Exam 6 Psychiatric Mental Health NP Flashcards

(392 cards)

1
Q

What nursing skill did the Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) initiative seek to improve?

A

Computer and information literacy

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2
Q

The Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) initiative developed

A

a 10-year plan for nursing’s path toward computer and information literacy. It involved more than 1,100 nursing content experts, and it took three years to complete. This initiative successfully defined the basic technology competencies and required curriculum for nurse practitioner education.

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3
Q

The TIGER initiative declared that it is a nurse practitioner’s responsibility to

A

understand and shape the landscape of health care technology in order to improve access, quality, and the patient experience.

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4
Q

Core symptoms of major depressive disorders in children are

A

irritability, somatic complaints, and social withdrawal.

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5
Q

Less common symptoms of major depressive disorders in children include

A

psychosis, motor retardation, hypersomnia, and increased appetite

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6
Q

To assess a patient’s potential to harm others in addition to themselves, nurse practitioners should ask the following questions:

A

Are there others who you think may be responsible for what you are experiencing?
Are you having thoughts of harming others? Who?
Are there other people you want to die with you?
Are there others who you think would be unable to go on without you?

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7
Q

For patients who present with thoughts about wanting to harm themselves, nurse practitioners could consider asking:

A

How close have you come to acting on those thoughts?
How likely do you think it is that you will act on them in the future?
What do you envision happening if you actually killed yourself?
Have you made a specific plan to harm yourself?
Are guns or other weapons available to you?
Have you made particular preparations for your death?

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8
Q

When clients are involuntarily admitted to an inpatient psychiatric facility,

A

they are admitted against their will, they are unable to come and go as they please, and the amount of time they can be kept against their wishes varies by state. These are examples of civil liberties that are withdrawn during the involuntary admission process.

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9
Q

If a client is voluntarily admitted to an inpatient psychiatric facility, they desire and agree to treatment and confinement within the structure of a hospital setting. The client maintains

A

all civil liberties, and they are able to leave as they please as long as they are not a danger to themselves or others or gravely disabled.

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10
Q

Clients are able to make phone calls, have visitors, and refuse medication. These civil liberties are maintained

A

even when admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit involuntarily.

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11
Q

Prozac (fluoxetine) is an SSRI antidepressant and can produce a false positive for

A

methamphetamine.

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12
Q

Zoloft (sertraline) can produce a false positive for

A

benzodiazepines

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13
Q

Motrin can produce a false positive for

A

cocaine

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14
Q

Poppy seeds can produce a false positive

A

for heroin or morphine

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15
Q

Pharmacokinetics refers to

A

what the body does to a drug when it’s ingested.

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16
Q

Pharmacodynamics is the term that describes

A

what a drug does to the body when ingested and paired with the individual’s pharmacodynamic gene profile.

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17
Q

Norepinephrine:

A

alertness, focused attention, learning, and memory

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18
Q

Dopamine

A

_thinking, fine muscle action, and reward-seeking behavior

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19
Q

GABA_

A

reduces arousal, aggression, and anxiety

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20
Q

Serotonin

A

regulates sleep, pain, mood states, and temperature

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21
Q

Nurse practitioner core competencies include the following:

A
Scientific foundations
Leadership
Quality
Practice inquiry
Technology and information literacy
Policy
Health delivery systems
Ethics
Independent practice
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22
Q

What court case determined that the presence of a mental illness alone cannot justify involuntary hospitalization?

A

O’Connor vs. Donaldson

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23
Q

The 1976 case O’Connor vs. Donaldson ruled that

A

harmless mentally ill patients cannot be confined against their will if they can survive outside. This case determined that the presence of a mental illness alone cannot justify involuntary hospitalization.

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24
Q

In 1979, Rennie vs. Klein determined that

A

patients have the right to refuse any treatment and use an appeal process.

