Exam 4 Flashcards
(95 cards)
1
Q
The hypothalamus secretes hormone _________ that stimulates the release of hormone __________ from the anterior pituitary. This hormone then acts on the adrenal glands to secrete _________ and __________.
A
CRH; ACTH; Cortisol; aldosterone
2
Q
What is the function of aldosterone?
A
Functions in fluid balance and blood pressure
3
Q
What is the function of cortisol?
A
Acts in blood sugar regulation, increases fat storage, and acts in immune function and stress
4
Q
What type of hormones does the cortex of the adrenal glands secrete?
A
Steroid hormones
5
Q
What type of hormones does the medulla of the adrenal glands secrete?
A
Catecholamines
6
Q
What are the three types of catecholamines?
A
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
7
Q
What is the function of epinephrine?
A
This is adrenaline. It is used to regulate heart rate, blood vessel and air passage diameter, and metabolic shifts. Used to prevent anaphylactic shock
8
Q
What is the function of norepinephrine?
A
This is noradrenaline. It heightens awareness and quick thinking. Used to treat hypotension caused by myocardial infarction.
9
Q
What is the function of dopamine?
A
Present in every type of reward response.
10
Q
What device is used to prevent anaphylactic shock?
A
The Epi Pen
11
Q
What is adrenarche?
A
The awakening of the adrenal glands that occurs between 6-8 yrs of age in both girls and boys.
12
Q
What is menarche?
A
The onset of menstruation in XX individuals.
13
Q
What enzyme converts testosterone to estrogen?
A
Aromatase
14
Q
What are the two pools of calcium that the body donates and pulls from?
A
Stable calcium pool and labile calcium pool
15
Q
What is the stable calcium pool?
A
This is the slow exchange due to bone remodeling.
16
Q
What is the labile calcium pool?
A
Rapid exchange from the readily available pool in the bone fluid.
17
Q
What two cell types regulate the stable calcium pool?
A
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
18
Q
What do osteoblasts do?
A
Form new bone
19
Q
What do osteoclasts do?
A
Breakdown/reabsorb bone
20
Q
What is the function of osteocytes?
A
They are embedded in the bone and act as permanent osteoblasts. They transfer calcium from the bone fluid to the plasma.
21
Q
What portion of the bone stores bone fluid and free calcium?
A
Canaliculi
22
Q
What are the five hormonal regulators of bone mineral homeostasis?
A
Parathyroid Hormone, Vitamin D, Estrogen, calcitonin, and glucocorticoids
23
Q
What are the three nonhormonal regulators of bone mineral homeostasis?
A
Bisphosphonates, fluoride, and calcimimetics
24
Q
What is the function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
A
Stimulates the release of calcium from bone. Decreases loss of calcium from kidneys nd increase reabsorption in the intestines. Raises serum concentration of calcium.
25
What is the function of vitamin D in bone homeostasis?
Vitamin D3 formation in humans requires exposure to UV radiation. Deficiencies in this cause softening of bones which is rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.
Also helps to bone to absorb calcium.
26
What is the function of estrogen in bone homeostasis?
Estrogen stimulates calcium uptake by bone. Loss of estrogen at menopause can cause osteoporosis.
27
What is the function of bisphosphonates in bone homeostasis?
This mediates apoptosis in osteoclasts which are the cells that breakdown bone.
28
How is osteoporosis treated?
Inhibit osteoclasts with bisphosphonates and activate osteoblast activity with a selective estrogen receptor modulator like Raloxifene. Could also use tamoxifen.
29
Drugs to treat osteoporosis?
Raloxifene or Tamoxifen
30
What are the three types of steroid hormones that the adrenal cortex secretes?
Aldosterone, cortisol, and DHEA
31
What is gonadal dysgenesis?
When genetic sex and appearance do not match.
32
XX individuals have experienced no _____________ allowing Wolffian ducts to bilaterally regress into _________ female genitalia.
Mullerian Inhibiting Hormone, internal
33
If testosterone is expressed and then converted to DHT after XX is already established, the individual will have _______ male genitalia and ________ female genitalia.
External, Internal
34
Female internal genitalia?
Uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix, and upper 1/3 of vaginal canal
35
Female external genitalia?
Lower 2/3 of vaginal canal, labia, and clitoris
36
Sex hormone synthesis control?
