Exam 3 lecture 5 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What type of disease is cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive genetic disease (mother and father need to have mutation)

They have a 25% chance of having a kid with CF, 50% of being a carruier, 25% chance of neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Average life expectancy of cyctic fibrosis

A

61 years (not just a pediatric disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is CF caused by? Most common mutation?

A

Mutation in gene that encodes for CFTR protein

Most common is F508del

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Compare normal cell in lung and CF lung

A

Normal- There is a nice equilibrium of chloride and sodium (water). Airway is think and cillia beat it easily

In CF mutation, CFTR channel is absent so chloride can not get into mucus so water can not get into it. Creates thick viscous liquid in lung, nice environment for bacteria to grow. Makes it difficult for cillia to beat out the mucus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is CF diagnosed

A

Blood spot obtained from infant called IRT (Immunoreactive trypsinogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is positive IRT diagnostic for CF?

A

no, furtehr testing required for diagnosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

confirmative test for CF

A

Sweat chloride test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What value from sweat chloride test is diagnostic

A

> 60mEq/L is diagnostic

<30 is normal

31-59= intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe different CFTR mutations

A
  1. normal
  2. Class I mutations- stop codon mutation, No CFTR modulators for this class. More severe symptoms
  3. Class 2- Most common mutation (del508). Protein gets made but is not made correctly. A few CFTR proteins get there but not a lot.
  4. Class 3- G551D is most common mutation. Protein gets made but gate is stuck shut. (gating mutation)
    Class 4- R117H is most common. normal number of CFTR
    Class V-reduced number of CFTR proteins reaches membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name CFTR modulators

A

Kalydeco
orkambi
symdeko
Trikafta
Alyftrek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Kalydeco work? Age of patients?

A

CFTR potentiator

> 1 month of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Counseling points of kalydeco

A

Take with fatty foods

Monitor LFT q3 months for 1 year then yearly.

Eye exam- baseline and yearly

Dose adjustment for hepatic impairement

CYP3A substrate (think about drug and food Grapefriit etc)

Approved for responsive mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is orkambi approved in?

A

Two copies of F508del (homozygous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

couseling for orkambi

A

Take with fatty food
AST/ALT/Bil q3 mo for 1 year and then years
Eye exam at baseline and then yearly
Dose adjusts in hepatic impairement
Side effects of chest tightness and SOB with initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Big difference between orkambi and kalydeco

A

Orkambi is a strong CYP3A4 inducer

Also interaction of hormonal forms of birthcontrol (drug interaction of orkambi)

1 year of age started with orkambi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is symdeko approved in? Age

A

Approved for two del508 or reposnsive mutation

age>6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Monitoring with symdeko

A

Take with fatty foods
AST/ALT/Bil Q3 months for 1 year then yearly
Eye exam baseline and yearly
Dose adjustment for liver disease
No birthcontrol side effect or chest tightness
CYP3A4 substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trikafta approved for? Age?

A

Anyone with atleast 1 d508

Age> or =2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Counseling with Trikafta

A

Take with fatty food
AST/ALT/Bil/Alk phose q month for 6 months and then q3 months for 12 additional months and yearly
eye exam baseline and yearly
Dose adjust for liver disease
Ivacaftor 3A4 substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dosing pearl of trikafta

A

If miss orange tablet dose by more than 6 hrs tae orange tabs and skip evening blue tab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alyftrek approved for?

A

F508del or another reposnive mutation (taken once a day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Counseling with alyftrek

A

Take with fatty foods
AST/ALT/Bil/Alk Phos q month for 6 months and then q3 months for 12 additional months and then yearly

Eye exam baseline and yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mortality of CF lung disease? What is it caused by?

