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Microbiology > Exam 3 Test Files > Flashcards

Exam 3 Test Files Flashcards

1
Q

What is a property of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
􏰀 A: infections often involve major bacteremia
􏰀 B: bacterium is a Gram-negative rod
􏰂 C: produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2
􏰀 D: effects of bacteria mainly caused by bacterial endotoxin
􏰀 E: infections cause whooping cough

A

􏰂 C: produces an ADP-ribosylase that targets host elongation factor 2

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2
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal
cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
􏰂 A: it is a unique component of the Bordetella pertussis cell wall
􏰂 B: it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
􏰀 C: it acts as an adenylate cyclase
􏰀 D: it is an A-B toxin that ADP ribosylates a G protein
􏰀 E: it is a fimbrial protein

A

􏰂 A: it is a unique component of the Bordetella pertussis cell wall

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
􏰀 A: alginate production, promoting biofilm formation
􏰀 B: Gram-negative rod
􏰀 C: simple nutritional requirements
􏰀 D: growth at temperatures up to 43oC
􏰂 E: obligate intracellular pathogen

A

􏰂 E: obligate intracellular pathogen

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4
Q

What is the role the Helicobacter pylori VacA protein?
􏰀 A: VacA protein is a flagellar protein
􏰀 B: VacA protein is a mucinase
􏰀 C: VacA protein is a urease
􏰀 D: VacA protein removes phosphates from membrane phospholipids
􏰂 E: VacA protein increases urea flow into the stomach

A

􏰂 E: VacA protein increases urea flow into the stomach

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5
Q

Which is NOT a property of the keystone pathogen for periodontitis?
X A: produces gingipains
X B: inhibits of IL-8 synthesis by epithelial cells
X C: becomes the main species present in disease sites
X D: causes uncontrolled growth of other bacterial species in disease sites
X E: activates inflammation in disease sites

A

X C: becomes the main species present in disease sites

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6
Q 
Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis?
X A: Prevotella intermedia
X B: Fusobacterium nucleatum 
X C: Streptococcus mutans
X D: Treponema denticola
X E: Porphyromonas gingivalis
A

X E: Porphyromonas gingivalis

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7
Q 
Which disease has oral manifestations that include gummas?
X A: syphilis
X B: botulism
X C: anthrax
X D: infective endocarditis 
X E: Legionnaires' disease
A

X A: syphilis

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8
Q

Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis? Answer: __1__ 1/1

A

Answer 1: PAAP

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9
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Ludwig’s angina? 1/1
X A: Staphylococcus aureus is the predominant organism
X B: facultative anaerobes are the predominant organisms
X C: infection is usually by a single bacterial species
X D: infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)
X E: is always characterized by “sulphur granules”

A

X D: infection is polymicrobial (multiple species)

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10
Q

How do mucins act as antibacterial agents? 1/1
X A: mucins cleave the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
X B: mucins inhibit the transpeptidation reaction that crosslinks peptidoglycan polymers
X C: mucins bind iron, making it unavailable for bacteria to use
X D: mucins inhibit bacterial and host cysteine proteases
X E: mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin-like interactions

A

X E: mucins aggregate and clear oral bacteria via lectin-like interactions

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11
Q

How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent? 1/1
X A: lysozyme cleaves the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
X B: lysozyme inhibits the transpeptidation reaction that crosslinks peptidoglycan polymers
X C: lysozyme binds iron, making it unavailable for bacteria to use
X D: lysozyme inhibits bacterial and host cysteine proteases
X E: lysozyme aggregates and clears oral bacteria via lectin-like interactions

A

X A: lysozyme cleaves the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

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12
Q

Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is very typically associated with which oral disease? 1/1
X A: Ludwig’s angina
X B: caries
X C: gingivitis
X D: aggressive periodontitis
X E: acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis

A

> D: aggressive periodontitis

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13
Q

What is one of the types of oral bacteria strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis? Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Fusobacterium nucleatum

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14
Q

What is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus noncariogenic bacteria)?
10
X A: decreased synthesis of extracellular polysaccharides
X B: reduced number of phosphoenol pyruvate phophotransferase system (PEP-PTS) transporters
X C: presence of acid stress response proteins
X D: decreased activity of proton pumps
X E: ammonia production from atmospheric nitrogen

A

X C: presence of acid stress response proteins

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15
Q

Name a bacterium that is a common late colonizer of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth? Answer: __1__

A

prevotella

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16
Q

What bacterial gene is used in current methods for classifying bacteria, including identifying new species?
13 Answer: __1__ 1/1

A

Answer 1: 16s rRNA

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17
Q

What is true of dental plaque?