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25
In 1981, Roger vs. Oken determined that
patients have an absolute right to refuse treatment but that a guardian may authorize their treatment.
26
Durham vs. United States
determined that an individual is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of mental illness. This case is known for originating the insanity defense.
27
Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are
perfectionistic and rigid. They are often workaholics who are indecisive, excessively scrupulous, and preoccupied with detail.
28
Patients with paranoid personality disorder are
suspicious, have few friends, and read hidden meaning into innocent remarks
29
Patients with narcissistic personality disorder
act self-important. They are preoccupied with envy, fantasies of success, and ruminations about the uniqueness of their own problems. They reject criticism and need constant admiration from others.
30
A nurse practitioner has the duty to protect identified victims from imminent danger. When a patient threatens to harm someone, your course of action should follow these steps:
Contact the party at risk Notify the police Take appropriate action to protect the party at risk
31
There are three phases of a therapeutic relationship between a nurse practitioner and his or her patient:
Introduction Working Termination
32
During the introduction phase, the following actions usually take place:
Creating a trusting environment Establishing professional boundaries Establishing the length of anticipated interaction Providing diagnostic evaluation Setting mutually agreed-upon treatment objectives
33
Mind-body interventions under the umbrella of complementary and alternative therapies (CATS) include the following:
Guided imagery Meditation Yoga Biofeedback
34
Massage therapy and acupressure are
manipulative body-based therapies.
35
Vitamins and supplements are a
biological-based therapy.
36
From a systems perspective, the goal is to optimize rather than maximize what?
the goal is to optimize the quality recommendations from the Institute of Medicine (safe, effective, patient-centered, timely, efficient, and equitable) rather than maximize them. From a systems perspective, the goal is to optimize rather than maximize the performance of each of its components in order to bolster the system's overall production.
37
When involuntarily admitted to an inpatient psychiatric facility,
the client is not able to come and go as they please, which is a civil liberty.
38
Preventative factors are factors that protect a person from
developing a psychiatric condition.
39
Preventative factors fall into three categories:
biological, psychological, and social.
40
Biological preventative factors:
Without a history of mental illness in the family Healthy nutritional status Good general health
41
Psychological preventative factors:
Good self-esteem Good self-concept Internal locus of control Healthy ego defenses
42
Social preventative factors:
Low-stress occupation Higher socioeconomic status Higher level of education
43
Both serotonin and norepinephrine are removed from the synaptic cleft and returned to storage
via an active reuptake process.
44
Dopamine, on the other hand, is removed from the synaptic cleft by
monoamine oxidase enzymatic action.
45
The Institutional Review Board
protects the rights and welfare of human research participants. They have the authority to approve, require modifications, or disapprove of any research activities.
46
The Institutional Review Board ensures that
Risks to participants are minimized Participant selection is equitable Adverse events are reported Risks and benefits are evaluated Informed consent is obtained and documented Data safety monitoring plans are implemented when indicated
47
In a medical malpractice suit, the plaintiff must establish all of the following
The nurse practitioner owed the plaintiff a duty The nurse practitioner's conduct fell below the standard of care The nurse practitioner's conduct caused the plaintiff injury
48
Proof beyond reasonable doubt applies to
criminal cases.
49
Medical malpractice suits are
civil cases.
50
To establish a medical malpractice suit, the plaintiff must establish that a
dereliction of duty directly caused damage (also known as the four Ds of medical malpractice).
51
The burden of proof in medical malpractice suits is by
a preponderance of evidence (greater than 50%).
52
Specifiers used to describe mood disorders include the following: With atypical features:
These patients eat a lot and gain weight, sleep excessively, and have a feeling of being sluggish or paralyzed. They are also sensitive to rejection.
53
With melancholic features:
These patients feel worse in the morning than in the afternoon, and they experience decreased appetite, weight loss, and agitation. They also tend to feel excessively guilty and have trouble making decisions.
54
With anxious distress:
These patients have high levels of tension, restlessness, worry, and fear.
55
With catatonic features:
These patients exhibit either motor hyperactivity or inactivity.
56
With mixed features:
These patients are experiencing a mixture of both manic and depressive symptoms.
57
With peripartum onset:
These patients develop a mood episode during pregnancy or within a month of having their baby.
58
With psychotic features:
These patients develop delusions or hallucinations along with their mood symptoms.
59
With rapid cycling:
These patients have experienced at least four mood episodes in the past year.
60
With seasonal pattern:
These patients regularly become ill at a certain time of the year.
61
Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are
perfectionistic and rigid. They are often workaholics who are indecisive, excessively scrupulous, and preoccupied with detail.
62
Patients with paranoid personality disorder are
suspicious, have few friends, and read hidden meaning into innocent remarks.
63
Patients with narcissistic personality disorder act self-important. They are preoccupied with
envy, fantasies of success, and ruminations about the uniqueness of their own problems. They reject criticism and need constant admiration from others.
64
Patients with dependent personality disorder
fear abandonment, feel helpless when they are alone, and are miserable when relationships end. They desperately desire the approval of others, and they often volunteer for unpleasant tasks to gain the favor of others.
65
An atypical presentation is characterized by the following:
``` Mood reactivity Weight gain Increased appetite Hypersomnia Leaden paralysis Long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity ```
66
Anhedonia is
the inability to feel pleasure, and it occurs in both typical and atypical presentations of major depressive disorder.
67
Vietnamese describe panic attacks
"Hit by the wind"
68
Latin Americans:
Attack of the nerves" | C
69
"Cambodians
"Soul loss"
70
What term most accurately describes a group of members of Congress or a political party created to support a defined political ideology?
caucus. A caucus is a group of members of Congress or a political party created to support a defined political ideology
71
Common herbals with psychoactive effects used to treat insomnia:
Valerian Catnip Chamomile, which also helps with anxiety
72
Ginkgo,
which helps with delirium, dementia, and sexual dysfunction
73
Black cohosh,
which is used to treat menopausal symptoms, premenstrual syndrome, and dysmenorrhea
74
Belladonna,
which is used to treat anxiety
75
Ginseng,
which helps with depression and fatigue
76
