Exam #4 (PART 2) Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva?
a. infectious mononucleosis
b. rabies
c. plague
d. yellow fever
e. a and b
A
a. infectious mononucleosis
b. rabies
2
Q
The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the
a. gut canal. b. oral cavity. c. grand canal. d. alimentary canal.
A
d. alimentary canal.
3
Q
Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called
a. dental caries. b. dental plaque. c. halitosis. d. periodontal disease.
A
b. dental plaque.
4
Q
The most common infectious disease of humans is
a. the common cold. b. dental caries. c. hepatitis A. d. halitosis
A
b. dental caries.
5
Q
The principal cause of dental caries is
a. S. mutans.
b. S. salivarius.
c. S. mitis.
d. S. sanguis.
A
a. S. mutans.
6
Q
Part of the ability of S. mutans to produce dental caries depends on its ability to
a. invade plaque and dissolve the gums. b. convert sucrose to lactic acid. c. convert proteins to sugars. d. attach to the gums.
A
b. convert sucrose to lactic acid.
7
Q
This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid.
a. calcium
b. chlorine
c. chloramine
d. fluoride
A
d. fluoride
8
Q
The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called
a. dental caries. b. periodontal disease. c. dental plaque. d. root caries.
A
b. periodontal disease.
9
Q
H. pylori is, in part, able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce
a. lactic acid from sugar. b. fatty acids from sebum. c. neutralizing proteins from glucans. d. ammonia from urea.
A
d. ammonia from urea
10
Q
H. pylori appears to have some connection with
a. acid reflux disease. b. ulcers. c. dental caries. d. stomach cancer. e. b and d
A
e. b and d
11
Q
Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious non-replicating, form of the herpes simplex virus persist?
a. motor neurons
b. red blood cells
c. cranial nerves
d. sensory nerves
A
d. sensory nerves
12
Q
A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n)
a. finger sore. b. abrasion lesion. c. furuncle. d. herpetic whitlow.
A
d. herpetic whitlow.
13
Q
Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection?
a. AZT b. protease inhibitors c. acyclovir d. cephalosporin
A
c. acyclovir
14
Q
The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is
a. measles.
b. herpes.
c. chickenpox.
d. mumps.
A
d. mumps.
15
Q
Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to
a. Vibrio spp.
b. C. jejuni.
c. Salmonella spp.
d. enterobacteria.
e. all of the above
A
e. all of the above
16
Q
The initial attachment required for establishment of a bacterial intestinal infection is by
a. flagella.
b. cilia.
c. pseudopodia.
d. pili.
A
d. pili.
17
Q
The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically
a. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
b. modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
c. modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.
d. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis.
e. a and b
A
a. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis.
b. modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.
18
Q
Cholera is the classic example of a(n)
a. food-borne illness. b. zoonosis. c. opportunist. d. very severe form of diarrhea.
A
d. very severe form of diarrhea.
19
Q
The diarrhea of cholera has been described as
a. a viscous fluid. b. small in volume. c. somewhat watery. d. a rice water stool.
A
d. a rice water stool.
20
Q
The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of
a. an endotoxin. b. modified mucus. c. flagella. d. an exotoxin.
A
d. an exotoxin.
21
Q
A common source of cholera infection is
a. acid rain. b. unpasteurized milk. c. fecal contaminated material, especially water. d. boiled water. e. a and d
A
c. fecal contaminated material, especially water.
22
Q
The primary treatment for cholera is
a. the administration of antibiotics. b. vaccination. c. by blood transfusion. d. simply rehydration. e. b and c
A
d. simply rehydration.
23
Q
Shigella and cholera toxin both
a. have an A-B arrangement. b. work through ADP ribosylation. c. increase cAMP levels. d. prevent protein synthesis.
A
a. have an A-B arrangement.
24
Q
Shigella
a. are themselves nonmotile. b. may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails. c. utilize pili to move. d. utilize flagella to move. e. a and b
A
a. are themselves nonmotile.
b. may be pushed from cell to cell by actin tails.
25
Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli?
a. enterotoxigenic
b. enteroinvasive
c. enteropathogenic
d. enterohemorrhagic
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
26
Which of the following groups give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.?
a. enterotoxigenic
b. enteroinvasive
c. enteropathogenic
d. enterohemorrhagic
e. all of the above
b. enteroinvasive
27
Which group produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae?
a. enterotoxigenic
b. enteroinvasive
c. enteropathogenic
d. enterohemorrhagic
e. all of the above
c. enteropathogenic
28
V. cholera and most salmonellas are
a. killed by acid conditions.
b. stimulated by acid conditions.
c. killed by low concentrations of salt.
d. killed by neutral conditions.
a. killed by acid conditions.
