Exam 3 - Chapter 12: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors Flashcards
1
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Developmental disorders often stem from ______ and are often apparent during the ______ of bone formation.
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3
What are two types of bone abnormalities?
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3
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Dystosis is a group of disorders that cause ______, often in _______. (_______)
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Bone dysplasia refers to a group of conditions that cause ________.
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5
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Acquired disorders of bone and cartilage appear in _____.
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6
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4
What are 5 developmental disorders of bone and cartilage?
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7
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5
What is the inheritance pattern of Cleidocoranial dysplasia?
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8
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5
What is the inheritance pattern of Achondroplasia?
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9
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5
What is the inheritance pattern of osteogenesis imperfecta?
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10
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5
What is the inheritance pattern of Osteopetrosis?
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11
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5
What is the inheritance pattern of Mucopolysaccharidosis?
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12
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5
What is the gene involved in Cleidocranial dysplasia?
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13
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What is the gene involved in Achondroplasia?
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14
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What is the gene involved in osteogenesis imperfecta?
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15
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What is the gene involved in Osteopetrosis?
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16
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What is the gene involved in Mucopolysacharidosis?
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17
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The etiology of Cleidocranial dysplasia is defects in _____ and _____.
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18
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The etiology of Achondroplasia is defects in _______ and _____.
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The etiology of Osteogenesis imperfecta is defects in ______.
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20
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The etiology of Osteopetrosis is defects in ______.
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21
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The etiology of Mucopolysacharridosis is defects in _________ involved in ________.
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22
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5
What are three clinical features of Cleidocranial dysplasia?
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23
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5
What is the main clinical feature of Achondroplasia?
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24
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5
What are three main clinical features of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
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What are 3 main clinical features of Osteopetrosis?
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What are two main clinical features of Mucopolysaccharidosis?
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Cleidocranial dysplasia involves delayed closure of _______.
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What are wormian bones seen in Cleidocranial dysplasia?
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Type I collagen involved in Osteogenesis Imperfecta is found in ____, ______, ____, ______, ____, ____, and ______. It is the most common _______.
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What is the key feature of Osteopetrosis?
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Two buzzwords associated with Osteopetrosis are ______ Deformity and _____ Vertebra.
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What are five metabolic diseases of bone?
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What are the two types of etilogy of Osteopenia and Osteoporosis?
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What are two main clinical features of osteopenia and osteoporosis?
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What are two treatments for osteopenia and osteoporosis?
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What is the etiology for Rickets / Osteomalacia?
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What are 3 main clinical features of Rickets / Osteomalacia?
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What are two main clinical features of osteomalacia?
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What are three treatments for Rickets and Osteomalacia?
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What is the etiology of Hyperparathyroidism?
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What are three main clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism?
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What are two treatments for Hyperparathyroidism?
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16
Osteopenia means decreased bone mass that is ___ to ____ standard deviation below peak bone mass.
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Osteoporosis is defined as osteopenia that is severe enough to significantly increase the risk of fracture. Bone mass is at least ____ standard deviation below peak bone mass and it may be localized or generalized.
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Rachitic rosary refers to expansion of the anterior rib ends at the ______ and is most frequently seen in ____ as nodularities at the costochondral junctions.
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23
What is the etiology for Paget disease (aka Osteitis deformans)
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Epidemiology of Paget's:
Paget's occurs in people ____ years of age and is more common in _____.
48
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In the US, are more males or females affected with Paget's?
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The pathophysiology of Paget's has three stages.
1. Begins with _____ activity.
2. ________ and _______ activity
3. _______ activity observed.
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Is Paget's usually symptomatic or asymptomatic?
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What are the 5 main clinical features of Paget's when it is symptomatic?
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How will Paget's appear on a bone X-ray?
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Paget's evaluation may show elevated ______ levels.
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What are two treatments for Paget's?
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26
Bone fracture is the _______. It is one of the most common pathology affecting bone.
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What is simple fracture?
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What is compound fracture?
