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MGT 301: Principles of Management > Exam 3 COPY > Flashcards

Exam 3 COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is departmentalization?

A

A method of subdividing workers and work into separate organizational units that take responsibility for completing particular tasks. ex: Advertising, Printing, Scheduling.

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2
Q

What are the 5 types of departmentalization?

A
  1. Functional.
  2. Matrix.
  3. Product.
  4. Customer.
  5. Geographic.
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3
Q

What are the advantages of geographic departmentalization?

A
  1. Reduces costs by locating unique resources closer to customers.
  2. Helps companies respond to different markets.
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4
Q

What are the disadvantages of geographic departmentalization?

A
  1. Difficult to coordinate departments.
  2. Duplication of resources.
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5
Q

What is an example of geographic departmentalization?

A

Having a lumber department in Washington State, processing in Chicago, selling in New York.

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6
Q

What are the advantages of functional departmentalization?

A
  1. Lowers costs by reducing duplication.
  2. Allows people to specialize in one area of expertise.
  3. Performance appraisal and management development.
  4. With everyone having similar work experience or training, coordination (and control)is less problematic for department managers.
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7
Q

What are the disadvantages of functional departmentalization?

A
  1. “Thought worlds”-coordination across departments and potential miscommunication.
  2. Potential issues of claiming credit (for accomplishments or failures).
  3. Desire to do what’s necessary for their function than focus on the entire organization.
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8
Q

What is an example of functional departmentalization?

A

A water bottle company that has a finance department, bottling department, advertising department, marketing department all in one processing plant.

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9
Q

What are the advantages of product departmentalization?

A
  1. Allows people to specialize in one area of expertise.
  2. Faster decision-making because workers and managers are responsible for the entire product line rather than for separate functional departments.
  3. Easy for top managers to assess work-unit performance.
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10
Q

What are the disadvantages of product departmentalization?

A
  1. Challenge of coordinating across product departments.
  2. Departmentalization duplication (and resultant higher costs).
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11
Q

What is an example of product departmentalization?

A

A car company that has a motor department, a suspension department, a brakes department, etc.

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12
Q

What are the general characteristics of matrix departmentalization?

A
  1. Requires significant coordination between managers in different parts of the matrix.
  2. Employees report to 2 bosses.
  3. More cross-functional interactions.
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13
Q

What are the advantages of matrix departmentalization?

A
  1. Avoids duplication.
  2. Gives much more diverse sets of expertise and experience.
  3. Allows companies to efficiently manage large, complex tasks (like R&D, global business, and marketing).
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14
Q

What are the disadvantages of matrix departmentalization?

A
  1. Requires much more cross-functional interaction and management skill than other forms.
  2. Confusion and conflict between project bosses-most employees report to two bosses, one for each core part of the matrix.
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15
Q

What is an example of matrix departmentalization?

A
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16
Q

What are the advantages of customer departmentalization?

A
  1. Allows companies to specialize services and products to customer needs.
  2. Focuses organization on customer needs.
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17
Q

What are the disadvantages of customer departmentalization?

A
  1. Workers might please customers, but hurt business.
  2. Duplication of resources.
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18
Q

What is an example of customers departmentalization?

A

A company that custom etches dinnerware, drinkware, and signs. One part of the factory handles state orders, another regional orders, and another national.

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of mechanistic organization?

A
  1. Specialized jobs and responsibilities.
  2. Focus on organizational structure.
  3. Rigid departmentalization.
  4. Clear chain of command.
  5. High formalization.
  6. Centralization.
  7. Narrow spans of control.
    *Works best in stable, unchanging business environments. ex: Lumber.
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20
Q

What are the characteristics of organic organization?

A
  1. Characterized by broadly defined responsibilities and job.
  2. Focus on intraorganizational process.
  3. Low formalization.
  4. Cross-functional teams.
  5. Decentralization.
  6. Cross-hierarchical team.
  7. Wide spans of control.
  8. Free flow of information.
    *Works best in dynamic, changing business environments. ex: Tech.
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21
Q

What is reengineering?

A

A radical redesign and fundamental rethinking of business processes to achieve dramatic improvement in critical measures of performance (speed, quality, cost, service).

