Exam 2 Pre Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

T/F During assessment of an unconscious patient, the nurse notes “fixed, dilated pupils” and understands that brain injury is at the level of the midbrain.

A

True

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2
Q

T/F The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) must be maintained at 50 mm Hg to ensure adequate blood flow to the brain.

A

False
The normal CPP is 70 to 100 mm Hg

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3
Q

_____ refers to the brain’s ability to change the diameter of blood vessels to maintain cerebral blood flow.

A

autoregulation

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4
Q

T/F: The first treatment priority for a patient with an altered level of consciousness is to obtain and maintain a patent airway.

A

True

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5
Q

_____ refers to abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities as neurologic function deteriorates and the patient becomes comatose.

A

decortication

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6
Q

Using the Glasgow Coma Scale, the nurse gives a patient who is brain dead a score of ___

A

3

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7
Q

The most frequently administered hyperosmotic agent used to reduce cerebral edema before intracranial surgery is ______.

A

mannitol

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8
Q

T/F: Nursing intervention when caring for a patient with ICP is to maintain the head of the bed at 30 degrees and maintain alignment of the head.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F: The earliest sign of increasing ICP is a change in LOC.

A

True

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10
Q

______ is an abnormal episode of motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity resulting from a sudden, abnormal, uncontrolled electrical discharge from cerebral neurons.

A

seizure

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11
Q

The lowest score of 3 on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) indicates the ______ responsive level of consciousness.

A

least

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12
Q

T/F: Young age, male gender, and alcohol and drug use are risk factors for spinal cord injury.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

T/F: Basilar skull fractures are suspected when cerebrospinal fluid escapes from the ears and the nose

A

TRUE

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14
Q

T/F: A concussion results in any loss of consciousness lasting from seconds to minutes.

A

False

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15
Q

T/F: The person with tetraplegia or paraplegia must not remain in any position for longer than 2 hours to prevent the formation of pressure ulcers.

A

True

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16
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia occurs among patients with spinal cord lesions above thoracic vertebra ______ after spinal shock has subsided.

A

T6

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17
Q

T/F: Concussion is the condition of temporary loss of neurologic function with no apparent structural damage to the brain.

A

True

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18
Q

The three cardinal signs of brain death on clinical examination are coma, the absence of brainstem reflexes, and ______
.

A

apnea

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19
Q

The most common sites for pressure ulcers, a significant complication of spinal cord injury, are over the ischial tuberosity, the greater trochanter, the
______, and the occiput.

A

sacrum

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20
Q

The most common causes of traumatic brain injury are _____.

A

falls

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21
Q

_________ syndrome is an autoimmune attack on myelin, a complex substance that covers nerves.

A

Guillain–Barré: an autoimmune attack on the peripheral nerve myelin. The result is acute, rapid segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves and some cranial nerves, producing ascending weakness with dyskinesia (inability to execute voluntary movements), hyporeflexia, and paresthesias (a sensation of numbness, tingling, or a “pins and needles” sensation).

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22
Q

T/F: Meningeal irritation is suspected when a patient exhibits a negative, bilateral Kernig sign.

A

False-
it would be positive
Kernig sign. When the patient is lying with the thigh flexed on the abdomen, the leg cannot be completely extended (see Fig.64-1A). When Kernig sign is bilateral, meningeal irritation is suspected.
B. Brudzinski sign. When the patient’s neck is flexed (after ruling out cervical trauma or injury), flexion of the knees and hips is produced; when the lower extremity of one side is passively flexed, a similar movement is seen in the opposite extremity (see Fig.64-1B). Brudzinski sign is a more sensitive indicator of meningeal irritation than Kernig sign

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23
Q

T/F: The initial manifestation of myasthenia gravis in most patients involves the ocular muscles.

A

TRUE it is an autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction, is characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the voluntary muscles.

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24
Q

T/F: Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States.

A

True

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25
Q

The most common predisposing conditions for brain abscesses among immunocompetent adults are otitis media and ________________.

A

rhinosinusitis

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26
Q

Bell palsy is caused by the unilateral inflammation of the __________ cranial nerve which results in weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on the affected side.

