Exam 5: Chemistry of Antimycobacterial Agents/ Tuberculosis Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common infection in the world?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organism causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of bacteria is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Slow-growing
Aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some characteristics of a tuberculosis infection?

A

Can be dormant for a long period of time
-cause both latent and active infections

Forms granulomas (tubercles) in the lungs

*neither Gram + nor Gram -

*Is an acid-fast bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an acid-fast bacteria

A

A bacteria than cannot be discolorized by an acid wash after staining with Neelsen stain (stays red)

*these have a lipid rich cell wall that contains mycolic acids and is impermeable to many drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the cell wall of an acid fast bacteria differ from Gram + and
Gram - cells?

A

It has a thick mycolic acid rich layer

It also has an arabinogalactan layer not present in the other cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common treatment for TB?

A

Rifampin
+
Isoniazid
+
Pyrazinamide
+
Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an alternative therapy option for TB?

A

Rifapentine
+
Isoniazid
+
Pyrazinamide
+
Moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What form of TB is Isoniazid active against?

A

Specific for M. tb only

Only active against growing form of TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is Isoniazid bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an important clinical pearl about Isoniazid?

A

It is a prodrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What activates Isoniazid?

A

KatG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of isoniazid?

A

Gets activated by KatG

Forms adducts with NAD+ and NADP+

Inhibits enzymes that use NAD+ and NADP+

Activated drug inhibits InhA
-a component of FAS II (fatty acid synthase)
-this is responsible for catalyzing the HADH-dependent reduction of fatty acids bound to acyl carrier proteins

-Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis leading to defective cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of the arabinogalactan layer in TB cells?

A

The mycolic acid layer is assembled by attaching it to this layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does resistance to isoniazid occur?

A

Over-expression of InhA

Mutations in KatG leading to the drug not getting activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is isoniazid metabolized?

A

Acetylation in the liver by N-acetyltransferase (NAT2)

-different forms of the gene that people have determine if they are slow or fast metabolizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid?

A

Hepatitis*
-must stop treatment if this occurs

Peripheral neuropathy

Drug-induced syndrome resembling lupus

Peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the mechanism of toxicity for isoniazid?

A

Acetylisoniazid can be converted to acetylhydrazine

CYP2E1 converts acetylhydrazine to hepatotoxic metabolites

NAT2 can acetylate acetylhydrazine to nontoxic diacetylhydrazine
(normal metabolism mechanism)

-Slower acetylators or induction of CYP2E1 with lead to more toxic metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which drug induces CYP2E1, potentiating isoniazid hepatotoxicity?

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does isoniazid cause peripheral neuropathy?

A

It resembles pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
and competitively inhibits pyridoxine phosphokinase

-can reverse by giving pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What affect did Pyrazinamide have on TB treatment?

A

Shortened therapy to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What kind of TB is Pyrazinamide active against?

A

Sterilizing agent against residual intracellular bacteria

-predominantly used for persister bacteria also called nonreplicating, persistent bacilli (NRPB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pyrazinamide is structurally similar to what?

A

Nicotinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The activity of Pyrazinamide is dependent on what?