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22
Q

What does reengineering do to a company?

A
  1. Complicates work.
  2. Changes the orientation from vertical to horizontal.
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23
Q

What are the 3 types of intraorganizational processes?

A
  1. Pooled interdependence.
  2. Sequential interdependence.
  3. Reciprocal interdependence.
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24
Q

What are the 2 types of interorganizational processes?

A
  1. Modular.
  2. Virtual.
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25
Q

What is a modular organization?

A

An organization that outsources non-core business activities to outside companies, suppliers, consultants, or specialists.

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26
Q

What is the advantage of a modular organization?

A

Lower cost than traditional organizations because outsourcing is only paid for as needed.

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27
Q

What is the disadvantage of a modular organization?

A

Loss of control occurring when key business activities are outsourced to other companies.

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28
Q

What is a virtual organization?

A

An organization that is part of a network in which many companies share skills, capabilities, costs, customers, and markets to collectively solve customer problems or provide specific services or products.

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29
Q

What are the advantages of a virtual organization?

A
  1. Lets companies share costs.
  2. Fast and flexible.
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30
Q

What are the disadvantages of a virtual organization?

A
  1. Difficult to control quality of outsourced work.
  2. Tremendous managerial skills required to make a network of independent organizations work well together.
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31
Q

What is motivation?

A

Refers to forces within an individual that account for the level, persistence, and direction of effort expended at work.

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32
Q

What are the 4 content theories?

A
  1. ERG Theory.
  2. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
  3. Acquired needs theory.
  4. Herzberg’s two-factor theory.
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33
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from bottom to top?

A
  1. Physiological needs (Lower-order need).
  2. Safety needs (Lower-order need).
  3. Social needs (Lower-order need).
  4. Esteem needs (Higher-order need).
  5. Self-actualization needs (Higher-order need).
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34
Q

What falls under physiological needs?

A
  1. Biological needs (Bathroom, shelter, etc.).
  2. Food.
  3. Water.
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35
Q

What falls under safety needs?

A
  1. Security.
  2. Stability.
  3. Protection.
    *In interpersonal and physical events.
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36
Q

What falls under social needs?

A
  1. Love.
  2. Sense of belongingness.
  3. Affection.
    *In one’s relationships with other persons.
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37
Q

What falls under esteem needs?

A
  1. Prestige.
  2. Respect.
  3. Recognition.
  4. Self-esteem.
  5. Mastery.
  6. Personal sense of competence.
  7. Esteem of others.
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38
Q

What falls under self-actualization?

A
  1. Most creative excellence.
  2. Need to fulfill oneself.
  3. Grow and use abilities to fullest.
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39
Q

What is purpose of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

To define the order in which the needs of a human need to be met and that each need is foundational to the next one.

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40
Q

What is Alderfer’s ERG Theory of Motivation?

A

The theory that three different needs can be met simultaneously and are not dependent upon one another.

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41
Q

What are the E, R, and G in Alderfer’s ERG Theory of Motivation?

A
  1. Existence.
  2. Relatedness.
  3. Growth.
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42
Q

What is the definition of existence?

A

The desire for material and physiological well-being.

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43
Q

What is the definition of relatedness?

A

The desire for satisfying interpersonal relationships.

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44
Q

What is the definition of growth?

A

The desire for continued personal development and growth.

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45
Q

What is McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory?

A

The theory that what a person need in the work place falls into one of three categories. Using an image test (thematic apperception test), the need they prioritize can be determined. Based on the determined need, this can help guide them to a career field that suits that need.

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46
Q

What are the 3 needs in McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory?

A
  1. Need for Power (nPower).
  2. Need for Achievement (nAch).
  3. Need for Affiliation (nAff).
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47
Q

What is need for power?

A

The desire to control others, to be responsible for others, or to influence their behavior.

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48
Q

What is need for achievement?

A

The desire to do something more efficiently or better, to master complex tasks, or to solve problems.

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49
Q

What is need for affiliation?

A

The desire to maintain and establish warm and friendly relations with others.

