposure risk
Moment 4 – After touching a patient
Moment 5 – After touching patient surroundings

98
Q

Hand Hygiene

A
  • the most effective way to help prevent the spread of infectious agents.
  • The term hand hygiene applies to either handwashing with plain soap and water, use of antiseptic handrubs including waterless alcohol-based products, or surgical hand antisepsis.
99
Q

HAND HYGIENE: USING AN ALCOHOL-BASED HANDRUB

A
  1. Apply product to the palm of one hand, using the amount of product recommended on the package (it will vary according to the manufacturer but usually is 1 to 3 mL).
  2. Rub hands together, making sure to cover all surfaces of the hands, fingers, and in between the fingers. Also, clean the fingertips and the area beneath the fingernails.
  3. Continue rubbing until the hands are dry (at least 15 seconds).
100
Q

2 types of Bacterial Flora:

A

Transient: Attached loosely on skin, removed with ease

Resident: Found in creases in skin, required friction with brush to remove.

101
Q

4 Routes of Transmission

A
  1. Direct Contact: Kissing, touching, sex
  2. Indirect contact: Contact with a (1) a vector: living creature that transmits it to a human or (2) an inanimate object, called a fomite like countertops.
  3. Airborne Transmission: Coughing and sneezing
  4. Droplet Transmission: transmission of particles greater than 5mcm
102
Q

Antibiotics

A

used to treat most bacterial infections. They either kill bacteria or stop them multiplying. This helps the body’s immune system to fight the bacteria.

103
Q

Antivirals

A

Viral infections do not respond to antibiotics and cannot be treated with them. Treatments can only help with symptoms while you wait for your immune system to fight off the virus. There are antiviral medicines to treat some viral infections. Vaccines can help prevent you from getting many viral diseases

104
Q

3 Types of LAW

A
  1. Public Law: government is directly involved. Regulates individual and the government.
  2. Private Law: Civil Law. Regulates relationships among people
  3. Criminal Law: Concerns state and federal criminal statues. Defines criminal actions ex. murder or theft.
105
Q

3 processes are used for credentialing in nursing:

A
  1. Accreditation: the process by which an educational program is evaluated and recognized as having met certain standards.
  2. Licensure: the process by which a state determines that a candidate meets certain minimum requirements to practice in the profession and grants a license to do so.
  3. Certification: the process by which a person who has met certain criteria established by a nongovernmental association is granted recognition in a specified practice area.
106
Q

Ethical Issues

A
  • Ethical issues encountered by nurses in daily practice include cost-containment issues that jeopardize patient welfare, beginning and end-of-life decisions, breaches of patient confidentiality, and incompetent, unethical, or illegal practices of colleagues.
107
Q

Define: Privacy

A

Personal; Our RIGHT to control the intrusion of others into our lives; To disclose or not to disclose
- privacy is about people, confidentiality is about our duty to protect information

108
Q

Define: Confidentiality

A

Has both MORAL and LEGAL obligations
Uphold EXCEPT when harm could come to patient or others
May have to disclose due to LEGAL or LEGISLATIVE reasons (i.e. child abuse, infectious diseases, court order)

109
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)

A

-a federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without the patient’s consent or knowledge.

110
Q

Some rights under HIPAA

A
  1. clients have a right to see and copy their health record;
  2. to update their health record;
  3. to get a list of the disclosures a health care institution has made independent of disclosures made for the purposes of treatment, payment, and health care operations;
  4. to request a restriction on certain uses or disclosures;
  5. to choose how to receive health information. The client may not make additions, cross out sections, or destroy the health record
111
Q

Define: Defamation of character and the types

A
  • Defamation of character: an intentional tort in which on party makes derogatory remarks about another that diminish the other party’s reputation,
    2 types:
    1. Slander: spoken defamation of character
    2. Libel: written defamation of character
112
Q

Ethical Responsibilities of the nurse

A
  1. Autonomy (self-determination): Respect the rights of patients or their surrogates to make health care decisions.
  2. Nonmalficence: Avoid causing harm
  3. Beneficence: Benefit the patient, and balance benefits against risks and harms
  4. Justice: give each his or her due; act fairly
  5. Fidelity: keep promises
113
Q

Nurse Practice Act

A
  • They are the primary source of rules of conduct for nurses.
  • A copy of the Nurse Practice Act for the state in which a nurse practices can be obtained from that state’s board of nursing.
  • list the violations that can result in disciplinary actions against a nurse and also intend to prevent untrained or unlicensed people from practicing nursing.
  • Nurse Practice Acts are examples of statutory law, enacted by a legislative body in keeping with both the federal constitution and the applicable state constitution

NUR 164 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions