Exam 5 Flashcards
(316 cards)
1
Q
The transfer of heat to circulating air such as when cool air moves across the body’s surface, is called:
A) radiation
B) conduction
C) convection
D) evaporation
A
C) convection
2
Q
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called:
A) flexing
B) referring
C) guarding
D) withdrawing
A
C) guarding
3
Q
All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT:
A) immersion foot.
B) frostnip.
C) trench foot.
D) frostbite.
A
D) frostbite.
4
Q
Which of the following statements regarding the “Adam’s apple” is FALSE?
A) It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
B) It is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
C) It is the uppermost part of the larynx.
D) It is more prominent in men than in women.
A
A) It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
5
Q
Lacerations to the scalp:
A) uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in the elderly.
B) are most commonly associated with skull fractures.
C) bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels.
D) might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
A
D) might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
6
Q
Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) kidney.
D) stomach.
A
D) stomach.
7
Q
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
A) veins carry deoxygenated blood.
B) veins hold smaller blood volume.
C) veins are under a lower pressure.
D) blood typically oozes from a vein.
A
C) veins are under a lower pressure.
8
Q
A(n) _____ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child’s bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities.
A) greenstick
B) diaphyseal
C) epiphyseal
D) metaphyseal
A
C) epiphyseal
9
Q
Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:
A) The caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown.
B) The area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet.
C) The bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
D) Exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.
A
C) The bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
10
Q
The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is:
A) a pressure bandage.
B) direct pressure and elevation.
C) a splint.
D) a tourniquet.
A
B) direct pressure and elevation.
11
Q
When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with:
A) spinal trauma.
B) airway compromise.
C) associated eye injuries.
D) severe external bleeding.
A
B) airway compromise.
12
Q
The term “hematuria” is defined as:
A) blood in the stool.
B) blood in the urine.
C) vomiting up blood.
D) urinary bladder rupture.
A
B) blood in the urine.
13
Q
A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue grill over on himself. He has partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned?
A) 18%
B) 27%
C) 36%
D) 45%
A
B) 27%
14
Q
A supracondylar intercondylar facture is also known as a fracture of the:
A) proximal radius.
B) distal humerus.
C) radial head.
D) olecranon process.
A
B) distal humerus.
15
Q
Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury?
A) Asymmetric pupils
B) Pupillary constriction to bright light
C) Both eyes moving in opposite directions
D) Inability to look upward when instructed to
A
B) Pupillary constriction to bright light
16
Q
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain?
A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Autonomic
A
B) Skeletal
17
Q
A 54-year old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:
A) manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
B) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
C) assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
D) gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
A
B) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
18
Q
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
A) systolic blood pressure.
B) poor general appearance.
C) the mechanism of injury.
D) clinical signs and symptoms.
A
A) systolic blood pressure.
19
Q
Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Stomach
D) Gallbladder
A
A) Liver
20
Q
ln contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human:
A) is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner.
B) typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading.
C) carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
D) is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.
A
C) carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
21
Q
Crepitus and false motion are:
A) positive indicators of a fracture.
B) indicators of a severe sprain.
C) only seen with open fractures.
D) most common with dislocation.
A
A) positive indicators of a fracture.
22
Q
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70’F (21’C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called:
A) radiation
B) conduction
C) convection
D) evaporation
A
B) conduction
23
Q
Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because:
A) their chest wall and ribs are very pliable.
B) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
C) they require less tidal volume per breath.
D) there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.
A
B) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
24
Q
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is most indicative of a ruptured:
A) aorta
B) spleen
C) stomach
D) diaphragm
A
D) diaphragm
25
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in:
A) rapid ascent.
B) rapid descent.
C) decompression.
D) barometric pressure.
D) barometric pressure.
26
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
A) localized pain.
B) red areas of skin.
C) gross distention.
D) dark purple marks.
B) red areas of skin.
27
A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Traumatic asphyxia
C) Commotio cordis
D) Hemothorax
C) Commotio cordis
28
During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until:
A) an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed.
B) the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.
C) a range of motion test of the neck has been completed.
D) pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact.
B) the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.
29
To obtain the most accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer:
A) into the patient's rectum.
B) under the patient's tongue.
C) behind the patient's knee.
D) under the patient's armpit.
A) into the patient's rectum.
30
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
A) compression.
B) diving.
C) hangings.
D) falls.
C) hangings.
31
Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) muffled heart tones.
B) a weak, rapid pulse.
C) collapsed jugular veins.
D) narrowing pulse pressure.
C) collapsed jugular veins.
32
Traction splints primarily immobilize and secure fractures of the:
A) hip
B) pelvis
C) femur
D) humerus
C) femur
33
A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. Which type of injury does this describe?
A) Abrasion
B) Contusion
C) Hematoma
D) Avulsion
B) Contusion
34
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, except the:
A) spleen
B) bladder
C) ureters
D) stomach
A) spleen
35
Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) hemoptysis.
B) hematemesis.
C) asymmetric chest movement.
D) increased pain with breathing.
B) hematemesis.
36
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A) Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B) Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C) Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D) Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.
D) Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.
37
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle?
A) Heart
B) Skeleton
C) Blood vessels
D) Diaphragm
C) Blood vessels
38
The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves:
A) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
B) surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged.
C) assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume.
D) placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest.
A) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
39
What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A) Allows flexion of the neck
B) Provides respiration
C) Connects the scapulae together
D) Allows movement of the head
D) Allows movement of the head
40
You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that:
A) there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact.
B) the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone.
C) stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred.
D) the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint.
C) stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred.
41
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
A) deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.
B) quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.
C) use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical.
D) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
D) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
42
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
A) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
B) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant.
C) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
D) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
D) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
43
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
A) The way in which traumatic injuries occur.
B) A predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
C) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
D) The detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
C) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
44
The upper jawbones are called the:
A) mandible
B) mastoid
C) zygoma
D) maxillae
D) maxillae
45
When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, should use the:
A) tongue-jaw lift maneuver,
B) head tilt-neck lift maneuver.
C) head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D) jaw-thrust maneuver.
D) jaw-thrust maneuver.
46
The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:
A) sclera
B) cornea
C) retina
D) conjunctiva
D) conjunctiva
47
What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Muscular layer
D) Subcutaneous layer
B) Epidermis
48
In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever:
A) causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks.
