Final: Transplants Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

What is an AUTOtransplantation?

A

Transplant of tissue from one part of the body to another

-same person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an ALLOtransplantation?

A

Transplant of tissue from one person to another person

-different person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a XENOtransplantation?

A

Transplant of tissue from a different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does orthotopic mean?

A

Transplanted into the recipient in the same place it came from

(ex: heart, lung transplant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does heterotopic mean?

A

Transplanted into the recipient un a different place than it came from

***ex: kidney where we do not remove the old kidneys and just add a new one in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 types of deceased organ donors?

A

Deceased by brain death (DBD)

Decreased by circulatory death (DCD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does “deceased by brain death” mean?

A

Primary brain death with intact cardiac and respiratory function

*Organs are perfused until the time of procurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does “deceased by circulatory death” mean?

A

Does not meet the brain death criteria

*Non-beating heart donation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Group AB blood is considered the “universal” what?

A

Recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Group O blood is considered the “universal” what?

A

Donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)/ Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) Complex?

A

-An association of genes found on the short arm of chromosome 6
-These play an important role in immune recognition and response

-Used to determine compatibility for transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are HLA antibodies formed?

A

-Do not form naturally
-Form in response to non-self HLA exposure (sensitizing events)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the presence of pre-transplant HLA donor-specific antibodies (DSA) indicate?

A

Contraindication in deceased donor transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the presence of post-transplant donor-specific antibodies (DSA) indicate?

A

Failure of immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Panel Reactive Antibodies (PRA)?

A

Amount of pre-formed HLA antibodies in a recipient compared to the general population

% of the panel to which the patient has developed antibody

*Higher the PRA = increased sensitization to MHC antigens (bad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What percent is considered sensitized (high risk) for a Panel Reactive Antibody study (PRA)?

A

20-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a crossmatch?

A

Must obtain negative results before a transplant

-Test the recipient’s serum (lymphocytes) against donor T cells to determine if there is preformed anti-HLA Class I antibody

-A positive test indicates the presence of pre-formed donor-specific antigens and has a high risk of rejection
**Transplant is typically cancelled if this comes back positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 types of donor-specific HLA antibody testing (Crossmatch)?

A

Standard: Qualitative (positive or negative)

Flow: Quantitative (measures degree of antibody activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 3 things do we want to balance out with immunosuppressive therapy?

A

Rejection
Infection
Toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

African Americans tend to be rapid metabolizers of what drug?

A

Tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

African Americans may benefit from what drug?

A

Envarsus

-a prolonged-release tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a hyperacute rejection?

A

OCCURS INSTANTLY -within minutes to hours after transplant

-Mediated by preformed circulating antibodies

-Not common anymore due to pre-testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is an acute rejection?

A

Highest risk of occurrence in the first year

-Occurs within days to months after transplant

-T-cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a chronic rejection?