Most psychotropic medications are hepatic
cytochrome P450 inhibitors. Furthermore, most psychotropic medications are both lipophilic and highly protein-bound
77
Because many older adults have more body fat and less protein,It takes approximately five half-lives to completely eliminate most psychotropics from the body.
they are at increased risk for toxicity.
78
It takes approximately______________________ to completely eliminate most psychotropics from the body.
five half-lives
79
Bulimia does not usually affect
thyroid function;
80
laboratory findings in patients with bulimia might include the following:
Hypokalemia Hypochloremia High serum amylase Hypomagnesemia
81
Preventative factors are those that They fall into three categories: biological, psychological, and social.
protect a person from developing a psychiatric condition.
82
Preventative factors fall into three categories:
biological, psychological, and social.
83
Biological preventative factors:
Without a history of mental illness in the family Healthy nutritional status Good general health
84
Psychological preventative factors:
Good self-esteem Good self-concept Internal locus of control Healthy ego defenses
85
Social preventative factors:
Low-stress occupation Higher socioeconomic status Higher level of education
86
According to Freud, during what psychosexual stage of development are sexual concerns largely unimportant?
Latency stage. The latency stage is characterized by a time in which sexual concerns are largely unimportant. During this phase, children establish decisive patterns of adaptive functioning. They develop a sense of industry and a capacity for mastery of objects. This is the phase in which children develop a foundation for mature adult life satisfaction.
87
Freud's stages of psychosexual development:
_birth to 12-18 monthsAnal_ 12-18 months to 3 yearsPhallic_ 3 to 5-6 yearsLatency_ 5-6 years to adolescenceGenital_ adolescence to adulthood
88
According to Erik Erikson, during which psychosocial stage would you expect a person to develop a sense of unity in life's accomplishments?
Ego Integrity vs. Despair. Ego Integrity vs. Despair is the final stage of psychosocial development. Successful resolution of this stage is characterized by a sense of unity in life's accomplishments. Failure to resolve this stage leads to regret over lost opportunities of life.
89
What is the most commonly used clinician-administered anxiety rating scale?
The Hamilton Anxiety Scale (HAM-A) is the most commonly used clinician-administered anxiety rating scale. It is best used in the evaluation of anxiety severity and tracking the efficacy of anxiety treatments over time.
90
The HAM-A is based on various domains of anxiety including
anxious mood, fears, sleep disturbance, somatic complaints, tension, and observed behavior.
91
The severity of each domain in HAM A is ranked from
0 (not present) to 4 (severe).
92
HAM A scoring
Score of 14-17: Mild anxiety Score of 18-24: Moderate anxiety Score of 25-30: Severe anxiety
93
Calcium values can be decreased during treatment with
anticonvulsants, aspirin, corticosteroids, heparin and oral contraceptives.
94
is a common non-psychoactive supplement used to cure symptoms of illness and maintain health.
Fish oil
95
Common non-psychoactive dietary supplements with physiological (not psychological) effects used to cure illnesses and maintain health are as follows:
``` Omega-3 fatty acids Tryptophan Vitamin E Melatonin SAM-e ```
96
What 1960 legal precedent approved a test of competence that determines if a criminal defendant is competent to stand trial?
Dusky vs United States The 1960 case of Dusky vs. United States approved a test of competence that seeks to ascertain whether a criminal defendant has the ability to consult with a lawyer and to rationally understand the proceedings against him or her. This case established competence to stand trial.
97
Durham vs. United States
determined that an individual is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of mental illness. This case is known for originating the insanity defense.
98
O'Connor vs. Donaldson
The 1976 case ruled that harmless mentally ill patients cannot be confined against their will if they can survive outside. This case determined that the presence of a mental illness alone cannot justify involuntary hospitalization.
99
In 1979, ____________ determined that patients have the right to refuse any treatment and use an appeal process.
Rennie vs. Klein case
100
Altitude sickness might be included in the differential diagnosis of
panic disorder.
101
Mitral valve prolapse might be included in the differential diagnosis of
mania and severe anxiety.
102
Myasthenia gravis might be included in the differential diagnosis of
anxiety.
103
Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is an enduring pattern of angry or irritable mood and argumentative, defiant, or vindictive behavior lasting at least
six months with at least four of the following associated symptoms: ``` Loses temper Touchy or easily annoyed Angry or resentful Argues with authority Actively defies or refuses to comply with requests or rules from authority figures Blames others Deliberately annoys others Spiteful or vindictive ```
104
Physical exam findings and associated features of Rett syndrome are as follows:
``` Seizures Irregular respirations Scoliosis Loss of purposeful hand skills Stereotypic hand movements ```
105
Rett syndrome's etiology is unknown. However, it is believed that children suffering from Rett syndrome have
1. A known, progressive, and deteriorating course of illness after an initial period without apparent disability 2. A potential metabolic disorder 3. Genetic mutation(s)
106
A client taking clozapine is presenting with elevated body temperature. You recognize this potential serious side effect as:
Agranulocytosis
107
Agranulocytosis is a
serious acute condition involving severe and dangerous leukopenia (lowered white blood cell count), most commonly of neutrophils, thus causing neutropenia in the circulating blood.
108
Hyperprolactinemia is a
condition in which a person has higher-than-normal levels of the hormone prolactin in the blood, potentially causing the stimulation of breast milk.
109
Anemia is a condition in which
a person lacks enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to the body's organs and tissues.
110
Hemophilia is a condition
where the body's ability to form blood clots is reduced.
111
Physical exam findings in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are
nonspecific in nature.
112
Primary prevention is aimed at
decreasing the number of new cases of mental disorders. An example of primary prevention is Drug Abuse Resistance Education (D.A.R.E.) programs in elementary and middle schools.
113
Secondary prevention is aimed
at decreasing the number of existing cases of mental disorder. Examples of secondary prevention include telephone hotlines, crisis intervention, and disaster response.
114
Tertiary prevention is aimed at r.
decreasing the disability and severity of a mental health disorder. Providing social skills education for a group of intellectually disabled teenagers is an example of tertiary prevention.
115
The deductible is
the amount that people spend before their health insurance pays for the cost of health care services.
116
The insurance premium is
the amount charged for insurance coverage, usually paid on a monthly basis by both the employer and the employee.
117
The loading charge is .
the amount charged by the health insurance company on a person's renewal premium when they make claims on their policy