A
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18
Q

Which property of bacteria in a dental biofilm is associated with decreasing the risk of dental caries?
14
X A: upregulation of genes for polysaccharide synthesis
X B: multiple sugar transporters
X C: slow growth
X D: increased activity of proton pumps
X E: upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea

A

> E: upregulation of ammonia production from arginine and urea

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19
Q 
What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?
X A: Neisseria gonorrheae
X B: Mycoplasma genitalium 
X C: Chlamydia trachomatis 
X D: Treponema pallidum
X E: Vibrio cholera
A

X C: Chlamydia trachomatis

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20
Q 
Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?
16
X A: Chlamydia trachomatis 
X B: Treponema pallidum
X C: Clostridium perfringens 
X D: Legionella pneumophila 
X E: Neisseria meningitidis
A

X A: Chlamydia trachomatis

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21
Q

17 Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell? Answer: __1__ 1/1

A

Answer 1: reticulate body

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22
Q 
18 Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks? 1/1
X A: Rickettsia
X B: Helicobacter 
X C: Clostridium 
X D: Chlamydia 
X E: Vibrio
A

X A: Rickettsia

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23
Q

What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi? Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Arthritis

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24
Q 
What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?
X A: gummas
X B: rash
X C: chancre
X D: aortic aneurysm 
X E: mulberry molars
A

X E: mulberry molars

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25
Q

Name a bacterium that may be detectable by an acid-fast staining test of a sputum smear. Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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26
Q

Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
X A: the Mantoux reaction is not part of a diagnostic test for exposure to this bacterium
X B: a 2 week course of penicillin is a standard treatment for infection
X C: the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)
X D: the bacterium is Gram-negative
X E: the bacterium produces cytotoxins that cause most of the host cell damage during infection

A

X C: the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)

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27
Q

What is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires’ disease?
X A: causes systemic infections but is usually localized to the brain
X B: epithelial cells in the lung are this bacterium’s main target for invasion
X C: main route of transmission is by mosquito bite
X D: lives in amoeba in water sources within ventilation systems
X E: gram-positive, spore-forming coccus

A

X D: lives in amoeba in water sources within ventilation systems

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28
Q

Name a bacterium that survives in alveolar macrophages. Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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29
Q

What type of virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is specifically correlated with the ability of these bacteria to cause systemic infections? Answer: __1_

A

Answer 1: capsule B

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30
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, 1/1
producing characteristic swellings called “bubos.” Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Yersenia pestis

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31
Q

Which of the following is true about Bacillus anthracis?
X A: produces an ADP ribosylase called edema factor
X B: produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor
X C: this is the only Bacillus species that does not form spores
X D: bacteria are Gram negative rods
X E: produces tracheal cytotoxin

A

X B: produces a metallo-protease called lethal factor

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32
Q

Which Clostridium species is part of the normal human bacterial flora? Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: C. difficle

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33
Q

Botulism results in 1/1
X A: flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter glycine
X B: spastic muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter dopamine
X C: flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter GABA
X D: spastic muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter glycine
X E: flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

A

X E: flaccid muscle paralysis due to blocking release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

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34
Q 
These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP- ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.
X A: Bacillus anthracis
X B: Bordetella pertussis
X C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
X D: Helicobacter pylori
X E: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

X C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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35
Q

What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis?
X A: it is only found in Bordetella pertussis cell walls
X B: it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled
X C: it acts as an adenylate cyclase
X D: it is an A-B toxin that ADP ribosylates a G protein
X E: it includes the lipid A portion of LPS

A

X B: it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

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36
Q 
The ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce a biofilm is dependent on 1/1
X A: spore formation
X B: alginate production
X C: capsule production
X D: bacterial motility
X E: shedding of lipopolysaccharide
A