B) can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.
C) presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash.
D) might be confused with rheumatoid arthritis.
B) can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.
49
When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should:
A) dilate.
B) constrict.
C) remain the same size.
D) dilate, and then constrict.
B) constrict.
50
The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _____ nervous system.
A) autonomic
B) sensory
C) voluntary
D) somatic
A) autonomic
51
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia?
A) The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
B) Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water.
C) The core body temperature exceeds 99.5'F (37'C).
D) The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.
A) The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
52
If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged:
A) minute volume will increase.
B) minute volume will decrease.
C) minute volume will remain unchanged.
D) excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
B) minute volume will decrease.
53
A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the:
A) epidermis
B) fatty layer
C) muscle fascia
D) dermal layer
D) dermal layer
54
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of:
A) esophageal injury.
B) cervical spine fracture.
C) crushing tracheal injury.
D) carotid artery laceration.
C) crushing tracheal injury.
55
The ____ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
A) central
B) somatic
C) autonomic
D) peripheral
D) peripheral
56
When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should:
A) use local pressure to control bleeding.
B) carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding.
C) remove any impaled objects from the vagina.
D) cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings.
A) use local pressure to control bleeding.
57
A _____ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments.
A) Strain
B) Sprain
C) Fracture
D) Dislocation
B) Sprain
58
Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea?
A) Attempted suicide by hanging
B) Gunshot wound to the lateral neck
C) Car crash involving lateral impact
D) Patient whose head hits the windshield
A) Attempted suicide by hanging
59
The most reliable sign of a head injury is:
A) a pulse that is rapid and thready.
B) a decreased level of consciousness.
C) an abnormally low blood pressure.
D) decreased sensation in the extremities.
B) a decreased level of consciousness.
60
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-otd patient?
A) Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest.
B) Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area.
C) Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area.
D) Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area.
A) Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest.
61
Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the “three-collision” effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash?
A) Extensive damage to the automobile
B) Flail chest and lower extremity fractures
C) Massive external trauma with severe bleeding
D) Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain
D) Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain
62
When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first:
A) ensure a patent airway.
B) obtain baseline vital signs.
C) control any external bleeding.
D) take appropriate standard precautions.
D) take appropriate standard precautions.
63
When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT to:
A) use a pillow as a splint.
B) leave the toes exposed.
C) apply a pneumatic splint.
D) observe for tissue swelling.
B) leave the toes exposed.
64
When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated:
A) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
B) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.
C) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
D) heart rate and blood pressure increase.
A) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
65
Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) localized pain.
B) chest wall ecchymosis.
C) tachypnea.
D) hematemesis.
D) hematemesis.
66
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as _____ muscle.
A) smooth
B) striated
C) connective
D) involuntary
B) striated
67
A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
A) Is wearing only a lap belt.
B) Remains within the vehicle.
C) Experiences multiple impacts.
D) Is ejected or partially ejected.
D) Is ejected or partially ejected.
68
A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves:
A) wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow.
B) splinting the leg in the position in which it was found.
C) straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints.
D) straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint.
B) splinting the leg in the position in which it was found.
69
Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include:
A) placing dry towels over the open wound.
B) cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline.
C) applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding.
D) applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
D) applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
70
Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to:
A) crushing injuries.
B) airbag-related trauma.
C) multiple collisions to the interior of the car.
D) ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.
D) ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.
71
The mastoid process is located approximately:
A) 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
B) 1/2 inch anterior to the external opening of the ear.
C) 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear.
D) 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible.
A) 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
72
A fractured femur can result in the loss of ___ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.
A) 250 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 1L
D) 2L
C) 1L
73
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
A) cerebellum and brain.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) cerebrum and meninges.
D) meninges and spinal cord.
B) brain and spinal cord.
74
Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with:
A) a flail chest.
B) a pneumothorax.
C) isolated rib fractures.
D) a ruptured diaphragm.
A) a flail chest.
75
High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by:
A) radiation
B) convection
C) conduction
D) evaporation
A) radiation
76
Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts.
A) rear-end
B) rollover
C) frontal
D) lateral
A) rear-end
77
The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to:
A) cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing and apply firm pressure.
B) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and apply firm pressure.
C) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing.
D) carefully replace the protruding bowel into the abdomen and cover the wound.
C) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing.
78
Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of:
A) penetrating lung injuries.
B) a tension pneumothorax.
C) a massive cardiac contusion.
D) traumatic aortic rupture.
D) traumatic aortic rupture.
79
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the:
A) pelvic girdle.
B) proximal femur.
C) pubic symphysis.
D) femoral shaft.
B) proximal femur.
80
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
A) should be placed in Trendelenburg's position
B) is most likely experiencing severe blood loss.
C) has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta.
D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
81
When a light is shone into the pupil:
A) the opposite pupil should dilate.
B) it should become smaller in size.
C) it should become larger in size.
D) both pupils should dilate together.
B) it should become smaller in size.
82
An injured brain begins to swell initially due to:
A) an epidural hematoma.
B) cerebral edema.
C) intracranial pressure.
D) a coup-contrecoup injury.
B) cerebral edema.
83
Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact?
A) Head-on collision
B) Angular collision
C) Ejection
D) Controlled crash
C) Ejection
84
A hematoma develops when:
A) small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis.
B) large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.
C) severe swelling compromises arterial circulation.
D) cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.
B) large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.
85
When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should:
A) Use a demand valve to ventilate the patient.
B) Suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.
C) Avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.
D) Administer large amounts of intravenous fluid.
C) Avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.
86
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume?
A) Sitting up
B) Legs drawn up
C) Legs outstretched
D) On his right side
B) Legs drawn up
87
When a person is exposed to cold temperatures and strong winds for an extended period of time, he or she will lose heat mostly by:
A) radiation.
B) convection.
C) conduction.
D0 evaporation.
B) convection.
88
Al! of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the:
A) lips
B) nose
C) anus
D) mouth
A) lips
89
A high school football player was injured during a tackle and complains of neck and upper back pain. He is conscious and alert and is breathing without difficulty. The EMT should:
A) leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place.
B) leave his helmet in place, but remove his shoulder pads.
C) remove his helmet and shoulder pads.