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What is comminuted fracture? What causes it?
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What is displaced fracture?
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What is stress fracture?
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What is Greenstick fracture?
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Almost all greenstick fractures affect _______.
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29
What is another name for necrosis?
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Osteonecrosis can be limited to the ______ or involve both the ____ and ____.
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The two most common causes of osteonecrosis are ____ and _______.
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What are the two main predisposing conditions to osteonecrosis?
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33
Osteomyleitis is the inflammation of ____ and _____. It typically results from ____.
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What is the time frame for acute osteomyelitis?
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What is the time frame for chronic osteomyeletis?
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What type of osteomyelitis does and does not have a preceding acute phase?
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What are two examples of osteomyelitis predisposing conditions?
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What are two things that can cause local damage to or disease to the jaws?
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Acute osteomyelitis affects what age?
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Is acute osteomyelitis greater in the maxilla or the mandible?
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Acute osteomyelitis usually lasts _______ to _______.
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What are the radiographic changes in acute osteomyelitis in early stages? What about after 1-2 weeks?
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Clinical features of acute osteomyelitis include _______ may be present; _______ if due to staphylococcus infection; most frequently caused by ______ of periapical infection.
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What age is affected by chronic osteomyelitis?
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Is the maxilla or mandible more affected by chronic osteomyelitis?
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Chronic osteomyelitis lasts ______ to _____.
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What are the radiographic features of chronic osteomyelitis?
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Clincial features of chronic osteomyelitis:
-usually _____ but may be _____
- most cases are related to _____ of bone of dental origin; many cases are not _____
-non-vital tooth should be ____ or _____; this is _____
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39
Suppurative osteomyelitis (acute or chronic) involves ______ and _____infections.
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What ages are affected by supparative osteomyelitis?
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Is supparative osteomyelitis more common in the mandible or maxilla?
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Clinical features of supparative osteomyelitis are ______ and ____, _____ tender, and ____ inflamed.
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After 1-2 weeks of supparative osteomyelitis, radiographic features include ________; ______ may be seen.
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Other features of supparative osteomyelitis include ______ infection and _______ of jaws.
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Two treatments for supparative osteomyelitis are _____ and ____.
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Diffuse sclerosis osteomyleitis is more common in ____.
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Diffuse scelrosis osteomyelitis involves _____ and _____ may occur.
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What are the radiographic features of early lesions of diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis?
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What are the radiographic feaatures of late lesions of diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis?
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Diffuse sclerosis osteomyelitis does not respond consistently to _____.
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Focal sclerosing OM involves bone reaction to _______.
96
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Focal sclerosis OM is greater in the ___ and ___ areas of the mouth.
97
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Focal sclerosing OM is associated with ____ or _____.
98
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Radiographic features of focal sclerosing OM involve ________ related to ____ of tooth; _____ of PDL
99
39
With focal sclerosing OM, _____ should not be present. To treat, you need to ______.
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Proliferative periostitis (Garre OM) is more commonly seen in _____ and ______
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Proliferative periostitis (Garre OM) is more commonly seen in the ________ and is associated with ___ lesions and ______ of inflammation.
102
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What is the key radiographic feature of Proliferative Periostitis? Similar changes are seen in what other disease?
103
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What is the treatment of Proliferative Periostitis?
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For proliferative periostitis, how long does bone take to remodel?
105
47
What is the common location of osteochondroma?
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What is the age range for Osteochondroma?
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What is the morphology for Osteochondroma?
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What is the common location for Chondroma?
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What is the age range for Chondroma?
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What is the morphology for Chondroma?
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What is the common location of Chondroblastoma?
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What is the age range for Chondroblastoma?
113
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What is the morphology for Chondroblastoma?
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What are two common locations for Chondrosarcoma?
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What is the age range for Chondrosarcoma?
116
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Morphology of Chondrosarcoma:
It extends from the ____ through the ____ into the soft tissue, and there are ____ with increased cellularity and atypia.
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47
What are the three benign cartilage forming primary bone tumors?