X B: alginate production

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37
Q

What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium? 1/1 Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: Helicobacter pylori

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38
Q 
Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?
X A: Salmonella enterica serovar typhi 
X B: Shigella dysenteriae
X C: Vibrio cholera
X D: Enteropathogenic E. coli
X E: Campylobacter jejune
A

X E: Campylobacter jejune

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39
Q

What is a property of cholera toxin and the system for spreading the genes encoding it?
X A: a transposon carries the toxin genes
X B: the toxin results in bloody diarrhea
X C: the receptor involved in spreading the toxin genes is not normally expressed during infection
X D: the toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome
X E: the toxin is a lipase that damages cell membranes Item Description: 6 - Enterics - Vibrio cholerae 2017

A

X D: the toxin genes are encoded in a phage genome

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40
Q

Which of the following is true about cholera?
X A: the causative bacterium is an obligate human pathogen
X B: supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment
X C: severe dehydration is not usually associated with this disease
X D: Vibrio cholera is normally transmitted by inhalation
X E: Vibrio cholera is a component of the normal human flora

A

X B: supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment

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41
Q 
Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organs in the body?
X A: Salmonella enterica serovar typhi 
X B: Shigella dysenteriae
X C: Vibrio cholera
X D: Enterohemorragic E. coli
X E: Streptococcus mutans
A

X A: Salmonella enterica serovar typhi

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42
Q 
Most cases of cytitis (bladder infections) are caused by which bacterial genus? 1/1
X A: Escherichia
X B: Klebsiella
X C: Proteus
X D: Staphylococcus 
X E: Salmonella
A

X A: Escherichia

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43
Q

What is the effect of shiga toxin on the host? 1/1
X A: increase in cAMP production
X B: ADP ribosylation of translation factor EF-2
X C: removal of a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA
X D: cleavage of IgA
X E: cleavage of sialic acid

A

X C: removal of a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA

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44
Q 
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?
X A: Salmonella typhi
X B: Escherichia coli O157:H7 
X C: Clostridium difficile
X D: Shigella dysenteriae
X E: Vibrio cholera
A

X B: Escherichia coli O157:H7

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45
Q 
Bacteroides fragilis is a strict anaerobe but is oxygen resistant because among its other properties it possesses
X A: superoxide dismutase 
X B: neuraminidase
X C: capsule
X D: lipases
X E: LPS
A

X A: superoxide dismutase

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46
Q

Which of the following is a feature of infections caused by a breach in the gut wall?
X A: only strictly anaerobic bacteria will be involved throughout the course of the infection
X B: Salmonella are the main bacteria found in abscesses that are the result of these infections
X C: abscess formation proceeds from an anaerobic to an aerobic state due to bacterial metabolism
X D: Bacteroides is one of the first organisms to extensively grow in the infected area
X E: host production of a thick fibrin capsule at the infection site decreases blood flow into the area

A

X E: host production of a thick fibrin capsule at the infection site decreases blood flow into the area

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47
Q 
Neisseria meningitidis
X A: is gram positive
X B: is an agent of arthritis
X C: is mainly transmitted sexually
X D: is encapsulated
X E: infection is not preventable by vaccination
A

X D: is encapsulated

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48
Q

What is the main method of transmission of Neisseria meningitides? Answer: __1__

A

Answer 1: airborne (sputum)

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49
Q 
Which programmed alteration of bacterial cell-surface protein expression is due to recombination of silent gene loci into the expressed gene locus for the protein?
X A: antigenic variation
X B: phase variation
X C: relapsing expression
X D: gene repression
X E: slipped strand mispairing
A

X A: antigenic variation

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50
Q

46 Lipooligosaccharide (LOS) lacks what component of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)? Answer: __1__ 1/1

A

LIOAnswer 1: O-antigen

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51
Q 
What organism causes scalded skin syndrome?
X A: Streptococcus pyogenes
X B: Staphylococcus aureus
X C: Staphylococcus epidermidis 
X D: Streptococcus agalactiae 
X E: Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A

X B: Staphylococcus aureus

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52
Q 
What bacterial virulence factor has an activity that results in creation of a fibrin coat around bacteria?
X A: catalase
X B: coagulase
X C: protein A
X D: beta-lactamase 
X E: exfoliative toxin
A