D) remove his helmet, but leave his shoulder pads in place.
A) leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place.
90
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
A) temporary survival after submersion in water.
B) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
C) water in the lungs following submersion in water.
D) death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
B) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
91
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the:
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) radius and ulna
D) midshaft femur
A) clavicle
92
A fracture is most accurately defines as a(n):
A) abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
C) total loss of function in a bone.
D) disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
93
Even when seat belts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the:
A) chest.
B) extremities.
C) iliac crests.
D) lower ribcage.
C) iliac crests.
94
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because:
A) they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.
B) they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.
C) it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.
D) most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.
B) they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.
95
The cricoid cartilage:
A) lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck.
B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
C) is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage.
D) lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.
B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
96
The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to:
A) basilar skull fractures.
B) depressed skull fractures.
C) linear skull fractures.
D) nondisplaced skull fractures.
B) depressed skull fractures.
97
The mesentery is:
A) the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
B) a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
C) a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
98
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is:
A) slow
B) weak
C) rapid
D) irregular
A) slow
99
The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it:
A) suppresses the respiratory drive.
B) causes severe local tissue damage.
C) weakens the structure of the bones.
D) destroys the body's red blood cells.
B) causes severe local tissue damage.
100
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) profound cyanosis.
B) collapsed jugular veins.
C) altered mental status.
D) unilaterally absent breath sounds.
B) collapsed jugular veins.
101
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?
A) lntravenous fluid administration
B) Early administration of oxygen
C) Elevation of the lower extremities
D) Rapid transport to a trauma center
D) Rapid transport to a trauma center
102
Covering a patient's _____ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
A) head
B) chest
C) abdomen
D) extremities
A) head
103
When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:
A) Index of suspicion.
B) Mechanism of injury.
C) Kinetic energy.
D) Potential energy.
B) Mechanism of injury.
104
A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) kidney.
D) bladder.
C) kidney.
105
Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because:
A) they lend credibility to your documentation.
B) such injuries can affect the respiratory system.
C) hospital staff require frequent patient updates.
D) rapid facial swelling might mask hidden injuries.
B) such injuries can affect the respiratory system.
106
Airbags are designed to:
A) Prevent a second collision inside the car.
B) Be used with or without a shoulder harness.
C) Decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
D)Prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.
C) Decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
107
A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for:
A) external genitalia injury.
B) a lacerated liver or spleen.
C) blunt injury to the kidney.
D) a ruptured urinary bladder.
C) blunt injury to the kidney.
108
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct?
A) Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it.
B) Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels.
C) Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage.
D) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
D) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
109
It is important to remove a drowning victim from the water before laryngospasm relaxes because:
A) the patient will suffer less airway trauma.
B) the risk of severe hypothermia is lessened.
C) less water will have entered the patient’s lungs.
D) you can ventilate the patient with laryngospasm.
C) less water will have entered the patient’s lungs.
110
ln addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:
A) an air embolism.
B) a spinal fracture.
C) an ischemic stroke.
D) nerve fiber damage.
A) an air embolism.
111
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
A) might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
B) often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.
C) results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.
D) is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.
A) might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
112
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
A) Femur fracture
B) Shoulder fracture
C) Lumbar spine fracture
D) Pelvic fracture
B) Shoulder fracture
113
When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should:
A) immerse the affected part in warm water.
B) rupture any blisters to prevent an infection.
C) cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing.
D) avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
D) avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
114
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
A) the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
B) the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
C) the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure.
D) high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
B) the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
115
A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following:
A) a diving accident.
B) blunt neck trauma.
C) hyperextension of the neck.
D) hanging-type mechanisms.
D) hanging-type mechanisms.
116
A 66-year old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his pulse is rapid. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him?
A) Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
B) Has blood soaked through your undergarments?
C) Do you take any over-the-counter medications?
D) What does your blood pressure normally run?
A) Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
117
Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
A) of the risk for airway problems.
B) bleeding must be controlled early.
C) the spine might be injured as well.
D) swelling might mask hidden injuries.
A) of the risk for airway problems.
118
A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority?
A) Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze
B) 3-inch laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood
C) Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound
D) 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
D) 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
119
```
The ___ nerves supply the diaphragm.
A) vagus
B) costal
C) phrenic
D) intercostal
```
C) phrenic
120
Pneumothorax is defined as:
A) accumulation of air between the lungs.
B) blood collection within the lung tissue.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
D) blood collection within the pleural space.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
121
A 20-year old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should:
A) clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
B) assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
C) transport only if signs of shock being to develop.
D) carefully probe the wound to determine its depth.
B) assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
122
An abdominal evisceration:
A) is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma.
B) should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings.
C) often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss.
D) occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
D) occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
123
The purpose of the eustachian tube is to:
A) move in response to sound waves.
B) transmit impulses from the brain to the ear.
C) equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes.
D) house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance.
C) equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes.
124
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
A) the clothes drag.
B) the four-person log roll.
C) the use of a scoop stretcher.
D) the direct patient carry.
B) the four-person log roll.
125
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
A) Central
B) Sensory
C) Somatic
D) Autonomic
C) Somatic
126
Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) immobilization of the injury.
B) prevention of contamination.
C) protection from further injury.
D) control of external hemorrhage.
A) immobilization of the injury.
127
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
A) an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.
B) a progressively lowering blood pressure.
C) rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
D) acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.
C) rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
128
An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
A) incision
B) avulsion
C) laceration
D) amputation
B) avulsion
129
Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct?
A) Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization.
B) A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.
C) Cervical collars are contraindicated in patient with numbness to the extremities.
D) The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.
B) A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.
130
The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is most related to:
A) his or her baseline blood pressure.
B) the part of the body injured.
C) how rapidly he or she bleeds.
D) how fast his or her heart beats.
C) how rapidly he or she bleeds.
131
The white portion of the eye is called the:
A) iris
B) retina
C) sclera
D) cornea
C) sclera
132
High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through:
A) radiation
B) convection
C) conduction
D) evaporation
D) evaporation
133
A 44-year-old man was struck in the back of the head and was reportedly unconscious for approximately 30 seconds. He complains of a severe headache and “seeing stars,” and states that he regained his memory shortly before your arrival. His presentation is MOST consistent with a(n):
A) contusion.