29
Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n)
a. water source.
b. human source.
c. plant source.
d. animal source.
d. animal source.
30
The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are
a. meat and seafood.
b. milk and cheese.
c. fruit and vegetables.
d. eggs and poultry.
d. eggs and poultry.
31
The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are
a. turtles.
b. iguanas.
c. baby chickens.
d. ducks.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
32
In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria?
a. liver
b. gallbladder
c. Peyer’s patches
d. colon
e. a and c
b. gallbladder
33
The most notorious typhoid carrier was
a. Typhoid Tilly.
b. Typhoid Tom.
c. Typhoid Mary.
d. Typhoid Mark.
c. Typhoid Mary.
34
Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions?
a. E. coli
b. Pseudomonas
c. S. aureus
d. C. jejuni
d. C. jejuni
35
A mysterious sequel to C. jejuni infections is
a. Reye’s syndrome.
b. Tourette’s syndrome.
c. Pasteur’s syndrome.
d. Guillian-Barré syndrome.
d. Guillian-Barré syndrome.
36
The animal(s) most often associated with C. jejuni is/are
a. turtles.
b. iguanas.
c. chickens.
d. ducks.
e. all of the above
c. chickens.
37
Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by
a. herpes.
b. hepatitis b.
c. Norwalk virus.
d. rotavirus.
d. rotavirus.
38
Hepatitis A spreads via
a. the respiratory route.
b. blood transfusion.
c. body fluids.
d. the fecal-oral route.
d. the fecal-oral route.
39
HBV is mainly spread by
a. blood.
b. blood products.
c. semen.
d. saliva.
e. a, b and c
a. blood.
b. blood products.
c. semen.
40
T/F The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans.
TRUE
41
T/F Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries.
TRUE
42
T/F H. pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers.
TRUE
43
T/F The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.
TRUE
44
T/F The infectious dose of cholera is much larger than that for Shigella
TRUE
45
The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows
a. E. coli.
b. S. aureus.
c. P. vulgaris.
d. no bacteria.
e. a and b
d. no bacteria.
46
Viral gastroenteritis in children and adults is most commonly caused by
a. herpes.
b. hepatitis B.
c. Norwalk virus.
d. rotavirus.
d. rotavirus.
47
The normal flora of the lower urethra may show
a. Lactobacillus.
b. Staphylococcus.
c. Corynebacterium.
d. Bacteroides.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
48
The normal flora of the genital tract of women is
a. affected by estrogen levels.
b. dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
c. unchanging.
d. typically composed of E. coli.
e. a and b
a. affected by estrogen levels.
| b. dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.
49
Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of
a. placental insufficiency.
b. being unable to nurse.
c. being unable to deliver vaginally.
d. having a premature baby.
d. having a premature baby.
50
The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is
a. trichomoniasis.
b. candidiasis.
c. amoebiasis.
d. bacterial vaginosis.
d. bacterial vaginosis.
51
Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are
a. sexual promiscuity.
b. intense antibacterial treatment.
c. disruption of normal flora.
d. the use of oral contraceptives.
e. b, c and d
e. b, c and d
52
Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of
a. bacterial vaginosis.
b. puerperal fever.
c. toxic shock syndrome.
d. gas gangrene.
e. a and b
c. toxic shock syndrome.
53
Gonococci are parasites of
a. cows.
b. iguanas.
c. sheep.
d. humans.
e. a and c
d. humans.
54
Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by
a. pili.
b. flagella.
c. cilia.
d. actin bridges.
e. b and c
a. pili.
55
Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to
a. sterility.
b. urinary tract infections.
c. prostatic abscesses.
d. orchitis.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
56
A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is
a. pelvic inflammatory disease.
b. syphilis.
c. dysuria.
d. vaginal discharge.
a. pelvic inflammatory disease.
57
The treatment of neonates with drops of erythromycin directly into the eyes is to prevent
a. viral conjunctivitis.
b. cataracts.
c. herpes.
d. ophthalmia neonatorum.
d. ophthalmia neonatorum.
58
Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. Treponema pallidum
d. E. coli
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
59
The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis attaching to sperm and then possibly ascending into the fallopian tubes is
a. conjunctivitis.
b. neonatorum ophthalmia.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. trachoma.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
60
The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)
a. reticulate body.
b. elementary body.
c. primary element.
d. core body.
b. elementary body.
61
The causative agent of syphilis is
a. papilloma virus.
b. Neisseria gonorrheae.
c. Chlamydia trachomatis.
d. Treponema pallidum.
d. Treponema pallidum.