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50
Q

What is Herzberg’s two factor theory/motivation-hygiene theory?

A

A theory that suggests that a person’s needs in the workplace can be split into factors that affect job dissatisfaction in job context (hygiene) and job satisfaction in job content (motivation).

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51
Q
A
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52
Q

What are examples of hygiene factors?

A
  1. Base wage or salary.
  2. Organizational policies.
  3. Security and status.
  4. Quality of supervision.
  5. Relationships with co-workers.
  6. Working conditions.
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53
Q

What are examples of motivation factors?

A
  1. Responsibility.
  2. Work itself.
  3. Advancement.
  4. Recognition.
  5. Growth.
  6. Achievement.
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54
Q

What are the 3 process theories?

A
  1. Equity theory.
  2. Expectancy theory.
  3. Organizational justice.
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55
Q

What is equity theory?

A

Any perceived inequity becomes a motivating state. People are motivated to behave in ways that restore or maintain a sense of balance-perceived equity-in their minds.

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56
Q

What are the two possible results of comparing personal rewards/inputs to others’ rewards/inputs?

A
  1. Perceived equity.
  2. Perceived inequity.
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57
Q

What is the reaction to perceived equity?

A

The individual is satisfied and does not change behavior.

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58
Q

What is the reaction to perceived inequity?

A

The individual feels discomfort and acts to eliminate the inequity.

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59
Q

What is valence?

A

The value a person assigned to rewards and other work-related to outcomes.
“How highly do I value work outcomes?”

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60
Q

What is expectancy?

A

The belief that working hard will result in a desired level of performance.
“Can I achieve the desired level of task performance?”

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61
Q

What is instrumentality?

A

The belief that successful performance will be followed by rewards.
“What work outcomes will be received as a result of the performance?”

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62
Q

What is motivation constructed of?

A

Valence x Expectancy x Instrumentality.

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63
Q

How is valance maximized?

A

Making the person understand the value of various possible rewards and work outcomes.

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64
Q

What methods are used to maximize valance?

A
  1. Adjust rewards to match these needs.
  2. Identify individual needs.
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65
Q

How is expectancy maximized?

A

Making the person feel competent and capable of achieving the desired performance level.

66
Q

What methods are used to maximize expectancy?

A
  1. Clarify performance goals.
  2. Train workers to use ability.
  3. Select workers with ability.
  4. Support work efforts.
67
Q

How is instrumentality maximized?

A

Making the person confident in understanding which rewards and outcomes will follow performance and accomplishments.

68
Q

What methods are used to maximize instrumentality?

A
  1. Clarify psychological contracts.
  2. Demonstrate what rewards are contingent on performance.
  3. Communicate performance-outcome possibilities.
69
Q

What is behavior a function of?

A

Its consequences.

70
Q

What is reinforcement?

A

The process of changing behavior by changing the consequences that follow behavior.

71
Q

What are the 2 types of reinforcement?

A
  1. Positive.
  2. Negative.
72
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

Providing a positive reward for the completion of a task.

73
Q

What are some examples of positive reinforcement?

A
  1. A sticker.
  2. A cookie.
  3. An hour of playtime at the park.
  4. A movie or episode of television.
74
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

Removing a negative response as a way to encourage a behavior.

75
Q

What is an example of negative reinforcement?

A

Encouraging class participation by having the last hour of the day be a free period instead of class time.

76
Q

What is punishment?

A

An action that is used to discourage an undesirable behavior.

77
Q

What is an example of a punishment?

A

An electric shock for an incorrect answer.

78
Q

What is extinction in the context of psychology?

A

The withdrawal of reinforcing consequences in order to weaken undesirable behavior.

79
Q

What is an example of extinction?

A

Removing detention as a punishment for misbehavior.

80
Q

What is motivation 1.0 ?

A

Biological.

81
Q

What is motivation 2.0?

A

Extrinsic.

82
Q

What is motivation 3.0?

A

Intrinsic.

83
Q

What is extrinsic motivation?

A

Motivation to perform an activity to avoid punishment or earn a reward.

84
Q

What is intrinsic motivation?

A

Motivation to perform an activity for personal reward or its own sake.