A

Occurs months to years after transplant

-Both cellular-mediated and antibody mediated

Appears as a progressive decline in organ function

-all organs are at risk for this due to organ expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Under-immunosuppressing a transplant patient creates a risk of what?
Rejection
26
Over-immunosuppressing a transplant patient creates a risk of what?
Infection Toxicity Malignancy
27
What are the 3 types of immunosuppressive regimens?
Induction therapy Maintenance therapy Rejection therapy
28
What is induction therapy?
Intense prophylactic therapy given AT THE TIME OF THE TRANSPLANT
29
What is maintenance therapy?
Long-term, chronic immunosuppression given after transplant *lifelong
30
What is rejection therapy?
Most intense form of therapy used in response to a rejection episode
31
What are the agents that can be used in induction therapy?
Polyclonal Antibodies -Rabbit Antithymocyte Globulin (Thymoglobulin) -Horse Antithymocyte Globulin (ATGAM) Monoclonal Antibodies -Alemtuzumab IL-2a Receptor Antagonists -Basiliximab
32
How does Rabbit Antithymocyte Globulin work?
Contains polyclonal IgG against human T-lymphocytes derived from rabbits Reduces the number of circulating T-lymphocytes which alters T-cell activation, homing, and cytotoxic function
33
**What is the main thing to remember about the action of rabbit antithymocyte globulin?
Lymphocyte depletion
34
**What are the main adverse effects of rabbit antithymocyte globulin?
Leukopenia + Thrombocytopenia --dose limiting Fever + Chills --premedicate with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen
35
What is the indication for alemtuzumab?
Off-label use in solid organ transplant for induction
36
**How does Alemtuzumab work?
Humanized *anti-CD52* monoclonal antibody
37
**What is the main function of Alemtuzumab?
Profound depletion of T cells
38
What is a benefit to Alemtuzumab's dosing?
1 dose intraoperatively -shorter hospital stay -get maintenance therapy the next day
39
What are the adverse effects of Alemtuzumab?
Infusion-related reactions: Chills, Rigors, Fever *pre-medicate with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen
40
How does Basiliximab work?
Recombinant, chimeric, monoclonal antibody against *CD25* Competitively inhibits IL-2-mediated activation of lymphocytes
41
**What is the main consideration with Basiliximab?
Non-lymphodepleting (competitively inhibits their activity at the receptor but does not knock out the B and T cells)
42
What are the depleting induction agents?
Alemtuzumab Thymoglobulin
43
What is the non-depleting induction agent?
Basiliximab
44
What are the monoclonal induction agents?
Alemtuzumab Basiliximab
45
What is the polyclonal induction agent?
Thymoglobulin
46
What type of induction therapy is more commonly used? Lymphocyte depleting or non-depleting?
Lymphocyte depleting *especially for high-risk patients
47
When would we use Basiliximab?
Only if one of these patient factors is present: -History of malignancy -High infection risk, immunocompromised -HIV, untreated HCV -Advanced age (>65)
48
What are the drug classes used for maintenance therapy?
Calcineurin Inhibitors Antimetabolites mTOR Inhibitors Corticosteroids T-cell Co-stimulation Blocker
49
What are the calcineurin inhibitors?
Cyclosporine Tacrolimus
50
What are the antimetabolites?
Azathioprine Mycophenolate mofetil Mycophenolate sodium
51
What are the mTOR inhibitors?
Sirolimus Everolimus
52
What are the corticosteroids?
Methylprednisolone Prednisone Dexamethasone
53
What is the T-cell Co-stimulation Blocker?
Belatacept
54
**Which drug class is the cornerstone of immunosuppression and the most commonly used?
Calcineurin Inhibitors (Tacrolimus, Cyclosporine)
55
What is the moa of the calcineurin inhibitors?
Induce immunosuppression by inhibiting signal-1 of T-cell activation Inhibit calcineurin phosphatase enzyme within the T cell (prevents T cell activation)
56
What formulation of cyclosporine is non-modified and should never be used?
Sandimmune -has poor and erratic bioavailability
57
What is an important thing to remember about the different brands of cyclosporine?
The modified and non-modified forms are NOT interchangeable
58
What is the immediate-release form of tacrolimus?
Prograf
59
What are the extended-release forms of tacrolimus?
Astagraf XL Envarsus XR
60
**What are the benefits to using extended-release tacrolimus?
-Lower overall dose -Improved adherence -Less peak effects (reduced adverse effects) -Less swings/variability in trough concentration
61
What form of Tacrolimus do we never want to use in solid organ transplant?
IV -increased risk of nephrotoxicity -you are harming the new kidney
62
**What considerations do we make with Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) of Tacrolimus?
50x more potent than cyclosporine Goal 12-hr trough ranges: about 5-15 ng/mL *Different conversions for IR vs ER
63
What is the conversion between Prograf (immediate release tacrolimus) and Envarsus (extended release)?
1mg Prograf = 0.8mg Envarsus