62
Which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages?
a. gonorrhea
b. syphilis
c. trachoma
d. non-gonococcal urethritis
b. syphilis
63
The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body’s
a. intense inflammatory response.
b. antibody response.
c. rejection of the invaded tissue.
d. septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.
a. intense inflammatory response.
64
During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fifth
c. third
65
In which disease is a gumma formed?
a. primary syphilis
b. secondary gonorrhea
c. tertiary syphilis
d. diphtheria
c. tertiary syphilis
66
T. pallidum can cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus during which stage of pregnancy?
a. first trimester.
b. second trimester.
c. third trimester.
d. any stage.
d. any stage.
67
The reservoir of T. pallidum is the
a. guinea pig.
b. fox.
c. bat.
d. human.
d. human.
68
The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by
a. sexual or oral contact.
b. contact with contaminated objects.
c. clothing.
d. the fecal-oral route.
a. sexual or oral contact.
69
The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is
a. chancroid.
b. syphilis.
c. gonorrhea.
d. trachoma.
a. chancroid.
70
The usual cause of genital herpes is
a. herpes simplex virus type 1.
b. herpes simplex virus type 2.
c. herpes simplex virus type 3.
d. herpes simplex virus type 4.
b. herpes simplex virus type 2.
71
Which of the following organisms maintains a latent state in nerve cells?
a. herpes virus.
b. hepatitis A virus.
c. Norwalk virus.
d. rotavirus.
a. herpes virus.
72
The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are
a. penicillin.
b. erythromycin.
c. acyclovir.
d. famciclovir.
e. c and d
e. c and d
73
Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers?
a. chancroid
b. rubeola
c. herpes
e. a and c
a. chancroid
74
The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is
a. human papilloma virus.
b. herpes virus.
c. human immunodeficiency virus.
d. leptospirosis.
a. human papilloma virus.
75
Human papilloma virus is
a. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
b. a small, enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
c. a large, enveloped double-stranded RNA virus.
d. a small, non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.
a. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
76
Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer?
a. gonorrhea
b. genital warts
c. syphilis
d. chancroid
b. genital warts
77
The human immunodeficiency virus is
a. non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
b. enveloped double-stranded DNA virus.
c. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.
d. non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.
c. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus.
78
HIV attacks
a. red blood cells.
b. nerve cells.
c. platelets.
d. T helper cells.
d. T helper cells.
79
HIV typically attaches to
a. protein A.
b. C3b.
c. C5a.
d. CD4.
d. CD4.
80
HIV adversely affects
a. red blood cells.
b. nerve cells.
c. phagocytes.
d. T helper cells.
e. c and d
c. phagocytes.
| d. T helper cells.
81
One of the Treatments of HIV attempts to
a. block reverse transcriptase activity.
b. block host protein synthesis.
c. enhance transferrin synthesis.
d. digest the integrated viral nucleic acid.
a. block reverse transcriptase activity.
82
Treatment of HIV attempts to
a. block reverse transcriptase activity.
b. block host protein synthesis.
c. enhance transferrin synthesis.
d. block viral protease activity.
e. a and d
e. a and d
83
Trichomoniasis is caused by a
a. fungus.
b. virus.
c. bacteria.
d. protozoan.
d. protozoan.
84
Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it
a. has chloroplasts.
b. lacks mitochondria.
c. has flagella.
d. lacks a nuclear membrane.
b. lacks mitochondria.
85
A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time
a. 10%.
b. 30%.
c. 60%.
d. 100%.
c. 60%.
86
HIV may be present in
a. blood.
b. sweat.
c. tears.
d. vaginal secretions
e. a,b,d.
e. a,b,d.
87
HPV
a. can integrate into the host’s chromosome.
b. may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.
c. infections always lead to cancer.
d. cannot infect newborns at birth.
e. a,b
e. a,b
88
Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae
a. secretes transferrin.
b. destroys IgA.
c. destroys IgM.
d. is very immunogenic.
b. destroys IgA.
89
Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,
a. promotes the spread of AIDS.
b. inhibits the spread of AIDS.
c. inhibits the growth of other viral disease.
d. is easily cured with antibiotics.
a. promotes the spread of AIDS.
90
Treponema pallidum
syphilis
91
Neisseria gonorrheae
gonorrhea
92
Haemophilus ducreyi
chancroid
93
Candida albicans
vulvovaginalis
94
T/F Urine is a good growth medium for many species of bacteria
TRUE
95
T/F Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens.
TRUE
96
T/F Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body.
TRUE
97
T/F There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea
repeatedly
TRUE
98
T/F Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS.
FALSE
