Exam 4: Drugs 1 Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

Heparin (Unfractionated)

A

Indirect thrombin inhibitor; interacts with BOTH antithrombin and Xa
Produces more antithrombin = blocking thrombin from being produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Reversal for heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 Indirect Thrombin Inhibitors

A
  1. Heparin
  2. LMW Heparin
  3. Fondapurinux
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LMW Heparin

A

More purified; more specific for Xa
-parin drugs
Protamine sulfate = less effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fondapurinux

A

Pentasaccharide (same found in heparin)
Only activates antithrombin
No effect from protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 Direct thrombin inhibitors

A
  1. Lepirudin (Hirudin)
  2. Argatroban (Pradaxa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Indirect thrombin inhibitors MOA

A

Work on proteins that activate thrombin; usually Xa and antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Direct Thrombin inhibitors MOA

A

Bind to active sites on thrombin itself to prevent fibrin clot from forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lepirudin (Hirudin)

A

Produced from leeches and recombinant; prevents compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Argatroban/Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A

produced from biological sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 Coumarin anticoagulants

A
  1. Warfarin (Coumadin)
  2. Ribaroxaban (Xarelto)
  3. Apixaban (Eliquis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Warfarin

A

Oral anticoag; blocks vitamin K reductase = preventing gamma carboxylation of glutamate residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which clotting factors does warfarin block?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and Apixaban (eliquis)

A

Block vitamin K reductase; specific for Xa; less problems w/ bleeding out
No reversal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3 fibrinolytics

A
  1. tPA
  2. Streptokinase
  3. Urokinase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tPA

A

tissue plasminogen activators; produced in spot of damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Streptokinase

A

synthesized by streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Urokinase

A

synthesized by kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fibrinolytics

A

Encourage plasmin formation from plasminogen = lyses thrombi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 antiplatelets

A
  1. ASA
  2. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
  3. Abciximab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aspirin

A

COX 1 selective; prevents activation of arachidonic acid cascade = less TXA2 produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A

irreversibly inhibits ADP receptor on plts; reduces plt aggregation
used w/ angioplasty/stent placements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Abciximab

A

target IIb/IIIa glycoproteins that cause plt aggregation; blocks receptors and block aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3 drugs used in bleeding disorders

A
  1. Vitamin K
  2. FFP
  3. Desmopressin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
2 fibrinolytic inhibitors
1. Aminocaproic acid 2. Tranexamic acid (TXA2)
26
4 types of insulin
1. Rapid-acting 2. Short-acting (regular) 3. Intermediate-acting 4. Long acting
27
3 rapid-acting insulin drugs
1. Lispro 2. Aspart. 3. Glulisine
28
2 short-acting insulin drugs
1. Novolin 2. Humulin
29
1 intermediate acting insulin drug
1. Neutral protamine hagedorn
30
2 long-acting insulin drugs
1. Glargine 2. Detemir
31
Biguanides (1 drug)
2 guanines joined end to end Metformin
32
Metformin
First line therapy for non-insulin dependent DM
33
2 insulin secretagogues
1. Sulfonylurea (1st and 2nd generation)2. 2. Thiazolidinediones
34
Sulfonylureas
bind to potassium channels and release more insulin via calcium coming into the cell and binding to cells containing insulin and releasing more insulin
35
Thazolidinediones
Inc. insulin resistance; inc. insulin signal transduction via PPAR pathway Bind to receptors and inc. likelihood that cells respond better to insulin
36
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (1)
1. Acarbose
37
Bile acid binding resin (BABR) (work in 2 different disease pathways)
Diabetes & dyslipidemia Large resin gloop that prevents glucose from being reabsorbed by blocking it;
38
Amylin analog
amylin is released by beta cells and suppresses glucagon release (decreases circulating glucose); taken w/ insulin usually
39
Incretin-based therapies (3)
1. Semaglutide 2. Sitagliptin 3. Gliflozin
40
Semaglutide
Inc. GLP-1; stimulates insulin release & inhibits glucagon release
41
Sitagliptin
Blocks DDP-4 (which breaks down GLP-1); stimulates more insulin release
42
Gliflozin
SGLT-2 inhibitors -flozin drugs prevent glucose uptake in PCT
43
Dyslipidemia drugs (2 major ones)
1. Statins 2. Niacin
44
Fibrates (1)
1. Gemfibrozil
45
Inhibitors of intestinal Sterol absorption
1. Ezetimibe
46
PCSK9 Inhibitors
Evolocumab
47
MAIN NSAID
Aspirin
48
COX 2 selective inhibitors (2)
1. Celecoxib 2. Meloxicam
49
Non-selective COX inhibitors (6)
1. Diclofenac 2. Ibuprofen 3. Indomethacin 4. Ketorolac 5. Acetaminophen 6. Glucocorticoids
50
DMARDS (disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs) (3)
1. Abatacept 2. Rituximab 3. Adalimumab
51
Abatacept
blocks t cell activation
52
Rituximab
depletes b-lymphocytes
53
Adalimumab
anti-TNF alpha
54
Phenanthrenes (opioids) (5/6)
1. Morphine 2. Dilaudid 3. Codeine 4. Oxycodone 5. Percadan/Percocet
55
Phenylheptylamines (1)
Methadone
56
Phenylpiperidines (3)
1. Fentanyl 2. Meperidine (demerol) 3. Tramadol
57
Buprenorphine
opioid abuse; partial opioid agonist
58
Butorphanol
post-op shivering; partial opioid agonist
59
Dextromethorphan
antitussive; weak opioid agonist
60
Derivatives of morphine (3)
1. Naloxone 2. Naltrexone 3. Naloxegol
61
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (6)
1. Penicillin 2. Ampicillin 3. Amoxicillin 4. Cephalosporin 5. Carbepenem 6. Vanco
62
Disruption of cell membrane (2)
1. Polymyxin 2. Daptomycin
63
Inhibition of protein synthesis (2 groups)
Tetracyclines and Macrolides
64
Macrolides (3)
1. Erythromycin 2. Azithromycin 3. Neomycin
65
Erythromycin
prototype drug
66
azithromycin
semi-synthetic derivatable
67
neomycin
triple antibiotic; topical
68
inhibition of nuclein acid synthesis (2)
1. Rifamycin 2. Ciprofloxacin (cipro)
69
Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
Sulfonamides
70
Ketoconazole
antifungal; cream for cell membrane
71
Lamisil
topical dermatophytes
72
Antiprotazoan agents (2)
1. Hydroxychloroquine 2. Metronidazole
73
Hydoxychloroquine
malaria
74
Metronidazole
giardia, trichomonas
75
Parasidic worms (3)
1. niclosamide 2. Ivermectin 3. Permethrin
76
Nicolsamide
tapeworms
77
Ivermectin
river blindness roundworm; vet care COVID drug?
78
permethrin
lice
79
Antivirals (5)
1. Acyclovir 2. Azidothymidine (AZT) 3. Lamivudine 4. Cabotegrovir 5. Interferon
80
Flu drugs (3)
1. Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu) 2. Zanamivir (Relenza) 3. Baloxivir marboxil (Xofluza)
81
COVID drugs (4)
1. Paxlovid 2. Remdesivir 3. COVID Mabs 4. Dexamethasone