118
The latency stage is characterized by a time
in which sexual concerns are largely unimportant. During this phase, children establish decisive patterns of adaptive functioning. They develop a sense of industry and a capacity for mastery of objects. This is the phase in which children develop a foundation for mature adult life satisfaction.
119
Freud's stages of psychosexual development:
_birth to 12-18 monthsAnal_ 12-18 months to 3 yearsPhallic_ 3 to 5-6 yearsLatency_ 5-6 years to adolescenceGenital_ adolescence to adulthood
120
Enuresis refers to the repeated voiding of urine (either voluntarily or involuntarily) into bedding or clothing when
five years old or older.
121
Which piece of legislation established the prescription drug coverage (Part D) option under Medicare?
The Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 established the prescription drug coverage (Part D) option under Medicare. This legislation replaced Medicare + Choice with Medicare Advantage.
122
The Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) initiative developed
a 10-year plan for nursing's path toward computer and information literacy.
123
In February 2009, President Barack Obama signed into law the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) (Pub. L. 111-5). The ARRA includes
the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act, which attempts to update the American infrastructure, including the use of electronic health records.
124
Patients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are
perfectionistic and rigid. They are often workaholics who are indecisive, excessively scrupulous, and preoccupied with detail.
125
Minipress (prazosin) is
FDA-approved for the treatment of nightmares associated with PTSD.
126
SSRIs FDA approved for the treatment of PTSD
Zoloft and Paxil
127
The benefits of group therapy include the following:
Increases insight about oneself Increases one's social skills Is cost-effective Develops sense of community
128
Screening for developmental delays is a critical component of assessing for ASD. Checklists for this include the following:
Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (Age-Specific) Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule-Generic (ADOS-G) Ages and Stages Questionnaires
129
Parents may also report the following symptoms in child with ASD:
No cooing by age one year, no single words by age 16 months, no two-word phrases by age 24 months Loss of language skills No imaginary play Little interest in playing with other children Extremely short attention span No response when called by name Little or no eye contact Intense tantrums Fixations on single objects Unusually strong resistance to changes in routines Oversensitivity to certain sounds, textures, or smells Appetite or sleep-rest disturbance, or both Self-injurious behavior
130
For an act to be considered criminal, it must have two components:
actus reus and mens rea.
131
Actus reus refers to
voluntary conduct. Voluntary conduct is deemed impossible if the offender’s mental status is deficient, abnormal, or diseased in a way that inhibits rational intent.
132
Mens rea refers
to evil intent. Evil intent is defined as the resolve to do harm. Neither behavior nor intent alone is enough to convict a person of a crime.
133
is the only state where nurse practitioners bill at 100% of the allowable physician rate.
Iowa
134
Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorders are characterized by
a mismatch between a person's biological clock and the environment.
135
There are five subtypes of circadian rhythm mismatch:
Delayed sleep phase type Advanced sleep phase type Irregular sleep-wake type Non-24-hour sleep-wake type Shift work type
136
Delayed sleep phase type:
falling asleep and waking later than desired
137
Advanced sleep phase type:
falling asleep and waking earlier than desired
138
Irregular sleep-wake type:
falling asleep and waking at random times
139
Non-24-hour sleep-wake type:
falling asleep and usually waking progressively later than desired
140
Shift work type:
sleepiness associated with changes in work schedule
141
Jet lag refers to
feeling sleepy or "hungover" after crossing time zones. It is no longer considered a sleep disorder.
142
Which anxiety disorder is characterized by brief episodes of intense dread accompanied by physical symptoms like chest pain, chills, shortness of breath, and an irregular heartbeat?
Panic d/o
143
Privilege refers to
the patient's right to prevent disclosure of confidential information in judicial hearings.
144
Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of .
bioethics that asserts an obligation not to inflict harm intentionally.
145
Beneficence refers to
an action done for the benefit of others.
146
Confidentiality refers to
the nurse practitioner's responsibility to not release patient information learned in the course of treatment to third parties
147
The National Institutes of Health (NIH) created the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) in ____with mission to ___________
in 1998. The mission of NCCAM is to study therapies outside of traditional medicine.
148
Decreased levels of sodium (Na) can cause
Diuresis
149
Increased, levels of sodium (Na) can cause
dehydration, diabetes insipidus, and gastroenteritis.
150
laboratory findings in patients with bulimia might include the following:
Hypokalemia Hypochloremia High serum amylase Hypomagnesemia
151
Forensic risk assessments are specifically for those with a
violent, dangerous, and/or criminal record and often take place in a judicial arena such as jail, prison, or court.
152
Failure to resolve the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage is associated with the
development of a mid-life crisis.
153
Failure to resolve the Industry vs. Inferiority stage is associated with
creative inhibition.
154
Failure to resolve the Initiative vs. Guilt stage is associated with
conversion disorder, phobias, and psychosomatic disorders.
155
during the DNA sequencing process single nucleotide polymorphisms detect
Single nucleotide polymorphisms detect single based changes
156
The FDA has approved both ______ for the treatment of ADHD in children.
stimulants and non-stimulants
157
The following medications are FDA approved but are not classified as stimulants:
Strattera (atomoxetine) Intuniv (guanfacine) Kapvay (clonidine)
158
The following are stimulants:
Adderall (amphetamine salts) | Dexedrine (dextroamphetamine)
159
Wellbutrin XL (bupropion) is an SNRI but is indicated in the treatment of
ADHD in adults.
160
The trigeminal nerve CN _________ assessment tests for tactile perception of the facial skin.
(cranial nerve V, sensory division)
161
The facial nerve CN_________assessment checks for flaccid paralysis.
(cranial nerve VII, motor division)
162
The hypoglossal nerve CN_____ assessment tests for tremors and other involuntary movements when the client protrudes their tongue.
(cranial nerve XII)
163
The most common suicide site in the world is the
Golden Gate Bridge in San Francisco, California.
164
Suicide rates are lowest in and highest in Monta
New Jersey
165
Suicide rates are highest in
Montana
166
Panic disorder is significantly comorbid with many general medical conditions, including the following:
``` Irritable bowel syndrome Dizziness Cardiac arrhythmias Hyperthyroidism Asthma COPD ```
167
Brain tissue is categorized as either
white matter or gray matter.
168
White matter is the
myelinated axons of neurons
169
Gray matter is composed
of nerve cell bodies and dendrites.