B) concussion
C) subdural hematoma.
D) intracerebral hemorrhage.
B) concussion
134
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:
A) Osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
B) Any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
C) Elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
D) Bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.
A) Osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
135
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
A) elevating the injured extremity.
B) packing the wound with gauze.
C) compressing a pressure point.
D) applying local, direct pressure.
D) applying local, direct pressure.
136
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:
A) Determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact.
B) Assess the severity of the third collision of the crash.
C) Recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.
D) Identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
D) Identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
137
During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A) position the patient on the affected side.
B) transport immediately.
C) assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax.
D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
138
A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves:
A) applying rigid board splints.
B) applying two traction splints.
C) securing him to a long backboard.
D) immobilizing his femurs with air splints.
C) securing him to a long backboard.
139
When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's ____ is in charge of all patient movements.
A) head
B) chest
C) waist
D) lower extremities
A) head
140
When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury it is most important to:
A) manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture.
B) assess circulation distal to the site of the injury.
C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
D) recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.
C) remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
141
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is the least severe?
A) Nondisplaced pelvic fracture
B) Open fractures of a long bone
C) An amputation of an extremity
D) Multiple closed long bone fractures
A) Nondisplaced pelvic fracture
142
The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:
A) an air embolism.
B) cold-water immersion.
C) alcohol intoxication.
D) possible spinal injury.
D) possible spinal injury.
143
What purpose does a one-way “flutter valve” serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax?
A) It prevents air escape from within the chest cavity.
B) It allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space.
C) It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound.
D) It allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity.
B) It allows the release of air trapped in the pleural space.
144
A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
A) abrasion
B) contusion
C) hematoma
D) crush injury
B) contusion
145
Which of the following is considered a severe burn?
A) Any full-thickness burn
B) 20% partial-thickness burn
C) 10% full-thickness burn with abrasions
D) 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture
D) 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture
146
Peritonitis usually occurs when:
A) solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma.
B) the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed
C) bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.
D) hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
D) hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
147
A 45-year-old convenience store clerk was shot in the right anterior chest during a robbery. Your assessment reveals that the wound has blood bubbling from it every time the patient breathes. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A) prevent air from entering the wound.
B) cover the wound with a bulky dressing.
C) assess the patient’s back for an exit wound.
D) transport the patient promptly to the closest trauma center.
A) prevent air from entering the wound.
148
!f one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT
should:
A) Suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
B) Transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain.
C) Allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries.
D) Rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma.
A) Suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
149
You respond to a residence for a 40-year old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distension, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should:
A) insert an oropharyngeal airway.
B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
C) perform a focused secondary exam.
D) immediately request ALS support.
D) immediately request ALS support.
150
A 30-year-old male, who has been playing softball all day in a hot environment, complains of weakness and nausea shortly after experiencing a syncopal episode. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) giving a salt-containing solution by mouth.
B) moving him to a cooler environment at once.
C) administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
D) placing him in a supine position and elevating his legs.
A) giving a salt-containing solution by mouth.
151
Pleural fluid is contained between the:
A) visceral pleura and the lung.
B) visceral and parietal pluerae.
C) parietal pleura and the heart.
D) parietal pleura and the chest wall.
B) visceral and parietal pluerae.
152
Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:
A) is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped.
B) should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze.
C) should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum.
D) is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury.
A) is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped.
153
Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
A) An effectively pumping heart
B) An intact system of blood vessels
C) Adequate blood in the vasculature
D) The filtering of blood cells in the spleen
D) The filtering of blood cells in the spleen
154
The brain, a part of the central nervous system (CNS), is divided into the:
A) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem.
B) cerebrum, brainstem, and spinal cord.
C) cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord.
D) spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebral cortex.
A) cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem.
155
Hypoperfusion is another name for:
A) shock
B) cyanosis
C) hypoxemia
D) cellular death.
A) shock
156
ln older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding might be:
A) weakness or dizziness.
B) a low blood pressure.
C) diaphoresis and pale skin.
D) a heart rate over 120 beats/min.
A) weakness or dizziness.
157
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Skeletal muscle
D) Skeletal muscle
158
When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should:
A) theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred.
B) include the results of the internal vaginal exam.
C) include a description of the suspected perpetrator.
D) avoid speculation and document only factual data.
D) avoid speculation and document only factual data.
159
A patient who experiences an immediate loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval has a(n):
A) epidural hematoma.
B) subdural hematoma.
C) concussion.
D) contusion.
A) epidural hematoma.
160
Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury?
A) A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard.
B) A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.
C) A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle.
D) A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine.
A) A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard.
161
A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find:
A) deployed airbags.
B) steering wheel deformity.
C) starring of the windshield.
D) a crushed instrument panel.
B) steering wheel deformity.
162
A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of his chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress, and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect:
A) tension pneumothorax.
B) pulmonary contusion.
C) traumatic asphyxia.
D) massive hemothorax.
B) pulmonary contusion.
163
You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
A) inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable.
B) assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary.
C) elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function.
D) remove the air splint and re-immobilize with padded board splints.
B) assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary.
164
Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct?
A) Lightning strikes might cause cardiac dysrhythmias that spontaneously resolve.
B) The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin.
C) Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns.
D) Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.
A) Lightning strikes might cause cardiac dysrhythmias that spontaneously resolve.
165
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
A) the abdomen will become instantly distended.
B) peritonitis might not develop for several hours.
C) it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.
D) it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
B) peritonitis might not develop for several hours.
166
As you are assessing a 24-year-old man with a large laceration to the top of his head, you should recall that:
A) the scalp, unlike other parts of the body, has relatively fewer blood vessels.
B) blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.
C) any avulsed portions of the scalp should be carefully cut away to facilitate bandaging.
D) most scalp injuries are superficial and are rarely associated with more serious injuries.
B) blood loss from a scalp laceration may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adults.
167
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss?
A) Pelvic fracture
B) Posterior hip dislocation
C) Unilateral femur fracture
D) Proximal humerus fracture
A) Pelvic fracture
168
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
A) a ruptured spleen.
B) a severe liver laceration.
C) intra-abdominal bleeding.
D) rupture of a hollow organ.
C) intra-abdominal bleeding.