A

pH

-activated by low pH
-inactive at neutral pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How is Pyrazinamide activated?
Prodrug Requires conversion to pyrazinoic acid by pncA
26
The MOA of pyrazinamide is not fully known. What is the current best guess?
Inhibits panD leading to inhibition of Coenzyme A synthesis note that panD binding affinity is low but accumulation in granuloma offsets this
27
What is the primary mechanism of resistance to Pyrazinamide?
Mutations in pncA
28
What are the SE of Pyrazinamide?
Joint pain -most common Hepatitis -most dangerous *pyrazinamide is the main drug in TB therapy that causes this
29
Before treatment with pyrazinamide, patients need to do what?
Undergo studies of hepatic function
30
Is ethambutol bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?
Bacteriostatic
31
What is the MOA of ethambutol?
Inhibits mycobacterial arabinosyl transferases -these are enzymes involved in making the arabinogalactan layer -involved in polymerization of arabinogalactan Arabinan builds up (precursor to layer)
32
Ethambutol is synergistic with which drug?
Rifampin -increases penetration into cell since it weakens the cell wall
33
What is the mechanism of resistance against ethambutol?
Over-expression of/ mutations in arabinosyl transferase
34
What is the most important side effect of ethambutol?
Optic neuritis -must d/c treatment or it may not reverse
35
What product is rifampin a derivative of?
Rifamycin B (natural product)
36
What effect did rifampin have on treatment duration?
Reduced length of therapy from 18 to 9 months
37
What is the most effective first-line agent for TB?
Rifampin
38
What forms of TB is rifampin active against?
BOTH growing and non-dividing (stationary) forms
39
Is rifampin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal
40
What is rifapentin?
Derivative of rifampin -has a five-sided ring attached to its structure that makes it more lipophilic and gives it a longer half life
41
What is the moa of rifampin?
Binds to RNA polymerase deep within the DNA/RNA channel -blocks elongation of RNA *binds distant from the active site
42
What are the side effects of rifampin?
Colors urine, tears, and sweat orange Can permanently stain contact lenses Potent inducer of CYP450
43
Ethambutol may be replaced by what drug in the alternative TB therapy?
Moxifloxacin
44
What is the MOA of moxifloxacin?
Traps gyrase (Topo II) on DNA as a ternary complex -blocks activity of gyrase, cannot repair cleaved DNA, cannot resolve supercoils -disrupts DNA replication
45
Is moxifloxacin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal
46
Which TB drugs cause hepatitis?
Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Rifampin
47
Which TB drug causes eye damage?
Ethambutol *think e*
48
Which TB drug causes urine discoloration?
Rifampin
49
How often should patients be monitored for adverse effects?
Monthly
50
BPaL is a newly approved TB regimen, what drugs does it contain?
Bedaquiline Pretomanid Linezolid
51
When would we use the BPaL regimen for TB treatment?
Extensively drug-resistant TB
52
What kind of TB does Bedaquiline treat?
Both actively growing and dormant
53
Is bedaquiline bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal
54
What is the MOA of bedaquiline?
Inhibits ATP synthase -not able to make ATP, is toxic
55
What is the mechanism of resistance to bedaquiline?
Mutations in atpE
56
How is Pretomanid activated?
Prodrug -activated by Ddn
57
What is the MOA of Pretomanid?
Aerobic: -Forms reactive intermediate metabolites that inhibit mycolic acid production Anaerobic, Nonreplicating, Persistent bacilli: -Generates reactive nitrogen species -Directly poisons the respiratory complex leading to *ATP depletion*
58
What are the second-line agents for TB?
Streptomycin Ethionamide Para-aminosalicylic acid Cycloserine Capreomycin
59
What is the most important part of TB therapy?
ADHERENCE
60
What is a TST test?
Tuberculosis skin test
61
What is another name for the TST test?
PPD
62
What is a downside to using the TST tuberculosis test?
Delayed immune response, takes 2-3 days to read
63
When will the TST test come back positive?
Infection eliminated with acquired immune response Latent TB Subclinical disease Active TB ****will be positive for everything except elimination of infection with the innate immune system
64
What is the IGRA?
TB test that gives immediate results
65
What is another name for the IGRA tuberculosis test?
QuantiFERON
66
When does the IGRA tuberculosis test come back positive?
For everything except elimination of infection by the innate immune system (same as TST test)
67
When will a TB culture come back positive?
May only be positive with subclinical disease (intermittently positive) or Active TB disease -not for eliminated infections or latent infections
68
What is the initial screening strategy for TB?
Sputum smear
69
How many sputum smears need to be done before we can rule out TB?
3
70
When will a sputum smear come back positive?
Normally only with active TB disease -this may still give a false negative
71
When is TB considered infectious?
Sporadically when it is subclinical disease Active disease *not when it is latent or eliminated by the immune system
72
When will patients experience TB symptoms?
Mild or no symptoms with subclinical disease Active disease
73
During what stages would we start TB treatment in a patient?
Infection eliminated by innate or acquired immune response: NO Latent TB infection: Preventative therapy Subclinical disease: Multidrug therapy Active disease: Multidrug therapy
74
TB is killed by what besides medications?
Sunlight
75
Which medication would you typically want to avoid or be cautious with in patients living with HIV?
Rifampin
76
How long do symptoms from a rifampin interaction take to appear?
A few days to a week
77
*What is drug-susceptible TB?
TB strains that are sensitive to the standard first-line TB agents
78
What is monoresistant TB?
TB strains that are SENSITIVE to only one anti-TB drug
79
What is polyresistant TB?
TB strains that are resistant to more than one anti-TB drug BUT NOT: INH (isoniazid) or RIF
80
*What is multidrug resistant (MDR) TB?*
TB strains that are resistant to both RIF and INH (isoniazid)
81
What is Extensively drug-resistant (XDR) TB?
TB strains that are resistant to RIF and INH (isoniazid) AND at least one injectable agent (amikacin, kanamycin, capreomycin) AND any of the fluoroquinolones
82
How does resistance occur in TB?
Mycobacterial particles have a spontaneous rate of mutation *TB does not transmit mutations to each other like other bacteria do, mutations only occur spontaneously and at pre-determined mathematical rates
83
What is the mutation rate of Rifampin?
10^(-8)
84
What is the mutation rate of BOTH Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide?
10^(-6)
85
Which TB therapy option is our 6-month therapy?
Standard regimen of: -Rifampin -Isoniazid -Ethambutol -Pyrazinamide "RIPE"
86
Which TB therapy option is our 4-moth therapy?
New regimen: -Rifapentine -Isoniazid -Moxifloxacin -Pyrazinamide "RIPM"