170
Gray matter is found in the
working area of the brain and contains the synapses.
171
A Medicare medical savings account plan is
a health plan that allows individuals to establish tax-free savings funds to finance their medical care.
172
Medicare + Choice was
part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 that significantly increased the number of managed care insurance plans available to Medicare recipients. This program was replaced with the Medicare Advantage plan in 2003.
173
The Medicare Advantage plan
created regional Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO) and gave Medicare enrollees the option of enrolling in private insurance plans.
174
Medigap insurance policies are
private policies purchased by elderly individuals to cover some or all of their medical expenses not paid for by Medicare.
175
Medicare + Choice was replaced by
This program was replaced with the Medicare Advantage plan in 2003.
176
Psychoanalytic theory originated with
Sigmund Freud, who believed that behavior is determined by unconscious motivations and instinctual drives. This theory posits that change occurs through the development of greater insight and awareness of maladaptive defenses. Psychoanalytic-focused therapy attends to past developmental and psychodynamic factors, which shape present behaviors.
177
Cognitive therapy,
helps patients view reality more clearly by examining their distorted cognitions.
178
A patient presents with oculomotor disturbances, cerebellar ataxia, and mental confusion. What psychiatric emergency would you suspect?
Wernicke's encephalopathy | Give thiamine IM or IV 100mg
179
has the lowest risk of sedation of all antipsychotics, and it is recommended as the treatment of choice for those wanting to avoid side effects of fatigue and sleepiness.
Aripiprazole
180
Extrapyramidal symptoms are associated with a deficiency of .
dopamine and an excess of acetylcholine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
181
A common type of extrapyramidal symptom is called pseudo-Parkinson's, which presents
with a shuffling gait, motor slowing, mask-like facial expression, tremors, and muscle rigidity.
182
Muscarinic 1 agonist medications reduce the effects of
excess acetylcholine and relieve extrapyramidal symptoms
183
Biofeedback teaches a patient
to control their physiological responses
184
Acupuncture and acupressure aid in the activity of
endorphins by manipulating points of energy flow in the body.
185
Aromatherapy stimulates
the olfactory system to elicit feelings and memories.
186
Massage increases
blood circulation, improves lymph flow, and enhances musculoskeletal tone.
187
The overall goal of case management is
to promote quality, cost-effective patient care.
188
Mentoring is the process of
guiding and supporting junior colleagues in the development of new roles, competencies, and skills.
189
The acoustic nerve (cranial nerve)
CN VIII) vestibulocochlear is assessed by checking the client's hearing using an audiometer or by simply whispering in the client's ear. Hearing loss is tested with the Weber and Rinne tests.
190
The oculomotor nerve
(cranial nerve III) assessment checks the five extrinsic eye muscles; it is tested together with the trochlear (cranial nerve IV) and abducens (cranial nerve VI). This test checks for equality of pupils, their reaction to light, and accommodation. This test also checks for the corneal light reflex.
191
The trochlear assessment
(cranial nerve IV) uses the same process as the oculomotor (cranial nerve III) and abducens (cranial nerve VI) and tests for synergy of the eyes working together and in tandem.
192
The ten common withdrawal symptoms assessed on the CIWA scale are as follows:
``` Nausea and vomiting Tremors Paroxysmal sweats Anxiety Agitation Tactile disturbances Auditory disturbances Visual disturbances Headaches Altered sensorium ```
193
The four major dimensions of recovery include
health, home, purpose, and community.
194
What is the most common sexual dysfunction side effect reported by women who are prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
Anorgasmia is the most commonly reported sexual dysfunction side effect in women who are taking SSRIs. This is defined as the persistent inability to achieve orgasm despite responding to sexual stimulation.
195
To prevent medical malpractice suits, nurse practitioners should follow these guidelines:
Be careful about establishing a patient-provider relationship. Know the standard of care and practice within it. Follow the practice guidelines and protocols adopted by the office or agency and follow them. When in doubt, take a conservative approach. Rule out the worst diagnosis early on. Know the limits of training and expertise. Follow up.
196
At 40 weeks of age, landmarks of normal behavioral development include the following:
Sits alone with good coordination Creeps Pulls self to standing position Points with index finger Matches two objects at midline Attempts to imitate scribble Develops separation anxiety when away from mother Responds to social play such as peek-a-boo Feeds self a cracker and holds own bottle
197
For a person to be diagnosed with Tourette's (TS), they must
Have two or more motor tics (for example, blinking or shrugging the shoulders) and at least one vocal tic (for example, humming, clearing the throat, or yelling out a word or phrase), although they might not always happen at the same time. Have had tics for at least a year. The tics can occur many times a day (usually in bouts) nearly every day, or off and on. Have tics that begin before he or she is 18 years of age. Have symptoms that are not due to taking medicine or other drugs or due to having another medical condition (for example, seizures, Huntington disease, or postviral encephalitis).
198
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterized
by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattentiveness.
199
Stuttering, also called
childhood-onset fluency disorder, occurs when the normal fluency of speech is frequently interrupted.
200
Oppositional defiant disorder is characterized by
multiple examples of negativistic behavior persistent for at least six months, usually beginning when a child is three or four years old.
201
Computer competency is the
ability to demonstrate proficiency in the use of software applications, such as Microsoft Word, Excel, and PowerPoint, and knowledge of computer terminology, hardware selection, and simple maintenance functions.
202
Computer literacy is
the level of expertise and familiarity someone has with computers. It generally refers to the ability to use an application rather than to write code. Individuals who are very computer literate are called power users.
203
Information literacy involves
recognizing when information is needed and being able to efficiently locate and use it.
204
Information competency is
often used as a synonym for information literacy.
205
Megasystem:
American health care system
206
Metasystem:
economic, political, and social level of society
207
Privilege
refers to the patient's right to prevent disclosure of confidential information in judicial hearings
208
Nonmaleficence
refers to the principle of bioethics that asserts an obligation not to inflict harm intentionally.
209
Beneficence
refers to an action done for the benefit of others.
210
The hypothalamus is part of the limbic system. It plays a key role in
various regulatory functions including appetite, water balance, circadian rhythms, body temperature, and libido.
211
The hippocampus regulates .