A

seventh- facial nerve

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27
Q

T/F: The oral disease-modifying agent fingolimod, recently approved by the FDA, has shown to decrease relapse rates in multiple sclerosis by approximately 50%.

A

true

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28
Q

Most patients diagnosed with _______________ have a remitting-relapsing course.

A

multiple sclerosis

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29
Q

T/F: Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux) is a condition of the 12th cranial nerve characterized by paroxysms of sudden pain.

A

FALSE
condition of the 5th cranial nerve
the 12th cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve and controls the muscle that moves the tongue

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30
Q

The primary vector in North America that is responsible for transmitting several types of viruses that cause encephalitis is the ___

A

mosquito 🦟

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31
Q

Bladder ______ is a noninvasive method of measuring urine volume in the bladder that can be performed by the nurse at the bedside.

A

ultrasonography

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32
Q

T/F: The medulla contains the nephrons, the structural and functional units of the kidney responsible for urine formation.

A

False
nephrons are in the lobes

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33
Q

T/F: When fluid intake decreases, specific gravity increases.

A

True

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34
Q

Regulation of sodium volume excretion depends on ______, a hormone synthesized and released from the adrenal cortex.

A

aldosterone

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35
Q

T/F: The angling of the ureterovesical junction is the primary factor preventing backward movement of urine from the bladder toward the kidney.

A

True

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36
Q

The normal adult bladder capacity is
_____ mL of urine.

A

400
to
500

37
Q

T/F: Urea is an abnormal constituent of urine.

A

False
it is found there b/c it is filtered by the kidneys

38
Q

T/F: The glomerular filtration rate decreases at a yearly decline of about 1 mL/min after age 40.

A

True

39
Q

Enclosed in an epithelial structure called Bowman capsule, the _____ is a unique network of capillaries that form that part of the nephron through which filtration occurs.

A

glomerulus

40
Q

One pound is equal to approximately _____ mL.

A

500

41
Q

T/F: Kidney transplantation has become the treatment of choice for most patients with end-stage kidney disease.

A

True

42
Q

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient with a kidney disorder is ______ which must be assessed daily.

A

weight

43
Q

T/F: The glomerular filtration rate and the creatinine clearance decrease with end-stage kidney disease.

A

True

44
Q

Any condition that damages the glomerular membrane and results in increased permeability to plasma proteins is _______ syndrome.

A

nephrotic

45
Q

______ is the most immediate life threatening of the fluid and electrolyte imbalances that occur in patients with kidney disorders.

A

hyperkalemia

46
Q

A widely accepted criterion for acute kidney injury is a 50% or greater increase in serum ______ above baseline

A

creatinine

47
Q

T/F: Peritonitis is the most common and the most serious complication of peritoneal dialysis.

A

True

48
Q

T/F: In chronic glomerulonephritis, the kidneys are reduced to as little as 50% of their normal size.

A

False

49
Q

_____ is used for a patient with acute kidney injury until kidneys resume function and for long-term replacement therapy for chronic kidney disease and end-stage kidney disease

A

hemodialysis

50
Q

T/F: The systematic approach to ethical decision making can follow the steps of the nursing process.

A

True

51
Q

T/F: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) is a standard course that all nursing students must pass in order to obtain licensure.

A

False

52
Q

Wellness involves being proactive and being involved in self-care activities aimed toward a state of ______, psychological, social, and spiritual well-being.

A

physical

53
Q

Evidence-based practice involves identification and evaluation of current literature and reliable ____ findings, as well as incorporation of the findings into patient care.

A

research

54
Q

T/F: Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person’s wishes before hospitalization and provide valuable information that may assist health care providers in decision making.

A

True

55
Q

The second step in the nursing process is ______, the statement of specific patient problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions.

A

diagnosis

56
Q

T/F The implementation phase of the nursing process involves identifying nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems.

A

False

57
Q

The ethics theory of _____ is based on the concept of “the greatest good for the greatest number.”

A

utilitarianism

58
Q

Addressing needs by priority reflects _____
hierarchy of needs, which is a useful framework that can be applied to various nursing models.

A

MAslow

59
Q

T/F: How health is perceived depends on how health is defined.