A

Cause of 85% of CF deaths

Due to CFTR dysfunction CF patients have thickened mucus, hard to clear, good envt for bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is recommended for pts with CF

A

Airway clearence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Drugs that help us clear mucus (maintenance lung tx)
Dornase alfa Hypertonic saline Inhaled mannitol
26
Dornase alfa MOA? Age group?
Cleaves extracellular DNA from expended neutrophils in CF mucus. Reducing viscosity and promoting clearence. Recommended for CF pts>or=6 yrs
27
hypertonic saline MOA
NacL clears airway by creating an osmotic gradient (draws water into airway)
28
Hypertonic saline recommended strength? Age group it is used in?
7% 4 ml nebulized BID (reduce percent if intoleranc eoccurs) Recommended in all CF pts > or = 6 years
29
Inhaled mannitol MOA? Age approved in?
DRaws water into airway to hydrate mucus Approved 18 yrs an dolder
30
Dose of mannitol? What is required before use? Side effects? What is it used for>
Dry powder 400 mg (10 capsules inhaled twice a day) Requires tolerance test before use Main side effects is bronchospasm, hemoptysis Alternative to hypertonic saline (Admonister albuertol 5-15 mins before use)
31
What are ANti inflammatory drugs used in CF
Azithro Ibuprofen
32
MOA of azithromycin in CF? Dose? Side effects? Who is it recommended in?
MOA- immunomodulating effects Dose- <40kg- 250 mg MWF >40kg- 500 mg MWF May not be tolerated due to GI side effects- dose can be reduced Recommended in pts with chronic pseudomonas
33
Ibuprofen MOA? Dose? Side effects and what to montitor?
Moa- Anti inflammatory NSAID Dose- 20-30 mg/kg (max 1600 mg/dose) BID Check levels: Goal peak>50 mcg/ml and <100 Mcg/ml Not well tolerated due to GI and kidney side effects
34
Not recommended therapies
Inhaled corticosteroids Leukotriene modifiers (montelukast) Oral corticosteroids Albuterol Ipratropium
35
What are pulmonary function tests
FEV1 FVC FEF25-75
36
What are clinical features of CF exacerbation?
Increased cough increased sputum production SOB Chest pain Loss of appetite weight los decreased lung function
37
What are the big player pathogens seen in CF exacerbation
S. aureus Pseudomonas Burkholderia stenotrophomons E coli
38
What are antibiotics used for empiric IV therapy for CF in MRSA and MSSA
MRSA- only single coverage needed (Bactrim, clindamycin, vancomycin, tetracycline, linezolid) MSSA- Only sinfgle coverage needed, cefazolin, unasyn, coverage by anti pseudomonal beta lactam
39
For pseudomonas in CF, What are the treatments
Double coverage needed (different MOA) Piperacillin-tazo, imipenem-cilast, ceftazidime, meropenem, cefepime WITH Aminoglycoside (tobra or amikacin) (NOT GENTAMYCIN)
40
Resistance to what drug shows resistance or susceptibility to staph aureus (MSSA, MRSA)
oxicillin
41
oral outpatient drug for pseudomonas
ciprofloxacin/ levofloxacin (do not double cover for psudomonas in outpatient setting only in IV inpatient)
42
What are altered PK seen in CF pts for Beta lactams
b lactams have increased renal and non renal clearences (use max dose and prolonged infusion)
43
altered PK seen with CF with aminoglycosides
Increased clearence and Vd. So increase the dose and once daily dose
44
Changes in PK seen with CF in quinolones
No change
45
What to use for a patient with pseudomonas culture CF with no symptoms
Inhaled tobramycin
46
If patient does not tolerate tobramycin, what can we do?
Use aztreonam
47
What organ does the mucus from CF affect? How?
Pancreas. Mucus obstructs exocrine ducts. Leads to decreased amylase, lipase, protease and HCO3 output
48
What do we do when pancreas is injured in CF
Pancreatic enzyme (500-2500 units of lipase/kg per meal)
49
What dose do we strat with for pancreatic enzymes? Max dose? How/when are they adjusted?
Typically start at 1,000 units of lipase/kg/meal Do not exceed 10,000 units of lipase/kg/day Adjsuted based on number od stools per day, fat content of stools and growth/weight
50
What are the different pancreatic enzymes
Creon Oancreaze Zenpep Pertzye Viokace
51
What to monitor for pancreatic treatment in CF pts
Vit A,D,E,K We want D above 30 K- monitor PT/INR
52
combination CF vitamins for supplementation