memory and converts short-term into long-term memory.
212
The amygdala regulates
mood, fear, emotion, and aggression.
213
The thalamus regulates
the flow of sensory information to the cortex
214
Ninety-five percent of lithium is excreted through the kidneys; therefore, you should check
the patient's kidney function by ordering electrolytes, creatinine, BUN, and a urinalysis. Lithium also inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormone, so you should always check thyroid studies as well.
215
Target symptoms of antidepressant treatment include
depressed mood, sleep/rest disturbance, anxiety, irritability, impaired concentration, impaired memory, appetite disturbance, agitation, anhedonia, and impaired energy and motivation.
216
What psychoactive substance is most widely used in the United States?
Cannabinoids, particularly cannabis, are the most widely used psychoactive substances in the United States. The 12-month prevalence of cannabis use disorder is 3.4%. The rates of cannabis use disorder are highest among adult and adolescent males.
217
Which term describes a public agency that uses its bargaining power to negotiate competitive prices for health insurance from the private insurance market?
Health alliance A health alliance is a public agency that uses its bargaining power to negotiate competitive prices for health insurance from the private insurance market.
218
A special interest agency is
a group of people seeking or receiving special advantages through political lobbying.
219
Public interest groups
promote issues of general public concern.
220
A political action committee is
an organization that raises money privately to influence elections or legislation, especially at the federal level.
221
Nursing science is the domain of knowledge concerned with
The adaptation of individuals and groups to actual or potential health problems The environments that influence health in humans The therapeutic interventions that promote health and affect the consequences of illness
222
When initiating treatment with clients who have newly diagnosed bipolar disorder, clients should be seen monthly for titration of medications and monitoring of serum blood levels.
new diagnosed bipolar should be seen weekly. When initiating treatment with clients who have newly diagnosed bipolar disorder, clients should be seen weekly for titration of medications and monitoring of serum blood levels.
223
Beta blockers, benzodiazepines, and retroviral agents cause an exacerbation of,
depressive symptoms
224
presentations of hyponatremia include the following:
``` Apprehension Seizures Coma Hypotension Tachycardia Decreased urine output Weight gain Edema Ascites Jugular vein distension ```
225
Presentations of hypernatremia:
``` Convulsions Pulmonary Edema Thirst Fever Dry mucous membranes Hypotension Tachycardia Low jugular venous pressure Restlessness ```
226
Tryptophan puts a patient on psychotropics at risk
for serotonin syndrome and is not advised when a patient is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).
227
The major characteristics of the phallic stage include
seeking gratification through the genitals, coming to terms with the Oedipal conflict, and identifying with the same sex parent.
228
The latency stage is
characterized by a time in which sexual concerns are largely unimportant.
229
During the genital phase, sexual interests
reemerge and individuals begin to establish mature sexual relationships.
230
Global developmental delay describes a child under
the age of five who seems to be falling behind developmentally, but the practitioner cannot reliably assess the degree.
231
Unspecified intellectual disability is a term used when a c
hild is five years old or older and cannot be reliably assessed due to a physical or mental impairment.
232
Borderline intellectual functioning describes a person with a nominal IQ
ranking of 71 to 84 who does not have the coping problems associated with an intellectual disability.
233
Autism spectrum disorder forms in
early childhood and results in impaired social interactions and communication. These patients usually demonstrate stereotyped behaviors and interests.
234
Bipolar I disorder:
These patients experience at least one manic episode and may or may not experience a major depressive episode.
235
Bipolar II disorder:
These patients experience at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode.
236
Cyclothymic disorder:
These patients experience mood swings, but they are not severe enough to be called major depressive episodes or manic episodes.
237
Schizoaffective disorder is a psychotic disorder
characterized by patients experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia along with either depression or mania.
238
Vitamin E is a .
dietary supplement used in treating neurological disorders, diabetes, and premenstrual syndrome. It is also used for enhancing the immune system and protecting cells against the effects of free radicals.
239
Vitamin B is an
important dietary supplement that plays important roles in cell metabolism.
240
Vitamin D is an
important dietary supplement for maintaining strong bones and aiding the body in calcium absorption.
241
Vitamin C is an
important dietary supplement involved in the repair of tissue and the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters
242
The reticular formation is the part of the brain stem that regulates
involuntary movement, muscle tone, blood pressure, and respiratory rate.
243
The parietal lobe is the
primary sensory area and is responsible for regulating taste, reading, and writing.
244
The limbic system's amygdala
regulates mood, fear, emotion, and aggression.
245
The limbic system's hypothalamus
regulates appetite, water balance, body temperature, and libido.
246
Symptoms of neurosyphilis include the following:
``` Wide-based gait Positive Romberg sign Loss of vibratory and proprioceptive senses in lower extremities Decreased deep tendon reflexes Pupil abnormalities Tremors Dyscoordination Spasticity in lower extremities ```
247
Possession syndrome is
an umbrella English-language term used to describe South Asian presentations of involuntary possession trances. These episodes usually begin with a somatic complaint like a headache or abdominal pain. Next, patients appear as though they are possessed by a secondary personality, usually either a culturally famous figure or a recently deceased family member. Often, the patient will develop partial or total amnesia related to the altered state.
248
Health care system describes
the organizational and institutional structures through which an economy makes choices regarding the production, consumption, and distribution of medical services.
249
Health production function
is a mathematical expression that shows the relationship between an individual's health and a number of other variables, including the amount of health care consumed.
250
A health alliance is
a public agency that uses its bargaining power to negotiate competitive prices for health insurance from the private insurance market.
251
Health economics is related
to the value, effectiveness, and efficiency of care received.
252
the act of discussion among two or more people with the goal of reaching an agreement.
Negotiation
253
EMDR is
the gold standard in treating PTSD and involves having the patient recall distressing events/images while generating one type of bilateral sensory input such as hand tapping or side-to-side eye movements.
254
DBT is used in
treating borderline personality disorder.
255