85
Q

What are some examples of extrinsic motivators?

A
  1. Discipline.
  2. Punishment.
  3. Prizes.
  4. Gold Star.
  5. Points.
  6. Leaderboard.
  7. Money.
  8. Levels.
  9. Title.
86
Q

What are some examples of intrinsic motivators?

A
  1. Self-knowledge.
  2. Belonging.
  3. Passion.
  4. Purpose.
  5. Autonomy.
  6. Mastery.
  7. Love.
  8. Fun.
  9. Learning
  10. Drive.
87
Q

What is the Sawyer Effect?

A

Persuading others to assist you in work or do work for you by convincing them that it is fun and game-like. Alternatively, convincing others that a game is actually work.

88
Q

What is an example of the non-alternative way of interpreting the Swayer effect?

A

Convincing someone to help you mop the floor by telling them it is like dancing, which is a fun activity.

89
Q

What is an example of the alternative way of interpreting the Swayer effect?

A

Convincing someone that playing video games is practical for your career aspirations as a surgeon because the video game improves eye-hand coordination and critical thinking.

90
Q

What is self determination theory (SDT)?

A
91
Q

What are the 4 T’s?

A
  1. Task.
  2. Time.
  3. Technique.
  4. Team.
92
Q

What is the human resource management (HRM) process?

A

The process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified workforce.

93
Q

What are the 2 implications of federal employment laws?

A
  1. Employment decisions should be based on “job related factors”, factors that are “reasonably necessary” or a “business necessity” for successful job performance.
  2. Employers may not discriminate in employment decisions based on age, sex, color, national origin, disability, or religion.
94
Q

What is bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)?

A

An exception in employment law that permits, age, sex, color, national origin, disability, and/or religion to be used when making employment decisions, but only if they are “reasonably necessary to the normal operations of that particular business.”
*Strictly monitored by the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

95
Q

What are some examples of BFOQ?

A
  1. Hiring only women at a hair salon in a majority Muslim area.
  2. Turning away deaf individuals from a job opening for a music teacher.
  3. Turing away applications for anyone who has a service dog from working in a vet clinic.
96
Q

What are the 11 topics to avoid in an interview?

A
  1. Religion.
  2. Lawsuits.
  3. Children.
  4. Health conditions.
  5. Disabilities
  6. Physical characteristics.
  7. Smoking.
  8. Arrest records.
  9. Name.
  10. Citizen ship.
  11. Age.
    *Depends on the situation.
97
Q

What is disparate treatment?

A

Intentional discrimination that occurs when qualified candidates are intentionally not given the same hiring or promotion as other equally qualified employees because of their age, sex, color, national origin, disability, or religion.

98
Q

What is an example of disparate treatment?

A

Not promoting someone to the position of manager because they are a woman.

99
Q

What is disparate/adverse impact?

A

Unintentional discrimination that occurs when members of a particular age, sex color, national origin, disability, ethnic or religion group are unintentionally disadvantaged or harmed because they are hired or promoted at substantially lower rates than others.

100
Q

What is an example of disparate/adverse impact?

A

Islamic workers not being promoted due to being unable to work the night shift or early morning shift during Ramadan.

101
Q

What is the four-fifths rule?

A

Disparate/adverse impact occurs if the decision rate for a protected group of people is less than 80% of the decision rate for a non-protected group.

102
Q

What is an example of the four-fifths rule?

A

If the selection rate for men is 50% and the selection rate for women is 20% for a job hiring. The selection rate for women is less than 80% (20/50=40%), which means adverse/disparate impact has occurred.

103
Q

What is sexual harassment?

A

A form of discrimination in which requests for sexual favors, unwelcome sexual advances, and/or other verbal and/or physical conducts of sexual nature occurs.

104
Q

What is quid pro quo sexual harassment?

A
105
Q

What is a hostile work environment?

A
106
Q

What should a manager do when establishing a sexual harassment policy?

A
  1. Write a clear sexual harassment policy.
  2. Establish clear reporting procedures.
  3. Be aware of local and state enforcement agencies and laws.
107
Q

What should a manager do when allegations of sexual harassment are brought against someone?