64
**How is cyclosporine metabolized?
Cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 *P-glycoprotein (unique to this drug)
65
**How is Tacrolimus metabolized?
Cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4
66
What is important to know about cyclosporine elimination?
Highly variable! T 1/2 is 10-40hr
67
**What are Cyclosporine's adverse effects?
Hypertension Hypercholesterolemia Hypertriglyceridemia *Gingival hyperplasia *Hirsutism
68
What are Tacrolimus's adverse effects?
Neurotoxicity -headache -insomnia -*tremor* -dizziness Hyperglycemia/ post-transplant diabetes Alopecia
69
**What are the CYP 450 inducers that will decrease tacrolimus/ cephalosporin concentrations?
Phenytoin Carbamazepine Phenobarbital Rifampin
70
**What are the CYP 450 inhibitors that will increase tacrolimus/cephalosporin concentrations?
Erythromycin + Clarithromycin Azole Antifungals (fluconazole) Diltiazem + Verapamil Ritonavir Grapefruit juice
71
**How does liver dysfunction affect tacrolimus?
Tacrolimus is predominantly eliminated through the liver, half life is prolonged
72
**How does renal dysfunction affect the calcineurin inhibitors?
Dose adjustments are not needed
73
What is the moa of azathioprine?
Antimetabolite -Purine analog
74
What are the adverse effects of Azathioprine?
GI: Abdominal Pain, N/V, Diarrhea, Dyspepsia Bone Marrow Suppression: Agranulocytosis, Macrocytic Anemia, Leukopenia, Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia
75
What drugs does Azathioprine interact with?
Allopurinol + Febuxostat -these reduce AZA concentrations by 50-75%
76
Which drug is the most commonly used adjunct agent with calcineurin inhibitors?
Mycophenolic Acid
77
What is the moa of mycophenolic acid?
Inhibits de novo synthesis of purines (selective for lymphocytes) Limits progression of activated T and B cells
78
What is the immediate release form of mycophenolic acid and where is it released?
Mycophenolate mofetil -released in the stomach
79
What is the delayed release form of mycophenolic acid and where is it released?
Mycophenolate sodium -small intestine
80
**What is the conversion factor between the 2 forms of Mycophenolic acid?
Mofetil 250mg = Sodium 180mg IV:PO = 1:1
81
**What is the adverse effect to know for Mycophenolic Acid?
FDA pregnancy category D (teratogenic) -formal consent required for women of childbearing potential (REMS program) -2 forms of birth control required
82
**What drug interactions occur with mycophenolic acid?
Other myelosuppressive drugs -Valganciclovir -Sirolimus (increases myelosuppression)
83
What is the most common place in therapy for the mTOR inhibitors (Sirolimus, Everolimus)?
Most commonly used to replace mycophenolate
84
**How are the mTOR inhibitors metabolized?
CYP 3A4 + P-glycoprotein *same mechanism as the calcineurin inhibitors*
85
**What is Sirolimus approved for?
Kidney transplant
86
**What Everolimus approved for?
Kidney + Liver transplant
87
**What are the adverse effects of the mTOR inhibitors? (sirolimus, everolimus)
Edema *Hyperlipidemia *Hypertriglyceridemia *Impaired wound healing Mouth ulcers Proteinuria
88
When would we NOT want to give an mTOR inhibitor?
If they have had recent surgery or are going to have surgery Avoid immediately post-transplantation -impaired wound healing
89
**What drugs were the original cornerstone of immunosuppression?
Corticosteroids
90
**How are corticosteroids dosed for transplants?
Tapered to low dose or completely off post- transplant Some centers use early steroid withdrawal or steroid-free regimens
91
What are important points to know about corticosteroid adverse effects and what are the main adverse events to watch?
*The adverse events are related to both average and cumulative duration doses* -Hyperglycemia -Hypertension
92
**When is Belatacept contraindicated?
Liver transplants EBV seronegative patients (must be positive to receive)
93
**What is the dosing of Belatacept?
IV only -Given every 4 weeks at an infusion clinic
94
**What is a benefit to Belatacept dosing?
Guaranteed adherence
95
**What is the place of Belatacept in transplant therapy?
Replacement or adjunct to CNI
96
What is the preferred regimen for Maintenance Immunosuppression?
Tacrolimus + Mycophenolate + Prednisone
97
What is the typical regimen for Acute Cellular Rejection?
Mild-Moderate: High-dose corticosteroid Moderate-Severe: Rabbit antithymocyte globulin Refractory: alemtuzumab
98
What is the typical regimen for Antibody Mediated Rejection (AMR)?
Steroids +/- Rituximab +/- IVIG
99
What infection are transplant patients at the biggest risk for?
PCP/ PJP
100
**What do we use to treat a PCP/PJP infection in transplant patients?
Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim (Bactrim)
101
**What do we use to treat an HSV, VZV, or Cytomegalovirus infection in transplant patients?
Valganciclovir
102
**What do we use to treat a fungal infection in transplant patients (aspergillus spp.)?
Posaconazole
103
What pathogen are we most concerned about in lung transplants?
Aspergillus