Aquadeks MVW complete DEKA essential
53
CF related diabetes diagnosis? Screening?
Fasting plasma- >126 2 hr plasma glucose > 2 hrs A1c not reliable OGTT annually.
54
What are the different bone and joint infections?
Osteomyelitis- Infection of the bone causing inflammation of the bone marrow and surrounding bone Septic arthiritis-Inflammatory reaction within the joint tissue and fluid due to a microorganism Prosthetic joint infection- Infection of a prosthetic joint and joint fluid
55
How important are tissue/fluid samples in bone infection? What are the commonly acquired biopsies for the different joint infections
Culture and susceptibility information is critical to guide antimicrobial tx Osteomyelitis- bone sample/biopsy via surgery Septic arthiritis and prosthetic joint infection- Joint aspiration with examination of synovial fluid to establish diagnosis and/or surgical intervention Blood cultures important to help further increase likelihood of isolating pathogen
56
Most common organism associated with bone infections (EXAM)
Staph aureus
57
COmpare duration and doses of joint/bone infections to other infections? What ROA mostly?
Antibiotic therapy for bone/joint infections longer durations and higher doses because antibiotic penetration into joint is low. Commonly IV.
58
What are the durations of each infection?
Osteomyeltits- 4-8 wks Septic arthiritis- 2-4 wks Prosthetic joint infection- 6-12 wks
59
What are questions that we need to ask in patients with antibiotic receiving bone/joint infections
Will patient need long terms IV access for antibiotic therapy If IV antibiotic therapy is selected, where will patient receive it (home, faccility, outpatient infusion) If oral antibiotic is selected, will the patient adhere to the regimen if it requires multiple antibiotics and doses per day Does patient have insurance/ability to pay for tx
60
What drugs can be used once a week for Bone/joint infections?
Lipoglycopeptides (dalbavancin and oritavancin) Helpful if they can only come in once a week
61
What are the 3 main sections of bone
Epiphysis Metaphysis Diaphysis
62
Describe the anatomy of blood supply to bone infecttion
Nutrient arteries enter on metaphyseal side of epiphyseal growth plate Lead to capillaries forming sharp loops in the epiphyseal grpwth plate Capillaries lead to large sinusoidal veins that exit metaphysis Bottom line- Blood flow slowed significantly
63
3 main pathways osteomyelitis develops? Describe them? (are they mono or poly microbial)
1. Hematogenous spread- Microbe reaches bone via bloodstream (typically monomicrobial) 2. contigous spread- Microbe reaches bone from soft tissue infection or direct inoculation (puncture wound, trauma, surgery) (commonly polymicrobial) 3. Vascular insufficiency - microbe reaches bone from soft tissue infection (most commonly associated with diabetes and vascular disease) (polymicrobial)
64
When is S. aureus not the most common bacteria in bone and joint infection?
Penetrating trauma. P.aeruginosa is most common in this case
65
signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis (acute/chronic)?
acute sx- fever, localized pain/ tenderness/ swelling decreased rang of motion Chronic- pain, drainage, sinus tract, decreased ROM
66
Diagnostic consideration of osteomyelitis (lab, radiology)
Lab- elevated WBC Radiologic- CT or MRI (MRI is standard of care)
67
What are the two pillars of osteomyelitis tx
Surgical intervention Antibiotic tx
68
What is different about antibiotic selection in osteomyeltits
May hold antibiotic therapy initially while waiting for biopsy/surgical intervention if patient is clinically stable
69
What does clinically stable mean
Hemodynamically stable, no neurologic effects, no concern for additional site of severe infection
70
OSTEOMYELITIS EMPIRIC ANTIBIOTIC SELECTION (EXAM)
B lactam + MRSA coverage (Vanc, dapto, linezolid)
71
What are B lactams used for osteomyelitis (EXAM)
Cefazolin Ceftriaxone \Cefepime Piperacillin/tazobactam Ampicillin/sulbactam Meropenem Cipro/Levo
72
What are drugs that can be combined with B lactams for osteomyelitis (exam)
Vancomycin Daptomycin Linezolid
73
What do we use for anaerobic coverage for osteomyelitis