A

True

60
Q

______ is the expected course of an illness and the chance for recovery.

A

prognosis

61
Q

T/F: Patient and family awareness of prognosis is a key factor in acceptance of and planning for death.

A

True

62
Q

T/F: Hours before death, the patient’s skin shows mottling of extremities and periods of apnea are observed.

A

True

63
Q

T/F: The HPNA prefers physician-assisted death to offering end-of-life care.

A

False- HPNA is Hospice and Palliative Nurses Association

64
Q

T/F: Palliative care is offered in an outpatient-based setting.

A

True

65
Q

T/F: A living will is a medical order to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac arrest.

A

False- a living will is a type of advance directive in which the individual documents treatment preferences. It provides instructions for care in the event that the signer is terminally ill and not able to communicate their wishes directly and often is accompanied by a durable power of attorney for health care. This is also known as a medical directive or treatment directive.
Do not resuscitate: a medical order to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac arrest. In some settings, the term “allow natural death” (AND) is used in place of “do not resuscitate” (DNR)

66
Q

Eligibility for hospice care includes a life expectancy of _____ months or less.

A

six

67
Q

_______ includes personal feelings that accompany an anticipated or actual loss.

A

grief

68
Q

A patient/person and family-centered approach to care that attends to the physical, functional, psychological, spiritual, and existential aspects of a serious illness is known as _______ care.

A

palliative

69
Q

_____ is an uncomfortable awareness of breathing that is one of the most prevalent symptoms in patients approaching the end of life.

A

dyspnea

70
Q

Oversecretion of the anterior pituitary gland most commonly involves ACTH or growth hormone and results in ______ syndrome or acromegaly.

A

Cushing’s

71
Q

Following thyroid surgery, the patient should be monitored closely for signs of ______, an indicator of a disturbance in calcium metabolism due to injury or removal of the parathyroid gland.

A

tetany

72
Q

_____ disease occurs when the adrenal cortex function is inadequate to meet the patient’s need for cortical hormones.

A

Addison’s

73
Q

T/F: Extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, and dry skin are common clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

A

False- hypothyroid
Hyper is hyper

74
Q

T/F: Thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice for thyroid cancer.

A

True

75
Q

T/F: Acute hypercalcemic crisis occurs with extreme elevation of serum calcium levels and can be life threatening.

A

True

76
Q

T/F: The major function of the parathyroid hormone is the regulation of serum calcium.

A

True

77
Q

T/F: Iodine is essential to the thyroid gland for the synthesis of its hormones.

A

True

78
Q

The major action of the ______ is controlling the release of pituitary hormones.

A

hypothalamus

79
Q

_____ disease, an autoimmune disorder, is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

A

Graves

80
Q

T/F: Latent autoimmune diabetes of adults (LADA) is a subtype of diabetes in which progression of autoimmune beta-cell destruction in the pancreas is slower than in types 1 and 2 diabetes.

A

True

81
Q

The main goal of diabetes treatment is to normalize insulin activity and blood glucose levels to reduce the development of vascular and ______ complications.

A

neuropathic

82
Q

T/F: Regular insulin is a rapid-acting insulin that has a duration of 4 to 6 hours.

A

False

83
Q

Classic clinical manifestations of diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, and _____.

A

polyphagia

84
Q

The _______ phenomenon is an example of morning hyperglycemia that is characterized by a relatively normal blood glucose level until approximately 3:00 AM when blood glucose levels begin to rise.

A

dawn

85
Q

T/F: When mixing a short-acting insulin and a longer-acting insulin, the ADA recommends the regular insulin be drawn up first.

A

True

86
Q

The three main clinical features of diabetic ketoacidosis are hyperglycemia, dehydration with electrolyte loss, and _____

A

acidosis

87
Q

T/F: Type 1 diabetes, which affects approximately 90% to 95% of people with the disease, is characterized by insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.

A

False

88
Q

The American Dietetic Association recommends that for all levels of caloric intake, the percentage of calories from carbohydrates should not exceed _____%.

A

50 to 60

89
Q

T/F: Proliferative retinopathy, a diabetic microvascular disease, represents the greatest threat to vision; it is characterized by the proliferation of new blood vessels growing from the retina into the vitreous.

A

True