169
When treating an open extremity fracture, you should:
A) apply a splint and then dress the wound.
B) dress the wound before applying a splint.
C) irrigate the wound before applying a dressing.
D) allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing.
B) dress the wound before applying a splint.
170
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should:
A) recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
B) carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
C) assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
D) apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
B) carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
171
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
A) slightly above the ear.
B) at the angle of the jaw
C) over the mastoid process.
D) just anterior to the tragus.
D) just anterior to the tragus.
172
Which of the following organs would most likely bleed profusely when injured?
A) Bladder
B) Liver
C) Stomach
D) Intestine
B) Liver
173
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
A) is always accompanied by hypotension.
B) indicates a state of decompensated shock.
C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
D) is most commonly caused by severe pain.
C) should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
174
ln non-trauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:
A) a rapid, thready pulse.
B) rapid, shallow breathing.
C) dizziness upon standing.
D) a decreasing blood pressure.
C) dizziness upon standing.
175
When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find:
A) jugular venous engorgement.
B) ipsilateral tracheal deviation.
C) distant or muffled heart tones.
D) signs and symptoms of shock.
D) signs and symptoms of shock.
176
An organ or tissue might better resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
A) body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased.
B) body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6 F (37.0 C).
C) systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg.
D) heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min.
B) body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6 F (37.0 C).
177
The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:
A) corneal duct.
B) posterior orbit.
C) optic chiasma.
D) lacrimal gland.
D) lacrimal gland.
178
Which of the following sets of vital signs is LEAST indicative of internal bleeding?
A) BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min
B) BP, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min
C) BP, 98/60 mm Hg; pulse rate, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min
D) BP, 102/48 mm Hg; pulse rate, 100 beats/min; respirations, 22 breaths/min
A) BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min
179
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called:
A) traction.
B) reduction.
C) stabilization.
D) immobilization.
A) traction.
180
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:
A) pressure dressings and chemical ice packs.
B) digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.
C) direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
D) ice packs and elevation of the patient's head.
C) direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
181
Capillaries link the arterioles and the:
A) venules
B) aorta
C) veins
D) cells
A) venules
182
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
A) insulin
B) thyroxine
C) epinephrine
D) aldosterone
C) epinephrine
183
A 22-year-old male was attacked by a rival gang and has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
A) carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport.
B) stabilize the knife in place, provide rescue breathing, and transport at once.
C) remove the knife and control any bleeding, apply the AED, and analyze his rhythm.
D) begin CPR, control any external bleeding, and transport rapidly to a trauma center.
A) carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport.
184
Signs and symptoms that might be found in a patient who has experienced a concussion include:
A) anxiety and restlessness.
B) nausea and ringing in the ears.
C) tachycardia and diaphoresis.
D) hypotension and nosebleed.
B) nausea and ringing in the ears.
185
A 70-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. When you arrive, you find him leaning over a basin, which contains an impressive amount of blood. He has a history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. His BP is 180/100 and his heart rate is 100 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his nosebleed?
A) His blood pressure
B) His history of diabetes
C) The fact that he is elderly
D) His heart rate of 100 beats/min
A) His blood pressure
186
A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately:
A) apply a pressure dressing to his neck.
B) sit the patient up to slow the bleeding.
C) place your gloved hand over the wound.
D) apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
C) place your gloved hand over the wound.
187
Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high energy trauma?
A) Dismounted seats
B) Steering wheel collapse
C) lntrusion into the vehicle
D) Deployment of the airbag
D) Deployment of the airbag
188
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system?
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Venules
D) Plasma
B) Lungs
189
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
A) pia mater.
B) arachnoid mater.
C) gray mater.
D) dura mater.
D) dura mater.
190
The energy of a moving object is called:
A) Latent energy.
B) Kinetic energy.
C) Potential energy.
D) Converted energy.
B) Kinetic energy.
191
Which of the following organs is at most risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture?
A) Pancreas
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Urinary bladder
D) Liver or spleen
C) Urinary bladder
192
Kinetic energy is a calculation of:
A) weight and size.
B) weight and speed.
C) mass and weight.
D) speed and force.
B) weight and speed.
193
The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
A) bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
B) nervous system's control over the muscles.
C) connective tissue that supports the skeleton.
D) involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
A) bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
194
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen after blunt trauma is most suggestive of injury to the:
A) liver
B) spleen
C) kidney
D) stomach
A) liver
195
Three ambulances respond to a golf course where a group of six golfers were struck by lighting. Two of the golfers are conscious and alert with superficial skin burns (Group 1). The next two golfers have minor fractures and appear confused (Group 2). The last two golfers are in cardiac arrest (Group 3). According to reverse triage, which group of golfers should be treated FIRST?
A) Group 1
B) Group 2
C) Group 3
D) Groups 1 and 2; Group 3 should be tagged as deceased.
C) Group 3
196
A flail chest occurs when:
A) a segment of the chest wail is detached from the thoracic cage.
B) more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
c) multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.
D) a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
A) a segment of the chest wail is detached from the thoracic cage.
197
In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider:
A) is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back.
B) has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops.
C) is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
D) has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.
C) is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.
198
The primary reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury is to:
A) prevent contamination.
B) control external bleeding.
C) reduce the risk of infection.
D) minimize any internal bleeding.
B) control external bleeding.
199
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
A) are found supine and have stable vital signs.
B) are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
C) require prompt extrication from an automobile.
D) are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.
B) are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
200
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury he or she:
A) will likely be paralyzed from the neck down.
B) might lose sensation below the level of the injury.
C) most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity.
D) often loses motor function on one side of the body.
B) might lose sensation below the level of the injury.
201
When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be:
A) hypovolemia.
B) intrathoracic bleeding.
C) ventilatory inadequacy.
D) associated myocardial injury.
C) ventilatory inadequacy.
202
A 20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern?
A) Deployed airbag
B) Bent steering wheel
C) Nonintact windshield
D) Crushed instrument panel
C) Nonintact windshield
203
A man is found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious and making snoring sounds, after an automobile accident. His head is turned to the side and his neck is flexed. You should:
A) gently rotate his head to correct the deformity.
B) carefully hyperextend his neck to open his airway.
C) apply an extrication collar with his head in the position found.
D) manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.
