Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What diluent is used for RBC counts

A

commercial isotonic diluents
Isotonic saline
Hyaluronidase buffer

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2
Q

What diluents are used in WBCs

A

hypotonic saline, turk’s solution, dilute acetic acid

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3
Q

What does hyaluronidase

A

an enzyme that eliminates the viscosity of synovial fluids by depolymerizing hyaluronic acid
prevents clot formation

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4
Q

What is cytocentrifugation

A

the preferred technique for slide preparation for diff
body fluid is filtered in a chamber with filter paper
placed into cytocentrifuge

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5
Q

What are the 3 meninges

A

dura mater- touch outer near bone
arachnoid- middle layer, looks like spider web
pia mater- inner layer, adheres to neural tissues

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6
Q

Which meninges does CSF flow through

A

subarachnoid space

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7
Q

What is the CSF

A

bathes the brain and spinal cord, protects it and supports them and provides a transport medium for nutrients and metabolic wastes

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8
Q

What is the blood brain barrier

A

interface between blood and CSF, reduces the passage of substances from the blood plasma into the CSF

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9
Q

What is the procedure for collecting spinal fluid

A

lumbar puncture- needle directly inserted into spine

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10
Q

List out the tubes that are collected in CSF and where they go

A

1- chem and immuno
2-microbial
3- heme
sterile, sequentially labeled

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11
Q

What is pleocytosis

A

increased number of cells in CSF, makes it cloudy

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12
Q

What is xanthochromia

A

yellow color to CSF

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13
Q

You have a CSF with blood in it
it does not clot
It is xanthochromic
the amount of blood is the same in all tubes
hemosiderin is present

A

Hermorrhage

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14
Q

You have a CSF with blood in it
It did not clot
it shows streaking blood
the color looks normal
no hermosiderin present

A

traumatic tap

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15
Q

What do the following forms of pleocytosis mean
Neutrophilic
lymphocytic
monocytic
eosinophilic

A

Neutrophilic- early viral, fungal, tubercular, parasitic infection
lymphocytic- viral, fungal, tubercular, syphilitic meningitis
monocytic-tb, or fungal meningitis, chronic bacterial, rupture of cerebral abscess
eosinophilic- parasitic and fungal infection, allergic rx to shunt or injection

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16
Q

What cells predominate in the CSF

A

lymphs and monocytes

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17
Q

Explain what electrophoresis on CSF can show the presence of

A

albumin, transferrin, transthyretin

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18
Q

How does albumin get into the CSF

A

must cross blood-brain barrier

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19
Q

What is the normal albumin CSF/ serum index

A

<9
the higher above 9 the more impairment of the barrier

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20
Q

Formula for CSF/albumin index

A

= albuminCSF/ Albumin serum

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21
Q

What are the 4 protein bands present in normal CSF pattern

A

TTR
albumin
Transferrin
Tau transferrin
faint alpha and IgG

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22
Q

What is the purpose of electrophoresis of CSF

A

to detect oligoclonal bands in the gamma region

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23
Q

What does it mean if oligoclonal bands are in the CSF but not the serum

A

highly suggests multiple sclerosis

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24
Q

What does it mean to have oligoclonal bands in both CSF and serum

A

lymphoproliferation disorders

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25
Q

What band IDs a fluid as CSF

A

T transferrin, unique to CSF

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26
Q

What does a normal CSF protein pattern look

A

has a Beta 2 region of T transferrin,
abnormal- has oligoclonal bands at the end

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27
Q

What is the normal total volume of CSF in adults
and neonates?

A

adults: 85-150mL
neonates: 10-60mL

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28
Q

What is the normal CSF glucose range?
lactate?
protein?
serum albumin?
WBC and RBC?

A

glucose: 50-80
lactate: 10-22
protein: 15-45
serum albumin: <9
IgG index 0.30-0.7
WBCs 0-5
RBCs not present

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29
Q

What is the most common cause of blood and plasma proteins in CSF

A

traumatic punture

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30
Q

What does an increased IgG in CSF mean?

A

multiple sclerosis

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31
Q

What does a decreased CSF glucose mean

A

could be meningitis in 50% of people how decreased glucose

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32
Q

What do lactate levels indicate about meningitis

A

low lactate- viral
high lactate- other causes

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33
Q

What is the function of semen

A

transportation of sperm

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34
Q

What is the function of the testes

A

keep temp for sperm
secrete sperm and testosterone
regulate follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

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35
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells

A

regulate sperm production

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36
Q

What is the function of interstitial cells of Leydig

A

production and secretion of testosterone

37
Q

What is the path of semen in the reproduction tract starting in the testes

A

testes (sertoli cells)
Epididymus
vas deferens
ejactulatory ducts
prostate gland
urethra

38
Q

What temp should semen specimen be kept at

A

warmed to body temp, received within 1 hour

39
Q

What does normal sperm look like

A

gray-white opalescent, watery, coagulum liquifies within 30 min, any more than 60 min is abnormal