A

Respond immediately.

108
Q

What are the two types of recruiting?

A
  1. Internal.
  2. External.
109
Q

What is internal recruiting?

A

The process of developing a pool of qualified job applicants from people who already work within the company.

110
Q

What is a job posting?

A
111
Q

What is a career path?

A
112
Q

What is external recruiting?

A

The process of developing a pool of qualified job applicants from outside the company.

113
Q

What are the methods used in external recruiting?

A
  1. Internet job sites (Indeed.com, Handshake, Zintellect).
  2. Outside organizations.
  3. Special events (Job fairs).
  4. Employment services.
  5. Walk-ins.
  6. Employee referrals.
  7. Advertising (Pop-up ads, side bar ads, billboard, television ad, ad in the paper).
114
Q

What is selection, in terms of management?

A

The process of gathering information about job applicants to decide who should be offered a job.

115
Q

What is validation?

A

The process of determining how well a selection test or procedures predict future job performance.

116
Q

What is an example of validation?

A

A car mechanic asking an interviewee to walk them through how to replace a spark plug.

117
Q

What are some examples of selection tests?

A
  1. Specific ability/aptitude test.
  2. Biographical data.
  3. Personality test (Can they handle the pressure of being a middle school teacher?).
  4. Work sample/performance tests (Being given an assay to run for the position of a laboratory technician).
  5. Assessment centers.
  6. Leaderless group discussion.
  7. In-basket exercise.
118
Q

What are the 3 types of interviews?

A
  1. Unstructured.
  2. Structured.
  3. Semi-structured.
119
Q

What is an unstructured interview?

A
120
Q

What is a structured interview?

A
121
Q

What are some questions asked in a structured interview?

A
  1. “What would you do if…?”
  2. “Give me an example of a time when … How did you handle it?”
  3. “In your previous job(s), tell me about…?”
  4. “Tell me about the training you received at….”
122
Q

What type of question is: “What would you do if…?”

A

Hypothetical situational question.

123
Q

What type of question is: “Give me an example of a time when … How did you handle it?”

A

Job-knowledge question.

124
Q

What type of question is: “In your previous job(s), tell me about…?”

A

Behavioral question.

125
Q

What type of question is: “Tell me about the training you received at….”

A

Background question.

126
Q

What is a semi-structured interview?

A
127
Q

What is an unstructured interview?

A
128
Q

Where does diversity exist?

A

In organizations when there are a variety of demographic, personal and cultural differences among the people who work there and the customers who do business their.

129
Q

What is affirmative action?

A

The purposeful steps taken by an organization to create employment opportunities for women and minorities.

130
Q

How does diversity make good business sense?

A
  1. Decreases turnover.
  2. Leads to higher-quality problem solving.
  3. Decrease absenteeism.
  4. Drives business growth.
  5. Helps companies avoid expensive lawsuits.
  6. Helps companies attract and retain talented workers.
131
Q

What are the two levels of diversity?

A
  1. Surface-level.
  2. Deep-level.
132
Q

What is surface-level diversity?

A

The race, age, physical disabilities, and gender of the individual in question. Can be easily observed by those around you.

133
Q

What is deep-level diversity?

A

The values, beliefs, and attitudes of the individual in question. Can be determined through conversations with the person and their actions.

134
Q

What are the two views of diversity?

A
  1. Pessimistic.
  2. Optimistic
135
Q

What is the pessimistic view of diversity?

A

Diversity creates social divisions that, in turn create poor social cohesion and social integration. Results in negative outcomes for the group.

136
Q

What is the optimistic view of diversity?

A

Diversity creates benefit and value for team outcomes, even as it creates challenges for team-interaction processes.

137
Q

What is bias?

A

An inclination of preference either for or against an individual or group that interferes with impartial judgement.

138
Q

What are the two types of bias?

A
  1. Explicit bias.
  2. Implicit bias.
139
Q

What is explicit bias?

A

The aware, voluntary, and intentional inclinations or preferences that an individual shows.
ex: Rejecting all applications submitted by women.

140
Q

What is implicit bias?

