Exam 3 PreWork

Question 1

_____ an involuntary flapping of the hands, may be seen in stage 2 encephalopathy.

Answer 1

asterixis

Question 2

T/F: Primary liver tumors usually are associated with chronic liver disease, hepatitis B and C infections, and cirrhosis.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

T/F: Lobectomy is the treatment of choice for hepatocellular carcinoma if it is confined to one lobe and liver function is adequate

Answer 3

True

Question 4

T/F: The hepatitis A virus is transmitted primarily parenterally through percutaneous and permucosal routes.

Answer 4

False

Question 5

Patients with cirrhosis are at increased risk for bleeding and hemorrhage because of the decreased production of _______
and the decreased ability of the diseased liver to synthesize the necessary substances for blood coagulation.

Answer 5

prothrombin

Question 6

Hepatocellular jaundice is caused by the inability of damaged liver cells to clear normal amounts of _____ from the blood.

Answer 6

bilirubin

Question 7

________ is a result of obstructed blood flow through the liver and results in ascites and esophageal varices.

Answer 7

portal hypertension

Question 8

T/F: The most significant source of bleeding in a patient with cirrhosis is esophageal varices.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

T/F: When fluid accumulates in the peritoneal cavity, the presence and extent of ascites are assessed by percussing the abdomen.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

Nursing management of a patient who requires immunosuppression must include use of ______ precautions when providing care to prevent infection.

Answer 10

standard

Question 11

T/F: Nurses need to be nonjudgmental in order to be effective in educating LGBT population about HIV/AIDS prevention methods.

Answer 11

True

Question 12

T/F: Nursing management of patients with HIV include educating the patient to recognize the signs and symptoms of infection.

Answer 12

True

Question 13

T/F: Many patients with PIDDs have comorbid autoimmune disorders, such as thyroid disease, rheumatoid arthritis, cytopenias, and inflammatory bowel disease.

Answer 13

True

Question 14

T/F: The majority of primary immune deficiency disorders are diagnosed during infancy.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

T/F: Modes of transmission for HIV include blood, semen, saliva, and casual contact.

Answer 15

False

Question 16

A common complication of stage 3 HIV infection, ______ syndrome, is defined as a loss of more than 10% of one’s body weight over a 30-day timeframe.

Answer 16

wasting

Question 17

Antiretroviral medications as post-exposure prophylaxis for health care workers are started within _____ hours of exposure.

Answer 17

72

Question 18

HIV ______ is a clinical syndrome that is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions as a direct result of HIV infection.

Answer 18

encephalopathy

Question 19

Immune deficiency disorders may be caused by a defect in, or a deficiency of, phagocytic cells, B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, or the ______ system.

Answer 19

complement

Question 20

T/F: Iron deficiency anemia, the most common type of anemia in all age groups, also is the most common anemia in the world.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

A patient with neutropenia is at an increased risk for ______
, which increases proportionately with the decrease in the neutrophil count.

Answer 21

infection

Question 22

T/F: Secondary polycythemia is caused by excessive production of erythropoietin.

Answer 22

True

Question 23

T/F: The patient with sickle cell trait usually has a normal hemoglobin level, a normal hematocrit, and a normal blood smear.

Answer 23

True

Question 24

Patients with ______ anemia develop a smooth sore red tongue.

Answer 24

pernicious

Question 25

________ is a genetic condition in which excess iron, absorbed from the GI tract, is deposited in various body organs.

Answer 25

hemochromatosis

Question 26

The most common symptom and complication of anemia is _______, which has the greatest negative impact on a patient’s level of functioning.

Answer 26

fatigue

Question 27

T/F: Anemia is the most common hematologic condition affecting older adults, particularly those admitted to hospitals or those in long-term care facilities.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

T/F: In hypoproliferative anemias, premature destruction of erythrocytes results in the liberation of hemoglobin from the erythrocytes into the plasma.

Answer 28

false

Question 29

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by a process of inflammation and _______________ within the vasculature.

Answer 29

coagulation

Question 30

T/F: Cardiogenic shock, the most common type of shock, occurs when there is a reduction in intravascular volume by 15% to 30%

Answer 30

False- Hypovolemic shock, the most common type of shock, is characterized by decreased intravascular volume

Question 31

In _______ shock, vasodilation occurs because of a loss of balance between parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation.

Answer 31

neurogenic

Question 32

_______ is an enzyme released by the kidneys and necessary for the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

Answer 32

renin

Question 33

T/F: The most common and serious side effects of fluid replacement are cardiovascular overload, pulmonary edema, and abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS).

Answer 33

true

Question 34

T/F: Shock is a life-threatening condition that results from inadequate tissue perfusion. Rapid assessment with early recognition and treatment of underlying causes is essential to the patient’s recovery.

Answer 34

True

Question 35

Intravenous administration of the medication ____ causes venous vasodilation reducing preload and, when given at high dose, can cause arterial vasodilation, which reduces afterload.

Answer 35

nitroglycerin

Question 36

A patient with a systolic BP of 140 mm Hg and a diastolic BP of 90 mm Hg will have a pulse pressure of _____ mm Hg

Answer 36

50

Question 37

The ______ stage of shock presents with a systolic blood pressure ≤100 mm Hg and a MAP ≤66 mm Hg.

Answer 37

progressive

Question 38

T/F: Normal pulse pressure, which is 60 to 80 mm Hg, is calculated by dividing the diastolic measurement from the systolic measurement

Answer 38

False- The top number (systolic) minus the bottom number (diastolic)

Question 39

T/F: Failure of the cardiac pump occurs in the progressive stage of shock.

Answer 39

True

Question 40

A burn that results in total destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissue and lacks sensation is considered a ______ -degree burn.

Answer 40

third

Question 41

The initial systemic event, after a major burn injury, is a shift of fluid, sodium, and protein resulting in ______ shock.

Answer 41

hypovolemic

Question 42

T/F: Prevention of shock and respiratory distress are two immediate priorities of care during the emergent/resuscitative phase of burn injury.

Answer 42

TRUE

Question 43

A major part of the nurse’s role during the acute phase of burn care is detection and prevention of

Answer 43

infection

Question 44

T/F: Burns more than 40% of TBSA produce a local and systemic response and are considered major burns.

Answer 44

False

Question 45

The body’s response to burn injuries has been classified as hyperdynamic, ______, and hypercatabolic.

Answer 45

hypermetabolic

Question 46

T/F: Burn pain has been described as one of the most severe forms of acute pain and includes background or resting pain, procedural pain, and breakthrough pain.

Answer 46

True

Question 47

Methods used to determine total body surface area burned include ______ , Lund and Browder method, and Palmer method.

Answer 47

rule of nines

Question 48

T/F: During burn care fluid resuscitation the patients’ response to fluid therapy is assessed every hour.

Answer 48

True

Question 49

T/F: Mortality associated with burns is greater in younger patients than in older adult patients when comparing injuries with similar severity.

Answer 49

False