D) manually stabilize his head and move it to a neutral, in-line position.
204
The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:
A) Capitation.
B) Cavitation.
C) Congruent.
D) Conversion.
B) Cavitation.
205
While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find:
A) a deformed steering wheel.
B) that the airbags deployed.
C) a crushed instrument panel.
D) damage to the lower dashboard.
A) a deformed steering wheel.
206
A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a:
A) ruptured aorta.
B) myocardial contusion.
C) pericardial tamponade.
D) tension pneumothorax.
B) myocardial contusion.
207
Hemoptysis is defined as:
A) vomiting blood.
B) coughing up blood.
C) abnormal blood clotting.
D) blood in the pleural space.
B) coughing up blood.
208
A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:
A) full-thickness burn.
B) superficial burn.
C) second-degree burn.
D) partial-thickness burn.
B) superficial burn.
209
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ___ of his or her total blood volume.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
D) 20%
210
Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) maintenance of water balance.
B) regulation of body temperature.
C) the production of key antibodies.
D) sending information to the brain.
C) the production of key antibodies.
211
What effects will the application of an ice have on a hematoma?
A) Vasodilation and increased pain
B) Vasodilation and decreased bleeding
C) Vasoconstriction and increased swelling
D) Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding
D) Vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding
212
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
A) Doubles.
B) Triples.
C) Quadruples.
D) Is not affected.
C) Quadruples.
213
You should NOT remove an injured football player’s helmet if:
A) a cervical spine injury is suspected, even if the helmet fits loosely.
B) the patient has a patent airway, even if he has breathing difficulty.
C) he has broken teeth, but only if the helmet does not fit snugly in place.
D) the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.
D) the face guard can easily be removed and there is no airway compromise.
214
A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he:
A) has injured his myocardium.
B) has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia.
C) has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac.
D) is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrillation.
A) has injured his myocardium.
215
Which type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures?
A) Striated
B) Cardiac
C) Skeletal
D) Smooth
D) Smooth
216
To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n):
A) sling and swathe.
B) air splint over the entire arm.
C) rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling.
D) traction splint to the arm of the injured side.
A) sling and swathe.
217
Shivering in the presence of hypothermia indicates that the:
A) musculoskeletal system is damaged.
B) nerve endings are damaged, causing loss of muscle control.
C) body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity.
D) thermoregulatory system has failed and body temperature is falling.
C) body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity.
218
All of the following are examples of passive rewarming techniques, EXCEPT:
A) removing cold, wet clothing.
B) administering warm fluids by mouth.
C) turning up the heat inside the ambulance.
D) covering the patient with warm blankets.
B) administering warm fluids by mouth.
219
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
A) immediate cardiac arrest.
B) paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
C) paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
D) paralysis of the diaphragm.
B) paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
220
A woman has frostbite in both feet after walking several miles in a frozen field. Her feet are white, hard, and cold to the touch. Treatment at the scene should include:
A) rubbing her feet gently with your own warm hands.
B) trying to restore circulation by helping her to walk around.
C) removing her wet clothing and rubbing her feet briskly with a warm, wet cloth.
D) removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings.
D) removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings.
221
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called:
A) fascia
B) tendons
C) cartilage
D) ligaments
B) tendons
222
The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called:
A) conduction.
B) radiation.
C) convection.
D) evaporation.
D) evaporation.
223
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
A) renal system.
B) nervous system.
C) respiratory system.
D) cardiovascular system.
B) nervous system.
224
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a _____ fracture.
A) greenstick
B) pathologic
C) transverse
D) comminuted
B) pathologic
225
A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess:
A) false motion.
B) distal pulses.
C) capillary refill.
D) sensory and motor functions.
D) sensory and motor functions.
226
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:
A) vital signs should be monitored frequently.
B) prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
C) the EMT must perform a thorough exam.
D) the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.
B) prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
227
A young male was involved in a motor vehicle accident and experienced a closed head injury. He has no memory of the events leading up to the accident but remembers that he was going to a birthday party. What is the correct term to use when documenting his memory loss?
A) Concussion
B) Cerebral contusion
C) Retrograde amnesia
D) Anterograde amnesia
C) Retrograde amnesia
228
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless:
A) the patient adamantly denies neck pain.
B) lateral immobilization has been applied.
C) it causes a problem managing the airway.
D) sensory and motor functions remain intact.
C) it causes a problem managing the airway.
229
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
A) bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
B) bleeding between the dura mater and brain.
C) venous lacerations that occur within the brain.
D) an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
A) bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
230
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that:
A) at least half of one lung has completely collapsed.
B) your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade.
C) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
D) blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.
C) air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
231
The purpose of splinting a fracture is to:
A) reduce the fracture if possible.
B) prevent motion of bony fragments.
C) reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues.
D) force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment.
B) prevent motion of bony fragments.
232
Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) The speed of the fall.
B) The surface struck.
C) The height of the fall.
D) The primary impact point.
A) The speed of the fall.
233
```
Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash?
A) Collapsed dashboard
B) Deformed steering wheel
C) Caved-in passenger door
D) lntrathoracic hemorrhage
```
B) Deformed steering wheel
234
Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure?
A) Supine with the legs elevated
B) Maintaining the SpO2 at 90%
C) 30-degree elevation of the head
D) Increasing the patient's body temperature
C) 30-degree elevation of the head
235
The skin and underlying tissues of the face:
A) have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
B) swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma.
C) are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.
D) contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers.
A) have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
236
The eyeball itself is referred to as the:
A) orbit
B) globe
C) sclera
D) cornea
B) globe
237
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum?
A) Lungs
B) Trachea
C) Vena cavae
D) Esophagus
A) Lungs
238
According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of
trauma center if he or she:
A) was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.
B) has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.
C) has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.
D) has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
D) has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
239
Perfusion is most accurately defined as the:
A) effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.
B) ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.
C) effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells.
D) circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
D) circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
240
During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A) position the patient on the affected side.
B) transport immediately.
C) assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax.
D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
D) cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
241
ln contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion:
A) does not cause pressure within the skull.
B) results from a laceration to the brain tissue.
C) involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
D) usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.
C) involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
242
The globe of the eye is also called the:
A) lens.
B) orbit.