X B: coagulase

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53
Q 
What is false about Staphylococcus aureus ?
X A: is Gram negative 8
X B: is a facultative anaerobe 
X C: is beta hemolytic
X D: is coagulase positive
X E: is catalase positive
A

X A: is Gram negative 8

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54
Q

What is a role that staphylokinase plays for Staphylococcus aureus?
X A: inhibits phagocytic cysteine proteases
X B: degrades collagen, allowing bacteria to penetrate tissue
X C: competes with neutrophils for binding of Fc part of IgGs
X D: creates a fibrin coat around bacteria
X E: cleaves C3b and IgG

A

X E: cleaves C3b and IgG

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55
Q 
What gram-positive coccus is one of the main causes of hospital acquired infections of the elderly? 1/1
X A: Enterococcus faecalis
X B: Haemophilus influenzae 
X C: Mycoplasma pneumoniae 
X D: Chlamydia pneumoniae 
X E: Legionella pneumophila
A

X A: Enterococcus faecalis

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56
Q

What is true about rheumatic fever?
X A: associated with infections by Staphylococcus aureus
X B: becuase it is bacterial in origin, the fever is responsive to antibiotic therapy
X C: due to a type III hypersensitivity that is a late complication of bacterial infection
X D: involves abundant pus formation
X E: causes myocarditis in susceptible individuals

A

X E: causes myocarditis in susceptible individuals

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57
Q

What is true about Streptococcus pneumoniae? 1/1
X A: is an alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated bacterium
X B: is only found in individuals with symptomatic lung infections (coughing, fever, etc.)
X C: causes a mild, “walking pneumonia”
X D: is an enterobacterium
X E: is not a vaccine target

A

X A: is an alpha-hemolytic, encapsulated bacterium

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58
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding Streptococcus pyogenes M protein?

A

> A: anti-M protein antibodies are not produced during an infection by Streptococcus pyogenes

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59
Q

Which of the following is true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

> D: undergoes phase variation of Opa proteins

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60
Q

What factor is the most important in allowing intravascular survival of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

> A: bacterial capsule

61
Q

Which of the following is true about infections by Neisseria meningitidis?

A

> E: preventable by vaccination against capsular polysaccharides for some meningiococcal strains

62
Q

Which of the following is the mostly likely characteristic of Campylobacter jejune?

A

> C: acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis

63
Q

To what surface feature of enteric bacteria does the term H-antigen refer? 1/1

A

> A: flagella

64
Q

What is not a property associated with Salmonella enterica serovar typhi?

A

> C: produces a cholera-like toxin

65
Q

Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)? 1/1

A

> B: Escherichia coli

66
Q

Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequently isolated bacterium from abscesses caused by intestinal bacteria. This is partly because

A

> D: its ability to resist phagocytosis

67
Q

17 Which of the following is not a virulence factor for Helicobacter pylori?

A

> D: Shiga-like toxin

68
Q

18 Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism? 1/1

A

> B: Escherichia coli O157:H7

69
Q

Shiga toxin

A

> C: removes a specific adenine base from 28S rRNA, stopping translation

70
Q

20 Which of the following is not a property of Pseudomonas aeruginosa? 1/1

A

> E: obligate intracellular pathogen

71
Q

21 What is a property of the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan that is the tracheal 1/1

A

> B: it is shed from bacterial cells instead of being absorbed and recycled

72
Q

These gram positive pleiomorphic rods produce a pseudomembrane in the throat that can block the airway.

A

> C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

73
Q

23 Clostridium botulinum produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks the release of which neurotransmitter from axon 1/1

A

> A: acetylcholine

74
Q

Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?

A

> B: Clostridium difficile

75
Q

Which organism produces alpha toxin (a lecithinase-phospholipase C) and theta toxin (a hemolytic toxin), that partially account for the organism’s tissue-destructiveness that often requires amputation to save the patient’s life?

A

> C: Clostridium perfringens

76
Q

26 Which of the following best describes tetanospasmin, a virulence factor for Clostridium tetani? 1/1

A

> D: A-B exotoxin that blocks release of the neurotransmitter glycine

77
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically mainly from contact with wild animals such as 1/1 birds, rabbits, or tick bites. The bacteria are able to grow in macrophages, resulting in systemic spread that can
lead to ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, and pulmonary infections. A vaccine is available for high-risk
individuals.