In 1981, the case of ___________ determined that patients have an absolute right to refuse treatment, but a guardian may authorize their treatment.
Roger vs. Oken
256
Pretraumatic risk factors:
``` Female gender Emotional disturbances prior to age six Childhood mental illness Externalizing behaviors Lower socioeconomic status Low education Childhood adversity Fatalistic or self-blaming coping mechanisms Minority social/ethnic status Low intelligence Poor social support Family history of psychiatric disorders ```
257
Peritraumatic risk factors:
Severity of trauma Duration of trauma Perceived life threat Personal injury Trauma perpetrated by a loved one or caregiver Witnessing a threat directed toward a loved one or caregiver Dissociation during trauma For military personnel, witnessing atrocities or killing the enemy
258
Posttraumatic risk factors:
``` Negative appraisals Inappropriate coping strategies Development of an acute stress reaction Subsequent exposures to reminders Subsequent adverse life events and financial losses Lack of social support ```
259
.gastrointestinal finding suggestive of alcohol dependency
Splenomegaly is a gastrointestinal finding suggestive of alcohol dependency. Other gastrointestinal findings include hepatomegaly and intestinal tenderness
260
endocrine findings suggestive of alcohol dependency.
Testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, and sexual dysfunction are all endocrine findings suggestive of alcohol dependency.
261
Dementia with Lewy bodies is usually accompanied by s.
extrapyramidal symptoms
262
Huntington's disease is accompanied by
spasmodic movement and incoordination.
263
Patients with frontotemporal dementia are
usually extremely talkative and disinhibited.
264
There are five subtypes of Circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorders
Delayed sleep phase type: falling asleep and waking later than desired Advanced sleep phase type: falling asleep and waking earlier than desired Irregular sleep-wake type: falling asleep and waking at random times Non-24-hour sleep-wake type: falling asleep and usually waking progressively later than desired
265
Anticholinergic side effects include
dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and memory problems.
266
Orthostatic hypotension is an
antiadrenergic side effect.
267
Sedation and weight gain are
antihistaminergic side effects.
268
If a nurse practitioner is sued, she should follow these guidelines:
Call her professional liability insurance company and report the lawsuit. Never talk to the patient or the plaintiff's attorney. Consider retaining her own attorney if the suit is against a group of providers. Never change a patient's record after learning of a lawsuit. Think carefully before settling a case because settlement awards will appear on the nurse practitioner's record.
269
********S/S of anticholinergic intoxication
Psychosis, dry mouth, hyperpyrexia, mydriasis, restlessness, and tachycardia are symptoms of anticholinergic intoxication
270
*********If anticholingeric intoxication the NP should
The nurse practitioner should discontinue the offending medication or substance and consider IV physostigmine and benzodiazepines. ********Remember, antipsychotics are contraindicated in this situation.
271
Alcohol withdrawal would present with
irritability, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, malaise, autonomic hyperactivity, and shakiness.
272
Benzodiazepine intoxication would present with
sedation, somnolence, and ataxia
273
Catatonic schizophrenia would present with
marked psychomotor disturbance (either excitement or stupor) and exhaustion.
274
Vitamin E interacts with warfarin by
increasing anticoagulant effects of antiplatelet drugs and statins, increasing additive effects and the risk of rhabdomyolysis (muscle wasting).
275
There are three phases in EMDR: .
desensitization, installation, and body scan.
276
Describe each phase of EMDR
Desensitization: The patient visualizes the trauma, verbalizes negative or maladaptive beliefs, and remains attentive to physical sensations. The patient also blocks out negative thoughts, breathes deeply, and verbalizes what he or she is imagining. Installation: The patient installs and strengthens the positive thought that he or she has declared as a replacement of the original negative thought. Body scan: The patient visualizes the trauma along with the positive thought and then scans his or her body mentally to identify any tension within
277
In EMDR use fro trauma therapy the patient
The patient visualizes the trauma, verbalizes negative thoughts, and remains attentive to physical sensations
278
EMDR developed by
Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is a form of behavioral therapy that was developed by Francine Shapiro. It is most commonly used in posttraumatic stress disorder, and its goal is adaptive resolution.
279
**************For an act to be considered criminal, it must have two components: actus reus and mens rea.
actus reus and mens rea.
280
***Actus reus refers to
voluntary conduct. Voluntary conduct is deemed impossible if the offender's mental status is deficient, abnormal, or diseased in a way that inhibits rational intent.
281
****Mens rea refers.
to evil intent. Evil intent is defined as the resolve to do harm
282
A person is more likely to develop antisocial personality disorder if they were diagnosed with
conduct disorder and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder before the age of 10
283
Cluster A 4 characterization and includes 3 types
Cluster A patients are characterized as withdrawn, cold, suspicious, and irrational. Cluster A includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders.
284
Cluster B 3 characterization and includes 4 types
Cluster B patients are characterized as theatrical, emotional, and attention-seeking. They often experience intense interpersonal conflicts and exhibit an extremely labile mood. Cluster B includes antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders.
285
Cluster C 4 characterization and includes 3 types
Cluster C patients tend to be anxious, fearful, tense, and overcontrolled. Cluster C includes avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders.
286
Clonazepam dosing
start at 0,25mg and titrate to 1mg/day after 3 days.
287
Neurotransmitters fall into four categories:
Monoamines Amino acids Cholinergics Neuropeptides (divided into nonopioid type and opioid type)
288
examples of monoamine neurotransmitters
Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. These are also called biogenic amines.
289
examples of amino acids
Glutamate, GABA, aspartate, and acetylcholine
290
Substance P and somatostatins are examples of
nonopioid-type neuropeptides
291
Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins are examples of
opioid-type neuropeptides.
292
Irvin Yalom was the first person to put a theoretical perspective on group work. He believed that all groups go through specific phases:
``` Pre-group Forming Storming Norming Performing Adjourning During the performing phase: ``` The group's work becomes more focused Solutions begin to emerge through creative problem-solving Experiential learning takes place Group energy is directed toward completion of goals
293
Retinal pigmentation can occur in patients prescribed
>1,000 mg of thioridazine. Even when thioridazine is stopped, this side effect may persist and lead to blindness.
294
Hyperprolactinemia, priapism, and tardive dyskinesia can occur as side effects
of any antipsychotic medication.
295
When assessing judgment, the provider is determining whether the patient's judgment is