C) retina.
D) eyeball.
D) eyeball.
243
You are assessing a 27-year-old woman with a heat-related emergency. Her skin is flushed, hot, and moist, and her level of consciousness is decreased. After moving her to a cool environment, managing her airway, and administering oxygen, you should:
A) give her ice water to drink.
B) place her in the recovery position.
C) cover her with wet sheets and fan her.
D) take her temperature with an axillary probe.
C) cover her with wet sheets and fan her.
244
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:
A) dyspnea
B) hematuria
C) hemoptysis
D) hematemesis
D) hematemesis
245
The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is
called the:
A) incus
B) pinna
C) tragus
D) stapes
C) tragus
246
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm:
A) contracts and flattens inferiorly.
B) might rise as high as the nipple line.
C) is less prone to penetrating trauma.
D) descends below the level of the navel.
B) might rise as high as the nipple line.
247
Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of a head injury?
A) One pupil larger in size than the other pupil
B) Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction
C) Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light
D) Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object
C) Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light
248
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) nausea.
B) dry tongue and thirst.
C) tachycardia.
D) hot, dry skin.
D) hot, dry skin.
249
When caring for a patient with severe epistaxis, the MOST effective way to prevent aspiration of blood is to:
A) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and lean the patient back.
B) tilt the patient’s head forward while he or she is leaning forward.
C) place the patient supine with his or her head in the flexed position.
D) tilt the patient’s head forward while he or she is leaning backward.
B) tilt the patient’s head forward while he or she is leaning forward.
250
A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is:
A) hematuria
B) hemoptysis
C) hematemesis
D) hematochezia
A) hematuria
251
ln which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?
A) When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent
B) If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes
C) If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
D) If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
C) If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
252
To avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a:
A) flail chest.
B) pneumothorax.
C) myocardial contusion.
D) cardiac tamponade.
B) pneumothorax.
253
Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the:
A) medulla
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) brain stem
C) cerebellum
254
When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost one-third of patients, usually within seconds, is:
A) a hemothorax.
B) aortic shearing.
C) a pneumothorax.
D) a ruptured myocardium.
B) aortic shearing.
255
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:
A) C1 and C2.
B) C3 and C4.
C) C1, C2, and C3.
D) C3, C4, and C5.
D) C3, C4, and C5.
256
Which of the following statements regarding chemical burns is FALSE?
A) Most chemical burns are caused by strong acids or alkalis.
B) Fumes of strong chemicals can cause burns to the respiratory tract.
C) Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water.
D) You should not attempt to neutralize an acid burn with an alkaline chemical.
C) Prior to removing a dry chemical, you should flush the area with sterile water.
257
Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when:
A) a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water.
B) a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent.
C) a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
D) a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.
C) a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
258
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation?
A) Local swelling and ecchymosis
B) General weakness and diaphoresis
C) Syncope and bleeding at distal sites
D) Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion
A) Local swelling and ecchymosis
259
A 13-year-old girl is found floating face down in a swimming pool. Witnesses tell you that the girl had been practicing diving. After you and your partner safely enter the water, you should:
A) turn her head to the side and give five back slaps.
B) turn her head to the side and begin rescue breathing.
C) rotate her entire body as a unit and carefully remove her from the pool.
D) rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck.
D) rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck.
260
The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to:
A) bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
B) laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water.
C) tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure.
D) increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.
A) bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
261
When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should:
A) prevent contamination of the opposite eye.
B) immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing.
C) avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury.
D) irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured.
A) prevent contamination of the opposite eye.
262
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
A) superficial
B) third-degree
C) full-thickness
D) partial-thickness
A) superficial
263
Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of:
A) airbag deployment.
B) failure to wear seat belts.
C) a poorly placed lap belt.
D) rapid vehicle deceleration.
C) a poorly placed lap belt.
264
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) a decreased ability to shiver.
B) a relatively small surface area.
C) a smaller amount of body fat.
D) a smaller overall muscle mass.
B) a relatively small surface area.
265
A simple pneumothorax:
A) is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
B) often has a nontraumatic cause.
C) is caused by penetrating chest trauma.
D) heals on its own without any treatment.
A) is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
266
Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct?
A) A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total body surface area.
B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area.
C) The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the body surface area.
D) The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total body surface area.
B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area.
267
Patients with rib fractures will commonly:
A) breathe rapidly and shallowly.
B) take a series of deep breaths.
C) prefer to lie in a supine position.
D) develop a sucking chest wound.
A) breathe rapidly and shallowly.
268
Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they:
A) have relatively smaller heads.
B) have less body fat.
C) exhibit poor thermoregulation.
D) have smaller body surface areas.
C) exhibit poor thermoregulation.
269
Which of the following splinting devices would be most appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
A) Air splint
B) Vacuum splint
C) Sling and swathe
D) Cardboard splint
A) Air splint
270
You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he was mowing the lawn in the heat for the past three hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should:
A) load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.
B) administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.
C) perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma.
D) place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water.
A) load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.
271
Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock?
A) Hip
B) Femur
C) Pelvis
D) Humerus
C) Pelvis
272
A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury was MOST likely caused by ___________ blast injuries.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
C) tertiary
273
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
A) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours of an injury.
B) Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.
C) In most case, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after injury.
D) Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a sever fracture of the pelvis.
A) Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours of an injury.
274
An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter:
A) trauma to the pelvis.
B) blunt abdominal trauma.
C) a severe closed head injury.
D) penetrating thoracic trauma.
A) trauma to the pelvis.
275
In contrast to a Level lll trauma center, a Level I trauma center must:
A) Be involved in trauma prevention programs.
B) Have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.
C) Have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.
D) Be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility.
B) Have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.
276
The Adam's apple is:
A) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
B) the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage.
c) the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.
D) below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.
A) the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
277
Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called:
A) pleurisy
B) dyspnea
C) pneumonitis
D) pneumothorax
A) pleurisy
278
A compression injury that is severe enough to cut off blood flow below the injury is called:
A) a contusion.
B) a hematoma.
C) a local thrombus.
D) compartment syndrome.
D) compartment syndrome.
279
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
A) the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.
B) low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.
C) the patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg.
D) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.
B) low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.
280
When the body loses sweat, it also loses:
A) plasma.
B) electrolytes.