A

> B: Francisella tularensis

78
Q

What virulence property does Haemophilus influenzae capsule b confer on these bacteria?

A

> A: allows the bacteria to cause systemic infections

79
Q

What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?

A

> A: Legionella pneumophila

80
Q

What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food- borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?

A

> B: Listeria monocytogenes

81
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where 1/1 it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be
transmitted by aerosol from human to human.

A

> A: Yersinia pestis

82
Q

Which of the following is true for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

> C: the bacterium exhibits a very slow growth rate (doubling time of 1 day)

83
Q

15 33 A positive result with an acid-fast staining test on a sputum smear is indicative of which type of bacteria?

A

> A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

84
Q

Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

> B: is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids

85
Q

35 Which of the following is true for leprosy?

A

> A: individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity

86
Q

36 Bacteria of which genus are Gram positive filamentous rods that are opportunistic pathogens, causing bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses?

A

> C: Nocardia

87
Q

A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?

A

> B: Borrelia burgdorferi

88
Q

Which form of Chlamydia replicates within a host cell?

A

> D: reticulate body

89
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? 1/1

A

> D: immune protection fades after recovery from infection

90
Q

Bacteria of which genus cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

> A: Rickettsia

91
Q

Which of the following is best associated with the viridans Streptococci?

A

> C: dental caries

92
Q

What role does catalase have for those pathogenic bacteria that express it?

A

> C: Removes hydrogen peroxide produced by phagocytes

93
Q

Scarlet fever is a caused by what organism?

A

> A: Streptococcus pyogenes

94
Q

What symptoms are uniquely associated with tertiary syphilis?

A

> A: gummas

95
Q

What is true about antigenic variation involving the pilin protein of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

> C: involves recombination between silent and expressed copies of the pilin gene

96
Q

Which enteric bacterium is acquired as a zoonotic infection, often from undercooked chicken, and causes a mild, self-limiting gastroenteritis?

A

> E: Campylobacter jejune

97
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication of infection by which organism?

A

> B: Escherichia coli O157:H7

98
Q

Which enteric bacterium can invade M cells in the gut, survive in macrophages, and eventually infect many different organs in the body?

A

> A: Salmonella enterica serovar typhi

99
Q

Which bacterium produces the vast majority (70-90%) of urinary tract infections (bladder infections, for example)?

A

> B: Escherichia coli

100
Q

Which of the following is true about cholera?

A

> B: supportive rehydration therapy is the main method used for treatment

101
Q

What pathogen resides in the stomach and induces the host to secrete urea through the mucosal epithelium?

A

> A: Helicobacter pylori

102
Q

Which of the following virulence factors is the dissaccharide-tetrapeptide component of bacterial peptidoglycan?

A

> B: tracheal cytotoxin of Bordetella pertussis

103
Q

These gram positive rods establish themselves in the throat and kill cells by expressing a toxin that ADP-ribosylates elongation factor 2, causing inhibition of cellular translation.

A

> C: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

104
Q

Which of the following describes Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

> D: can grow at temperatures up to 43oC

105
Q

Blockage of acetylcholine release from host cells is caused by a virulence factor of which bacterium?

A

> D: Clostridium botulinum

106
Q

Which Clostridial species is part of the normal human bacterial flora?

A

> B: Clostridium difficile

107
Q

What spore forming bacterium produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) release from axon endings of interneurons that control motor neurons within muscles?

A

> B: Clostridium tetani

108
Q

A positive result with an acid-fast staining test of bacteria in a sputum smear is indicative of

A

> A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

109
Q

Which bacterium is considered the keystone pathogen for periodontitis?

A

> E: Porphyromonas gingivalis

110
Q

What Haemophilus influenzae virulence factor allows strains of these bacteria to cause systemic infections?

A

> C: capsule b

111
Q

What bacterium lives inside amoeba in the environment and is typically transmitted by an aerosol route to humans through ventilation systems in buildings?

A

> A: Legionella pneumophila

112
Q

What bacterium grows at tempertures from 1oC to 45oC, is resistant to salt and acid conditions, and is a food-borne pathogen that causes systemic disease in immune-compromised individuals?