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What is the malignant cartilage forming primary bone tumor?
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What are the two benign bone forming primary bone tumors?
120
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What is the common location of Osteoid Osteoma?
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What is the age range for Osteoid OSteoma?
122
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People with Osteoid OSteoma present with _____ pain caused by _____ which is relieved by _____ and other _____.
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What is the common location for Osteoblastoma?
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What is the age range for Osteoblastoma?
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Osteoblastomas cause pain that is _______.
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What is an example of a malignant bone forming primary tumor?
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What are. two common locations for osteosarcoma?
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What is the age range for Osteosarcoma?
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Osteosarcoma extends from ____ to lift ____; malignant cells produce ____ bone.
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What is an example of a benign bone tumor of unkown origin?
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What is the common location of giant cell tumor?
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What is the age range for giant cell tumor?
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Giant cell tumor destroys the _____ and _____; sheets of _____.
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What is an example of a malignant bone tumor of unknown origin?
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What is a common location of Ewing sarcoma?
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The affected site in Ewing sarcoma is frequently ___, ____, and _____; there may be systemic findings taht mimic infection including ____, elevated _____, ______, and _____. A very key feature is sheets of __________. Radiographic images may show _______ of the periosteum.
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What are the two clinically important forms of arthritis?
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64
What is the primary pathogenic abnormality of osteoarthritis?
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64
The role of inflammation in osteoarthritis may be ______. Inflammatory mediators exacerbate ______.
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The joints involved in Osteoarthritis are primarily _____, including the ____ and _____.
141
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Pathology of osteoarthritis includes ______ and fragmentation, bone spurs, subchondral cysts, and minimum inflammation.
142
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Are there any serum antibodies associated with Osteoarthritis?
143
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Are there are other organs involved in Osteoarthritis?
144
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What is the primary pathogenic abnormality in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
145
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The role of inflammation in Rheumatoid Arthritis is _____; cartilage destruction is caused by _____ and ____ reactive with joint antigens.
146
64
In rheumatoid arthritis, it often begins with ___joints of _____; progression leads to _______.
147
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Pathology of Rheumatoid Arthritis involves the _______ invading and destroying cartilage; there is also severe chronic inflammation and joint fusion known as ______.
148
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What is the main serum antibody associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis?
149
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What are the two other organs involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
150
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How long does morning stiffness last in Osteoarthritis?
151
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What are the associated nodes called in Osteoarthritis?
152
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Is Osteoarthritis asymmetrical or symmetrical?
153
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How long does morning stiffness last in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
154
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Is Rheumatoid arthritis symmetrical or asymmetrical?
155
66
___ are a common feature of osteoarthritis.
156
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Rheumatoid arthritis involves bone ____ and swollen inflamed ________ membrane.
157
68
What are four types of infectious arthritis?
158
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Supparative arthritis is caused by in children younger than 2, while ____ is the main causative agent in older children and adults.
159
69
In crystal induced arthritis, endogenous crystals include ______ (___), ________ (_____), and basic _______.
160
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Exogenous crystals such as ____ used in _____ can induce arthritis as they accumulate with wear.
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72
Soft tissue tumors refer to _____ tissue, excluding the skeleton, joints, CNS, and hematopietic an dlymphoid tissues.
162
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Except for skeletal muscle neoplasms, benign sofft tissue tumors are ___-fold more frequent than their malignant counterparts, the sarcomas.
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What is the name for an adipose benign tumor?
164
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What is the name for an adipose malignant tumor?
165
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What is the name for a fibrous benign tumor?
166
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What is the name for a benign skeletal muscle tumor?
167
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What are two examples of malignant skeletal muscle tumors?
168
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What is the name for a benign smooth muscle tumor?
169
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What is the name for a malignant smooth muscle tumor?
170
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What is the name for a benign vascular tumor?
171
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What is the name for a malignant vascular tumor?
172
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What are two examples of benign nerve sheath tumors?
173
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What is the name for a malignant nerve sheath tumor?