C) nutrients.
D) erythrocytes.
B) electrolytes.
281
Force acting over a distance is the definition of:
A) Work.
B) Latent energy.
C) Kinetic energy.
D) Potential energy.
A) Work.
282
Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has massive face and head trauma after being assaulted. He is lying supine, is semiconscious, and has blood in his mouth. You should:
A) insert a nasal airway, assess his respirations, and give 100% oxygen.
B) suction his airway and apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C) manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.
D) apply a cervical collar, suction his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations.
C) manually stabilize his head, log roll him onto his side, and suction his mouth.
283
If a patient with a chest injury only inhales small amounts of air per breath, he or she:
A) often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.
B) will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply.
C) must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
D) will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.
C) must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
284
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when:
A) increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.
B) the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured.
C) muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.
D) carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.
C) muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.
285
When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that:
A) stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound.
B) the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife.
C) most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury.
D) more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.
D) more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.
286
Bone marrow produces:
A) platelets
B) blood cells
C) lymphocytes
D) electrolytes
B) blood cells
287
ln addition to external bleeding, the most significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is:
A) infection
B) hypothermia
C) nerve damage
D) vessel damage
A) infection
288
When worn properly, a seat belt should lie:
A) across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.
B) across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints.
C) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
D) above the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints.
C) below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints.
289
A patient experienced a severe compression to the chest when trapped between a vehicle and a brick wall. You suspect traumatic asphyxia due to the hemorrhage into the sclera of his eyes and which other sign?
A) Flat neck veins
B) Cyanosis in the face and neck
C) Asymmetric chest movement
D) Irregular heart rate
B) Cyanosis in the face and neck
290
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the:
A) diaphragm
B) anterior rib cage
C) intercostal margin
D) costovertebral angle
A) diaphragm
291
A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the:
A) symphysis pubis.
B) thoracic spine.
C) lumbar spine.
D) coccygeal spine.
C) lumbar spine.
292
An open pneumothorax is:
A) a fractured rib that perforates the tissue of the lung surface.
B) an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing.
C) extreme pleural pressure that causes the lung to rupture.
D) the entry of air into the pleural space from a perforated lung.
B) an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing.
293
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
A) spinal canal.
B) vertebral body.
C) vertebral arch.
D) intervertebral disc.
A) spinal canal.
294
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
A) bruising only.
B) pain and distention.
C) widespread ecchymosis.
D) significant hypotension.
B) pain and distention.
295
A patient with a chest injury has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute. Which of the following additional findings should make you suspect a pericardial tamponade?
A) Repeat BP of 90/68 mm Hg.
B) Unilaterally absent breath sounds.
C) A pulse that becomes irregular.
D) Flattening of the jugular veins.
A) Repeat BP of 90/68 mm Hg.
296
Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?
A) Scalp
B) Back
C) Ears
D) Soles of the feet
C) Ears
297
You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female.
During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:
A) remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.
B) carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside.
C) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
D) remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.
C) assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
298
When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the EMT should:
A) use the narrowest bandage possible.
B) avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint.
C) cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage.
D) use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight.
B) avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint.
299
The _____ contains about 75% of the brain's total volume.
A) cerebellum
B) brain stem
C) meninges
D) cerebrum
D) cerebrum
300
The term "hyphema" is defined as:
A) blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
B) an acute rupture of the globe of the eye.
C) inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens.
D) compression of one or both optic nerves.
A) blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
301
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will most likely cause:
A) distention.
B) referred pain.
C) diffuse bruising.
D) nausea or vomiting.
A) distention.
302
Controlling internal bleeding requires:
A) applying a tourniquet.
B) surgery in a hospital.
C) positioning the patient in the sitting position.
D) providing slow and considerate transport.
B) surgery in a hospital.
303
Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE?
A) Intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention.
B) Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma.
C) The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding.
D) Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma.
C) The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding.
304
The two most efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are:
A) respiration and bradycardia.
B) perspiration and tachycardia.
C) sweating and vasodilation.
D) hyperventilation and tachycardia.
C) sweating and vasodilation.
305
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) swelling
B) deformity
C) ecchymosis
D) guarding
B) deformity
306
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:
A) the diaphragm descends.
B) abdominal contents descend.
C) intrathoracic pressure decreases.
D) the intercostal muscles contract.
D) the intercostal muscles contract.
307
The most prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
A) tightness in the chest.
B) difficulty with vision.
C) dizziness and nausea.
D) abdominal or joint pain.
D) abdominal or joint pain.
308
Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct?
A) They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord.
B) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.
C) They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing.
D) They are part of the CNS and control reflexes.
B) They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.
309
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct?
A) Most of the vital abdominal organs lie within the retroperitoneal space.
B) The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
C) The liver is well protected and is rarely injured during a traumatic event.
D) Hollow abdominal organs are vascular and bleed profusely when injured.
B) The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
310
The lower jawbone is called the:
A) zygoma
B) maxillae
C) mandible
D) mastoid
C) mandible
311
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as:
A) smooth muscle.
B) striated muscle.
C) autonomic muscle.
D) involuntary muscle
B) striated muscle.
312
A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should:
A) assess distal pulses.
B) manually stabilize her injury.
C) assess her elbow for crepitus.
D) apply rigid board splints to her arm.
B) manually stabilize her injury.
313
Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct?
A) It should be assessed for by vigorously palpating the abdomen.
B) Rebound tenderness is a specific sign found with a spleen injury.
C) It is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly.
D) The absence of rebound tenderness rules out intra-abdominal injury.
C) It is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly.
314
Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:
A) Vomiting blood.
B) Coughing up blood.
C) An irregular pulse.
D) Multiple rib fractures.
B) Coughing up blood.
315
Shortly after ascending rapidly to the surface of the water while holding his breath, a 29-year-old diver begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum and complains of dyspnea and chest pain. You should suspect and treat this patient for:
A) an air embolism.
B) a pneumothorax.
C) pneumomediastinum.
D) decompression sickness.
A) an air embolism.
316
lnternal bleeding into a fractured extremity is most often controlled by:
A) applying a tourniquet.
B) splinting the extremity.
C) keeping the patient warm.
D) applying chemical ice pack.
B) splinting the extremity.