A

> B: Listeria monocytogenes

113
Q

This Gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, producing a characteristic swellings called bubos.

A

> A: Yersinia pestis

114
Q

Which of the following is true for cord factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

> B: is a glycolipid that adheres to cell surface mycolic acids

115
Q

Which of the following is true for leprosy?

A

> A: individuals normally clear the bacterial agent via cell-mediated immunity

116
Q

A zoonotic disease is associated with which of the following bacteria?

A

> B: Borrelia burgdorferi

117
Q

What is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease associate with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

> D: arthritis

118
Q

Which organism is an obligate intracellular pathogen?

A

> A: Chlamydia trachomatis

119
Q

What bacterium lacks peptidoglycan and is the agent of the most sexually transmitted infections, characterized by mucopurulent discharges?

A

> C: Chlamydia trachomatis

120
Q

What is true about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

> D: cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria

121
Q

Bacteria of which genus are transmitted to humans by bites of infected ticks?

A

> A: Rickettsia

122
Q

What is uniquely associated with congenital syphilis?

A

> E: Hutchinson’s incisors

123
Q

A pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. A diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit?

A

> C: she has secondary syphilis

124
Q

What is true of dental plaque?

A

> E: sugar consumption causes increased levels of Streptococcus mutans in plaque

125
Q

Which bacteria are initial colonizers of the dental biofilm, binding to the salivary pellicle?

A

> C: Streptococcus gordonii

126
Q

Dental caries correlates with

A

> C: gingival recession that occurs with age

127
Q

Which oral bacteria are strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis?

A

> A: spirochetes plus Fusobacterium nucleatum

128
Q

Which genus is specifically associated with aggressive periodontitis?

A

Aggregatibacter

129
Q

Which genus of bacteria are typicaly associated with salivary gland infections?

A

> D: Staphylococcus

130
Q

What enzymes create an extracellular network of branched sugar polymers within dental plaque?

A

> A: glucosyltransferases

131
Q

How does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent?

A

> A: lysozyme cleaves the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

132
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of periodontal abscesses?

A

> D: infection contains multiple anaerobic species

133
Q

Which Streptococcal virulence factor is correlated with the progression of infective endocarditis?

A

> D: platelet associated aggregation factor

134
Q

What is an enveloped virus composed of?

A

> E: nucleocapsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins

135
Q

Which class of virus always brings its own RNA polymerase into a cell during infection?

A

> C: negative-sense, single stranded RNA viruses

136
Q

What virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the common cold, has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, but also requires a second phase of translation to produce several smaller mRNAs transcribed from a negative sense copy of the RNA genome?

A

> C: coronavirus

137
Q

What is the receptor for SARS-CoV-2, the agent of COVID-19?

A

ACE2

138
Q

Nonpolio enteroviruses such as EV-D68 are associated with increased cases of what disease as a possible emerging epidemic?

A

> B: acute flaccid myelitis

139
Q

What virus has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, and transcribes more mRNAs, all of which are the size of the full viral genome, from a negative sense copy of the viral RNA genome?

A

> A: rhinovirus

140
Q

What virus is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitos from person-to-person and causes more severe disease in individuals that have partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus?

A

> A: Dengue fever virus

141
Q

What flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person, can cause jaundice, and was the first virus proven to be spread by an insect vector?

A

> B: yellow fever virus

142
Q

Which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell?

A

> B: poliovirus

143
Q

Antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by

A

> D: random packaging of single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses

144
Q

What are Koplik’s spots?

A

> A: lesions of the oral cavity associated with measles

145
Q

What paramyxovirus initially infects cells of the respiratory tract but characteristically replicates in the parotid gland after viremia?

A

> D: mumps virus

146
Q

Members of what minus-stranded RNA virus family are characterized by a helical nucleocapsid and their ability to induce syncytia during infection?

A

> D: paramyxoviruses

147
Q

What virus is characterized by cytoplasmic masses of nucleocapsids in brain tissue during the late stages of an infection?

A

> E: rabies virus

148
Q

What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?

A

> A: respiratory syncytial virus

Microbiology (42 decks)

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