GnRH is released from the hypothalamus, which stimulates the release of gonadotrophs from the anterior pituitary. Gonadotrophs act on the ovaries to release FSH and LH.
37
What type of cells does FSH act on in women?
FSH acts on granulose cells to release estradiol (E2).
38
What types of cells does LH act on in XX individuals?
LH acts on thecal cells to release progesterone and testosterone.
39
_______ follicles are recruited at the beginning of cycle. Due to increased levels of FSH, these follicles grow into primary and then secondary follicles. These follicles now have _______ cells and _______ cells that FSH and LH can bind to.
Primordial, granulosa, thecal
40
The secondary follicle becomes a ________ follicle, also known as a tertiary follicle. We are starting to see an increase in FSH and LH, causing an increase in _________, which causes the proliferation of the endometrium.
Antral, estrogen
41
There is now a vast LH surge that causes __________ where the Graafian follicle ruptures and a secondary oocyte is released. LH surge also tells thecal cells to secrete ________. This surge drives the formation of the corpus luteum.
Ovulation, progesterone
42
The progesterone surge allows for ____________
Maintenance of endometrium to support possible embryo implantation.
43
Finally, the luteal phase begins, and the ________ _________ is formed. It secretes progesterone and estradiol. It then regresses as there is a decrease in progesterone to corpus Albicans. A decrease in the progesterone levels causes the slough of the endometrial lining, causing a ________ cycle.
Corpus luteum, menstrual
44
If fertilization does occur, the cells secrete _______ to save the corpus luteum and continue secreting progesterone and estradiol.
hCG
45
Margaret Sanger and Katharine Mccormick founded Planned Parenthood and funded the creation of the _______.
pill
46
The pill is a combination of _________ and progesterone.
Estrogen
47
How does the pill work?
The pill blocks the LH surge, ovulation and endometrial proliferation and differentiation.
48
What is the function of the drug Clomiphene?
It controls fertility by increasing the LH surge's size and the number of oocytes that ovulate.
49
What is the difference between the pill (combination oral contraceptives/ COCs) and Minipills ( Progesterone only pills/ POPs)?
The pill is a combination of estrogen and progesterone while minipills are only progesterone.
50
What is the Depo-Provera Injection?
Injection of progesterone as a form of birth control
51
Why do we always combine estrogen with progesterone in the pill?
Estrogen alone increases the risk of uterine cancer, but progesterone inhibits these actions in the uterus.
52
How do minipills/ POPs work?
Increases the viscosity of cervical mucous preventing sperm penetration.
53
How does the surgically implanted device Nexplanon work?
This is just progesterone. It functions by preventing ovulation through negative feedback of FSH and LH. It also thickens cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration and thins the uterine wall, so implantation of the fertilized egg is less likely.
54
What is tubal ligation?
This is when the fallopian tubes are cut, tied, and blocked to permanently prevent pregnancy.
55
How does a copper IUD work?
Surgically inserted into uterus. Copper alters cervical viscosity to make it more difficult for sperm to penetrate
56
How does a hormonal IUD work?
A hormonal IUD like Levonorgestrel is a progestin that thickens cervical mucous and thins the lining of the uterus.
57
What hormone is in the morning-after pill called Plan B?
Levonorgestrel in a high dose of 1.5 mg. Needs to be used within 72 hours of intercourse
58
What hormone is in the morning-after pill called Ella?
Ulipristal. Can be used up to 5 days after intercourse.
59
What is the hormone used in the abortafacient drug RU-486?
Mifepristone. Approved up to 49 days of gestation.
60
What are the side effects of estrogen decline when XX individuals approach menopause?
Infertility, hot flashes, night sweats, and osteoporosis
61
Where is the hormone Placental Lactogen released from?
Placenta
62
Where is Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) released from?
Anterior pituitary gland
63
Where is Mullerian Inhibiting Hormone and AntiMullerian Hormone released from?
The developing testes
64
In XY individuals, FSH binds to ______ cells while LH binds to ______ cells.
Sertoli; Leydig
65
What is the enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT?
5 alpha-reductase
66
In-utero, XY individuals release Mullerian inhibiting hormone to make themselves internally male. Testes then make testosterone be converted to __________ to become externally male.
DHT
67
What are the two types of 5 Alpha-Reductase?