A

The unaware, involuntary, and unintentional preferences or inclinations that an individual shows.
ex: Getting an eerie feeling when around people with tattoo sleeves.

141
Q

How is bias overcome?

A
  1. Having shared goals.
  2. Cooperating in pursuit of those goals.
  3. Having equal status within the immediate setting.
  4. Support of those in authority.
  5. Having intergroup cooperation and friendships.
142
Q

What is a microaggression?

A

Stunning, subtle, often automatic, and non-verbal exchanges which are “put downs” of Black people and members of other minority groups.
*“micro” refers to their routine frequency.

143
Q

What should managers do when they see discrimination?

A
  1. Recognize that it is significantly more pervasive than they think.
  2. Implement workplace accommodations if and when possible.
  3. Survey employees concerning their level of satisfaction.
  4. Look at the hiring and promotion rates of different groups.
  5. Train those who make hiring and promotion decisions.
  6. Make hiring and promotion decisions based on qualifications, not age.
  7. Ensure all types of workers interacts with each other.
  8. Monitor the extent to which groups of employees receive training.
144
Q

What is the spectrum of bias management?

A
  1. Blind.
  2. Open-minded.
  3. Planning.
  4. Managing.
  5. Leading.
145
Q

What is the blind perspective on bias management?

A

Neutral: I treat and see everyone the same. Implicit bias does not affect my decisions.

146
Q

What is the open-minded perspective on bias management?

A

Aware: It is possible implicit bias impacts the decisions I make. My strategy is to just be a good person-treat people like humans. That should be enough.

147
Q

What is the planning perspective on bias management?

A

Thoughtful: Implicit bias does affect the decisions that I make. I regularly reflect on the things I’ve said or done, so that I can do better next time.

148
Q

What is the managing perspective on bias management?

A

Implicit bias does affect the decisions that I make. I consider most things I say or do with that in mind, and try to limit its influence.

149
Q

What is the proactive perspective on bias management?

A

Implicit bias does affect the decisions I and others make. That’s why I proactively work to combat it in myself and those around me.

150
Q

What are the diversity paradigms?

A
  1. Discrimination and fairness paradigm.
  2. Access and legitimacy paradigm.
  3. Learning and effectiveness paradigm.
151
Q

What is discrimination and fairness paradigm?

A

A focus on equal opportunity, recruitment, and fair treatment of minorities, and strict compliance with the equal employment opportunity laws.
*Most common method of approaching diversity.

152
Q

What is the access and legitimacy paradigm?

A

A focus on acceptance and celebration of differences to ensure that the diversity within the company matches the diversity found among primary stakeholders such as customers, suppliers, and local communities.

153
Q

What is the learning and effectiveness paradigm?

A

A focus on integrating deep-level diversity differences into the actual work of the organization.

154
Q

What are diversity principles?

A
  1. Set high but realistic goals.
  2. Solicit negative as well as positive feedback.
  3. Tailor opportunities to individuals, not groups.
  4. Treat group differences as important but not special.
  5. Carefully and faithfully follow and enforce federal and state laws regarding equal opportunity employment.
  6. Carefully find common ground.
155
Q

What falls under diversity training?

A
  1. Awareness training.
  2. Skill-based diversity training.
156
Q

What is awareness training?

A

Training that is designed to raise an employee’s awareness of diversity issues, such as the big 5 personality dimensions.

157
Q

What does awareness training do for employees?

A

Gets employees to challenge underlying assumptions or stereotypes they may have.

158
Q

What is skill-based diversity training?

A

Teaches employees the practical skills they need for managing a diverse work force, such as flexibility and adaptability, negotiation, conflict resolutions, and problem solving.

159
Q

What are diversity audits?

A

Formal assessments that measure employee and management attitudes. Helps investigate the extent to which people are advantaged or disadvantaged with respect to promotion and hiring.

160
Q

What is diversity pairing?

A

People of different cultural backgrounds, race/ethnicity, sexes, etc. are paired for mentoring.

161
Q

What are minority experiences?

A

Compelling top managers to be involved in events with people of different race/ethnicity or sex than themselves.

MGT 301: Principles of Management (11 decks)

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