Exam 3 Practice Exam Flashcards

(125 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following granulocytes is active during inflammation?

A

Basophils

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2
Q

The P wave on an EKG lasts around

A

0.08-0.1 seconds

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3
Q

The contraction of the pulmonary valve can be heard in the

A

left side in the 2nd intercostal space

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4
Q

Which of the following treatments would be the next step in treating a patient with leukemia following radiation?

A

stem cell transplantation

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5
Q

What percentage of blood is taken to the GI tract for absorption?

A

25%

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6
Q

Red blood cells containing which hemoglobin subtype is abnormal

A

S and C

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7
Q

Beta 1 receptors on the sympathetic system have what type of effect?

A

Positive inotropic

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8
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be secreted if you are stranded in a hot desert?

A

ADH

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9
Q

The tunica intima is composed of

A

Simple squamous epithelium

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10
Q

What is the function of class III agents?

A

Block potassium channels

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11
Q

What is the glomerular filtration rate in males?

A

125 mL/min

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12
Q

V5 and V6 detect the function of the

A

anterior and lateral wall of the left ventricle

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13
Q

Which of the following defines the relative refractory period?

A

If there is a second stimulus during phase 3, the cell membrane can accept the stimulus and show a reaction to it

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14
Q

What percentage of sodium is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules?

A

67%

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15
Q

The “lub” sound is produced by the

A

closure of the AV valve

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16
Q

Dead red blood cells are converted to _____________ after _______ days

A

bilirubin; 120 days

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17
Q

Deficiency of folic acid/vitamin B12 is a characteristic of which of the following anemias?

A

Macrocytic

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18
Q

The pressure that exists in the ventricles during contraction is known as

A

Systolic pressure

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19
Q

Which phase of cardiac action potential through the Purkinje system is characterized by a decrease calcium conductance and an increase in potassium conductance?

A

Phase 3

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20
Q

In metabolic acidosis there is

A

low levels of HCO3- and high levels of H+

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21
Q

Conduction velocity is fastest through the

A

purkinje fibers because they’re thin

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22
Q

A second-degree AV node block is associated with

A

P wave w/o associated QRS

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23
Q

What is the function of alpha and beta globulin proteins?

A

Transport lipids and fat soluble vitamins

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24
Q

Which of the following is an angiotensin II receptor blocker?