Type 1 is in the liver and skin during adulthood. Type 2 is in the urogenital tract and Liver. Deficiencies in type 2 cause ambiguous gender identification at birth ( typically female). At puberty, the testosterone released is converted to DHT to allow for a transition to male gender assignment.
68
Does DHT or testosterone have a higher Kd value?
DHT has a Kd value 1000 fold time lower than testosterone meaning DHT is 1000 times for potent than testosterone.
69
What is cut in a vasectomy?
Vas Deferens
70
Seminiferous tubules have Sertoli cells inside them, which is what ________ acts on to stimulate spermatogenesis. They also have Leydig cells between tubules that ________ acts on to stimulate the release of testosterone.
FSH; LH
71
Inhibition of androgen action is effective in the treatment of what conditions?
Carcinoma of the prostate (DHT dependent), Acne (T dependent), Male pattern baldness (DHT and T dependent), Hirsutism in females, Precocious puberty in boys (T dependent), and decreased sex drive in sex offenders (T dependent).
72
The prostate never sees enough testosterone to become cancerous. It does see enough ______ to become cancerous though.
DHT
73
The more effective the androgen receptor, the _________ the risk of prostate cancer.
higher
74
There are inherited differences in the structure of the androgen receptor, which results in differences in responses to _______ and _________.
Testosterone and DHT
75
The fewer number of _______ repeats in the Androgen Receptor gene, the more effective the androgen receptor.
CAG
76
________ gives negative feedback and inhibits the release of more ________
Testosterone; GnRH
77
What is Leuprolide?
This is a GnRH agonist that will initially increase the serum concentration of LH and FSH. Long term, it will decrease levels of testosterone and DHT. Used in prostate cancer, precocious puberty, and endometriosis.
78
What is Finasteride?
A synthetic analogue of testosterone that acts as a competitive selective inhibitor of type 2 5 alpha-reductaese in the prostate, seminal vesicles, epididymis, and hair follicles. Used in prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and alopecia.
79
What is flutamide?
Blocks the negative feedback in the hypothalamic/pituitary axis. Increases serum LH by increasing the GnRH pulse frequency. Eventually, T levels rise, which makes its inhibition action compromised. Best used in combination with GnRH or Leuprolide to decrease DHT/T action.
80
What is flutamide used for?
Nonsteroidal anti-androgen is used as an anti-hormone in the treatment of metastatic prostatic carcinoma.
81
Androgel and Testim are the topical skin gels that contain ________.
Testosterone
82
What are the two limiting factors in endurance muscle function?
1. Delivering oxygen
2. Removal of CO2
83
How do we measure red blood cell count?
Centrifuge blood and look at hematocrit, which is the percentage of blood volume that is made up by red blood cells/
84
What is blood doping?
More red blood cells means more aerobic capacity.
85
What is Erythropoietin (EPO)?
EPO is naturally produced by the kidneys and binds to erythroid progenitors in the bone marrow to stimulate the survival, proliferation, and differentiation of red blood cells.
86
How can one die from raising their hematocrit levels?
During exercise, the fluid from the vascular compartment moves into the muscle beds being used. This lead to a rise in hematocrit levels causing an increase in the viscosity of blood. It has caused heart failure in those who dope.
87
What are three ways to get your hematocrit levels up?
1. Doping- blood transfusion
2. EPO
3. Altitude training
88
What are some negative side effects of using anabolic steroids to increase strength?
Baldness, severe acne, liver damage, mood swings, impotence, reduced sperm count, etc
89
What are anabolic steroids used for?
Increasing strength and muscle mass
90
What is myostatin?
This is a protein secreted that suppresses too much growth and differentiation of muscle cells. Mutations of this gene can inhibit myostatin causing natural but uncontrolled muscle growth.
91
What are Adderall and Ritalin supposed to be used for?
Adderall and Ritalin are typically prescribed to those with ADHD, but some use them to increase their concentration. However, there is no evidence that these drugs help improve test scores.
92
What is the drug Propranolol used for?
This is a non-selective beta blocker that is used to treat hypertension, anxiety, and panic attacks.
93
How does the drug Propranolol function?
Counters flight or fight response by blocking the action of epinephrine and norepinephrine on beta 1 +2 adrenergic receptors.
94
What is stanozolol?
Synthetic anabolic steroid derived from DHT. Sold under the name Winstrol
95
What is androstenedione?
Androgen converted directly to testosterone.