40
Q

What is the normal ejaculate volume

A

2-5mL

41
Q

What is a sperm motility test

A

50% + sperm should be moving and show forward progression

42
Q

What is the normal sperm concentration

A

20-250 million sperm/ mL

43
Q

What dilution is used on sperm counts

A

1: 20

44
Q

What is included in a sperm count

A

the total number of sperm in the entire ejaculate

45
Q

What is the sperm count formula

A

sperm count= sperm concentration x volume of ejaculate

46
Q

What is the sperm morphology test

A

looks at measurement of sperm head length, width, circumference and area

47
Q

What are the 3 distinct areas of sperm

A

head midpiece, tail

48
Q

What is the normal head size of a sperm

A

1.5-1.75 length to width ratio

49
Q

What a sperm vitality test

A

looking for live vs deaad sperm
those who take up stain are dead
those who do not take up stain are alive

50
Q

What stain is used for vitality test

A

eosin-nigrosin stain

51
Q

What are the normal results for vitality

A

50%+ should be alive, do not take up stain

52
Q

What is the normal pH of sperm

A

7.2-7.8

53
Q

What is the acid phosphatase sperm test

A

should be in high concentrations, can be used to determine if rape occurred

54
Q

What is in seminal vesicle fluid

A

makes up 70% of ejaculate and is high in flavin

55
Q

What is in prostatic fluid

A

makes up 25% of ejaculate
made of citiric acid, enzymes, proteins, zinc

56
Q

What component of ejaculate
allows if to coagulate
allows for liquification
is used to evaluate prostate function

A

proteins
proteolytic enzymes
zinc

57
Q

What is the most commonly performed fecal test in chemistry

A

occult blood

58
Q

What is occult blood used for

A

to find colorectal cancer

59
Q

What is steatorrhea

A

increased fecal lipids

60
Q

What is the main function of the SI

A

digestion and absorption of foodstuffs

61
Q

What is the main function of the LI

A

absorption of water, sodium and chloride

62
Q

What is scybala

A

small hard sperical masses in poop

63
Q

What causes constipation

A

too much water absorbed from slow moving feces

64
Q

What causes watery stools / diarrhea

A

too much water or not enough absorption

65
Q

Diarrhea with increased solute secretions

A

secretory diarrhea

66
Q

Diarrhea with increased osmotically active solutes in the intestinal lumen

A

osmotic diarrhea

67
Q

Diarrhea with increase in intestinal motility

A

intestinal hypermotility

68
Q

What is maldigestion? and malabsorption? what do each indicate

A

maldigestion- cant convert food into absorbable materials, could be pancreatic and hepatic disease

malabsorption- can digest but can’t absorb processed food, could be parasitic, mucosal, hereditary, drugs, surgery

69
Q

What is acute diarrhea? and chronic?

A

within 1-2 weeks
more than 4 weeks

70
Q

What does chronic bloody diarrhea indicate
and chronic watery diarrhea?

A

bloody- IBD, ulcerative colitis of Chron’s
watery- celiac, tropical sprue and colitis

71
Q

What does it mean if diarrhea ceases upon fasting?
What does it mean if diarrhea persists despite fasting?

A

fasting- malabsorption or digestion- pancreatic disease, lactose intolerance
non fasting- secretory issue

72
Q

pale, greasy, bulky, spongy, pasty and very foul smelling poop

A

steatorrhea

73
Q

What is fecal fat determination for?

A

to differentiate steatorrhea from diarrhea

74
Q

What gives stool its color

A

bile pigments, urobilins

75
Q

What is acholic stool?

A

pale or clay colored, caused by inhibited bile secretion

76
Q

What is a fecal WBC test

A

to see if WBC in feces, could indicate inflammation
detect lactoferrin

77
Q

noninflammatory diarrheal conditions do Not have ____

A

neutrophils

78
Q

What is a qualitative fecal fat test?
and quantitative?

A

qualitative- microscopic test, looks for orange to red color- neutral fats like triglycerides
quantitative- measures total fecal fat content

79
Q

What does it mean to have a normal neutral fecal fat test and increased total fat

A

malabsorption

80
Q

What does it mean to have an increased neutral fat in the first slide?

A

maldigestion

81
Q

What is creatorrhea

A

increased fecal meat fivers- related to impaired digestion
undigested food

82
Q

How to tell if there is bleeding in the upper GI tract ?
and in the lower GI tract?

A

upper- dark mahogany colored stool
lower- bright red coating surface of stool

83
Q

What is melena

A

dark or black stool due to presence of blood

84
Q

What is the Apt fecal test

A

hemoglobin in feces

85
Q

What is the percent of fat retention formula

A

percent fat retention = dietary fat- fecal fat/ dietary fat x 100

86
Q

What is the lactose intolerance test

A

if lactose intolerance pH is decreased

87
Q

What is the oral tolerance test

A

test to see if there is an enzyme deficiency in intestines

88
Q

What is the FOBT

A

looks for bleeding only in lower GI tract