A

Valsartan

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25
Which of the following are branches of the renal artery?
Interlobar artery, Cortical artery, Arcuate artery, Radial artery
26
Platelets are derived from
Megakaryoblasts
27
What is the hematocrit level in females?
37-47%
28
Renin is secreted in response to
Low blood pressure
29
Which of the following phases is present in ventricular action potential but not in that of the SA node?
Phase 2
30
When the right atrium contracts and releases blood into the right ventricle it goes through the
Tricuspid valve
31
Closure of the common bile duct is a characteristic of which of the following?
Posthepatic jaundice
32
In which of the following phases is the pressure of the ventricles very low and the amount of blood in the ventricles around 140 mL?
Isovolumetric contraction
33
During cell respiration, the combination of CO2 and H2O in the proximal tube makes
carbonate acids
34
What is pulse pressure?
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures
35
Which of the following are known as resistance vessels?
arterioles
36
What is the function of thrombocytes?
blood clotting (platelets)
37
Oversecretion of erythropoietin leads to
Polycythemia (polyvera)
38
The automaticity of the heart is defined by the
SA node
39
The pressure that exists in the capillaries is approximately
20 mmHG
40
characteristics of supraventricular arrhythmia?
deformed P wave in atrial extrasystole, short QRS in nodal extrasystole, negative P wave in nodal extrasystole, abnormal impulses through the AV node
41
___________ _____________ is due to the mitral valve being unable to open
mitral stenosis
42
A heart rate of above 200 beats per minute is defined as
flutter
43
Which of the following describes a positive chronotropic effect?
increase in heart rate
44
Which of the following granulocytes is active during parasitic or allergic reactions?
Eosinophils
45
Which of the following granulocytes is active during bacterial infection?
neurophils
46
The QRS complex on an EKG lasts around
0.06-0.1 seconds
47
The PR interval on an EKG lasts around
0.12-0.2 seconds
48
The QT interval on an EKG lasts around
0.2-0.4 seconds
49
The contraction of the aorta valve can be heard in the
right side in the 2nd intercostal space
50
The contraction of the mitral (bicuspid) valve can be heard in the
left side in the 5th intercostal space
51
The contraction of the tricuspid valve can be heard in the
right side in the 5th intercostal space
52
Which of the following would make it worse in treating a patient with leukemia following radiation?
immunosuppressants
53
Leukemia treatment steps
chemo, interferon-alpha therapy, radiation, stem cell transplantation
54
What percentage of blood is taken to the GI tract for reabsorption?
25%
55
What percentage of blood is taken to the kidneys for absorption?
25%
56
What percentage of blood is taken to the skeletal muscles for absorption?
25%
57
Red blood cells containing which hemoglobin subtype is normal
A
58
Red blood cells containing which hemoglobin subtype is sickle cell
S
59
chronotropic
change in heart rate
60
inotropic
contractility, dialation
61
dromotropic
change in conduction velocity
62
vasoconstriction
does not allow for increased heart rate
63
aldoesterone
sensitive to low blood pressure
64
ANP
sensitive to high blood pressure
65
ADH
sensitive to H2O
66
the tunica media is composed of
smooth muscle
67
the tunic externa is composed of
connective tissue
68
What is the function of class IV cidocaine agents?
block sodium channels
69
What is the function of class IV verapamil agents?
block calcium channels
70
What is the function of class II propranalol agents?
beta blockers
71
What is the glomerular filtration rate in females?
115 mL/min
72
V1 and V2 detect the function of the
lateral wall of the right ventricle
73
V3 and V4 detect the function of the
interventricular system
74
which of the following defines the effective refractory period
if there is a second stimulus during phase 1 or 2, the cell membrane can accept the stimulus and will not show a reaction to it
75
which of the following defines the absolute refractory period
if there is a second stimulus during phase 0, the cell membrane can not accept the stimulus or show a reaction to it
76
the "dub" sound is produced by the
closure of the semilunar valve
77
blood loss due to trauma
normocytic
78
iron deficiency
microcytic
79
destruction of bone marrow
aplastic
80
the pressure that exists in the ventricle during relaxation is known as
diastolic pressure
81
difference between systolic and diastolic
pulse pressure
82
Which phase of cardiac action potential through the Purkinje system is characterized by an increase in sodium conductance?
Phase 0
83
Which phase of cardiac action potential through the Purkinje system is characterized by a decrease in sodium conductance
Phase 1
84
Which phase of cardiac action potential through the Purkinje system is characterized by a increase in calcium conductance and an increase in potassium conductance?
Phase 2
85
Which phase of cardiac action potential through the Purkinje system is characterized by a decrease in potassium conductance
Phase 4, back to equilibrium
86
ECG lead 1 is between the
left arm and right arm electrodes
87
ECG lead 2 is between the
right arm and left leg electrodes
88
ECG lead 3 is between the
left arm and left leg electrodes
89
in metabolic alkalosis there is
high levels of HCO3- and low levels of H+
90
conduction velocity is slowest through the
AV node
91
a first degree AV node block is associated with
a PR interval that exceeds 0.2 seconds
92
a third degree AV node block is associated
no communication between atria and ventricle
93
diuretics
hydrochlorothiazide
94
Ca2+ channel blocker
felodipine, benidipine
95
ACE inhibitor
captopril, ramipril
96
B- adrenergic blocker
propranolol
97
female blood volume
4-5 liters
98
male blood volume
5-6 liters
99
what is the hematocrit level in males
42-52%
100
ADH is secreted in response to
highly concentrated blood
101
ANP is secreted in response to
high blood pressure
102
Phase 0, 3, and 4 are all in
SA node
103
characteristics of a myocardial infarction
high levels of lactate dehydrogenase and myoglobin, depressed or elevated ST segment on ECG, increase levels of troponin T
104
when the left atrium/left ventricle contracts and releases blood into the right ventricle it goes through the
mitral valve
105
when the right ventricle/lungs contracts and releases blood into the right ventricle it goes through the
pulmonary valve
106
when the left ventricle/body contracts and releases blood into the right ventricle it goes through the
aortic valve
107
hemolysis, damaged RBC's
prehepatic jaundice
108
liver damage
hapatic jaundice
109
cardiac cycle steps
isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular filling
110
inreased Psi, around 70 mL ventricles (ESV)
isovolumetric relaxation
111
decreased psi + decreased mL
ventricular ejection
112
increased psi, around 140 mL
ventricular filling
113
the highest arterial pressure during a cardiac cycle
Systolic
114
the lowest arterial pressure during cardiac cycle
Diastolic
115
the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels
blood pressure
116
Capacitance vessels
veins
117
conduction system order
SA node, AV node, bundle of his, purkinje fibers
118
the pressure that exists in the arteriole is approximately
50 mmHG
119
the pressure that exists in the aorta is approximately
120 mmHG
120
the pressure that exists in the veins is approximately
4 mmHG
121
a heart rate of 120 bpm
tachycardia
122
a heart rate of less than 60 bpm
bradycardia
123
a heart rate of 250 bmp
fibrillation
124
positive dromotropic
increased conduction velocity
125
positive chronotropic
increasinf firing rate of SA node