Metronidazole should be added to normal regimen
74
Duration of tx for osteomyelitis (vertebral osteomyelitis due to MRSA, diabetic foot infection related to osteomyelitis)
4-8 wks Vertebral osteomyelitis due to MRSA = 8 wks Doabetic foor infection related to osteomyeolitis - complete resection of all infected bone/tissue= 2-5 days - Resection of all psteomyelitis, soft tissue infection remains= 1-2 wks - Resection performed, osteomyelitis remains= 3 wks -No resection = 6 wks
75
What are some highly bioavalable oral antibiotic options for osteomyelitis for different pathogens (streptococci, MSSA, MRSA, GNRs)
Streptococci- amoxicillin, cephalexin, clindamycin (if susceptoble) MSSA- Dicloxacin, cephalexin, cefadroxil, TMP/SMX, linezolid MRSA- Linezolid, TMP/SMX, clindamycin GNRs- TMP/SMX fluoroquinolones
76
When can we consider rifampin addition as an oral agent
MSSA, MRSA
77
3 main pathways for septic arthiritis
Hematogenous Direct inoculation Contiguous
78
Most common pathogen for septic arthiritis
S. aureus (Gonorrhea is also a potential Cause) Exam
79
Presentation and diagnosis What to note?
Painful, swollen, red, fever, chills Monoarticular (ONLY infects 1joint)
80
Diagnostic consideration of septic arthiritis
Arthrocentisis Gram stain and culture
81
approach to tx of septic arthritis (empiric)
Antibiotics started ASAP Empiric antibiotic selection comparable to osteomyelitis Proceed with pathogen direted tx once culture and susceptibility are known
82
tx duration for septic arthiritis in S aureus, Streptococci, N gonorrhoaea
S aureus- 4 wks Streptococci- 2 wks N gonorrhoea- 7-10 days
83
MOA of prosthetic joint
Same as the other 2 Involves development of biofilm on prosthetic. Impedes antibiotic penetration
84
Most common pathogen in prosthetic joint infetion
S aureus
85
S/s of prosthetic joint infection
Joint pain, chills, loosening of prosthesis, important to review history of prosthesis
86
Diagnostic consideration of prosthetic joint infection
Lab findings (WBC, ESR) Arthrocentisis commonly done
87
Approach to tx of prosthetic infection
Surgical intervention Antibiotic tx
88
3 general interventions surgically for prosthetic joint inefection
1. debridement and retention of prosthesis 2. 1 stage exchange 3.. 2 stage exchange
89
Approach to tx of prosthetic joint infection
Just like osteomyelitis we withold antimicrobial therapy in stable patients Empiric selection of antibiotics similar to osteomyelitis If gram stain avilable prior to antibiotic initiation, acceptable to sue narrowest possible agent IV or hughly bioavailable oral is acceptable
90
What is added to prosthesis for retention of prosthesis in prosthetic joint infection
Rifampin
91
How to approach treatment of prosthetic joint infection for debridement and retention of prosthesis with duration
Pathogen directed treatment + Rifampin x 2-6 wks Oral antibiotic treatment + Rifampib x 3 months (Hip)- 6 months (knee, other joint) May consider long term antibiotic suppression after completion of tx
92
How to approach treatment of prosthetic joint infection for 1 stage exchange with duration
Pathogen directed tx + rifampin x 2-6 wks Oral antibiotic tx + Rifampin x 3 mo
93
How to approach tx for 2 stage exchange of prosthetic joint infection with duration
Pathogen directed tx x 4-6 wks
94
How to approach treatment of prosthetic joint infection for amputation with complete removal of infected bone/hardware
Pathogen directed treatment x 24-48 hrs
95
What are the preferred oral agents for Prosthetic joint infections
Preferred oral agents are osteomyelitis
96
When do we add rifampin
Only with S aureus, never with gram negative
97
Compare vancomycin and daptomycin in terms of ROA,
Dapto is every 24 hrs for 6 wks at infusion clinic Vanc is every 12 hrs for 6 wks at home
98
What PMN count would suggest septic arthiritis?
PMN count > 50,000
99
Out of daptomycin, vancomycin and dalbavancin, which of the folliwng requires central line
Daptomycin
100
What drugs cover MSSA for osteomyelitis? MRSA?
MSSA- Nafcillin 2 g IV Q4-6H* Cefazolin 2 g IV Q8H* (MRSA) -Vancomycin (dose based on PK eval) Daptomycin 6-12 mg/kg IV Q24H Linezolid 600 mg IV/PO Q12H TMP/SMX 8-12 mg/kg TMP PO daily Dalbavancin 1500 mg IV Day 1,8