grossly impaired for both self and social judgment.
296
A nurse practitioner's scope of practice is legally the most secure when it is
clearly defined by a statute. Physicians' organizations often try to prevent nurse practitioners from providing patient care by pointing to state law and asking for a strict interpretation. When a nurse practitioner's scope of practice is clearly defined by statute, it is most secure against physician special interest groups.
297
Mental status exam findings of ADHD include all of the following:
``` Restlessness Inattention Distractible speech patterns Overproductive speech patterns Affective lability Poor memory Poor concentration ```
298
Bupropion is a
norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI),
299
phenelzine is a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
300
Galactorrhea, is a
milky nipple discharge unrelated to the normal milk production of breastfeeding.
301
Hyperprolactinemia is an indication of
elevated prolactin levels, which can cause galactorrhea and is a risk factor for those taking antipsychotics, especially second-generation antipsychotics such as Invega or Risperdal.
302
The general function of glutamate involves
memory and sustained autonomic functions.
303
The general function of dopamine involves
normal functioning of thinking, decision-making, reward-seeking behavior, fine muscle action, and integrated cognition.
304
The general function of norepinephrine involves
alertness, orientation, fight-or-flight, learning, memory, and focus and attention.
305
The general function of serotonin involves
regulation of sleep, pain perception, mood states, temperature, aggression, and libido
306
The services covered under Medicaid:
Inpatient medical hospitalizations Outpatient services Family planning services Home health services when there is no local home health agency Home health aides Skill nursing facilities services for those age 21 and older Services rendered by nurse practitioners and nurse midwives Medical supplies for use in-home Pregnancy-related services up to 60 days postpartum
307
The services not covered under Medicaid:
``` Vision care Eyeglasses Dental care Dentures Hearing exams Hearing aids Routine physical exams Inpatient psychiatric hospitalizations ```
308
Individuals with chronic alcohol misuse often consume most of their calories from alcohol and are at high risk for
thiamine deficiency. A thiamine-deficient person can develop Wernicke encephalopathy if they attempt to metabolize food. You must administer thiamine immediately for this patient.
309
The evidence-based practice movement gained popularity in 2001 when the Institute of Medicine (IOM) published
Crossing the Quality Chasm, which exposed the unacceptable gap between scientific knowledge and clinical practice: “Between the health care we have and the care we could have lies not just a gap but a chasm.” They estimated that nearly 200,000 patients die from avoidable medical errors every year, and 40% of patients do not receive scientifically proven treatments.
310
Competency is a
legal concept but not a medical one.
311
Cigarette smoking induces
the cytochrome p450 1A2 enzyme.
312
Olanzapine is metabolized
by cytochrome P450 1A2; therefore, its plasma levels would decrease if an individual began taking a p450 1A2 inducer.
313
The two phases of the action potential are .
depolarization and repolarization
314
Depolarization is characterized by:
The initial phase of the action potential; An excitatory response; and An influx of sodium and calcium ions into the cell.
315
Repolarization is characterized by:
The restoration phase; An inhibitory response; and Potassium leaving the cell or chloride entering the cell.
316
The services covered under Medicaid include the following:
Inpatient medical hospitalizations Outpatient services Family planning services Home health services when there is no local home health agency Home health aides Skill nursing facilities services for those age 21 and older Services rendered by nurse practitioners and nurse midwives Medical supplies for use in-home Pregnancy-related services up to 60 days postpartum
317
The services not covered under Medicaid:
``` Vision care Eyeglasses Dental care Dentures Hearing exams Hearing aids Routine physical exams Inpatient psychiatric hospitalizations ```
318
The 8 goals of DBT are as follows:
``` Decrease suicidal behaviors Decrease therapy-interfering behaviors Decrease emotional reactivity Decrease self-invalidation Decrease crisis-generating behaviors Decrease passivity Increase realistic decision-making Increase accurate communication of emotions and competencies ```
319
Credentialing is
a process used to protect the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competence.
320
Licensure is a process by which an
agency of state government grants permission to individuals to engage in the practice of that profession. Licensure prohibits all unlicensed persons from engaging in a legally protected practice.
321
Certification is a process by which a professional organization
certifies that an individual has met certain predetermined standards specified by that specialty practice. The nurse practitioner's certification determines his or her scope of practice, and it assures the public that he or she has mastered a body of knowledge in a particular medical specialty.
322
The American Medical Association's Scope of Practice Partnership (SOPP) initiative lobbies the federal government to limit patients' chiropractors, social workers, and others.
choice of which health care provider they can see for treatment.
323
a group of 35 non-physician organizations created the Patients' Access to Responsible Care Alliance (PARCA). PARCA aim is
This alliance aims to provide federal policymakers with more accurate information from all health care disciplines. PARCA is committed to ensuring patients have a choice of providers. PARCA includes nurses, nurse practitioners, audiologists, optometrists,
324
Individuals who are very computer literate are called
power users.
325
Cognitive therapy was originated by ______________ and purports that
by Aaron Beck. This therapy purports that external events do not cause anxiety, but rather a person's expectations or perceptions. Cognitive therapy helps patients view their reality more clearly by examining their central distorted conceptions. The goal is to change patients' irrational beliefs, faulty conceptions, and negative cognitive distortions.
326
Patients suffering from anhedonia present with a decrease in
dopamine activity.
327
Patients suffering from psychosis and schizophrenia present with an increase in
dopamine activity.
328
Patients suffering from anxiety disorders present with a decrease in
gamma-aminobutyric acid, or GABA.
329
Patients suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorders present with a decrease in
serotonin activity.
330
The mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is a brief instrument designed to assess the patient's overall cognitive functioning.
Asking the patient to spell the word "world" backward assesses their attention. Asking the patient to say this "no ifs, ands, or buts" assesses their ability to repeat what they hear. Asking the patient remember the three objects apple, table, and penny assesses their short-term memory. Asking the patient tell the year, season, month, date, and day assesses their orientation.
331
Informatics researchers are those who develop methods in areas such
as data mining, text processing, human interface design, decision support, and other tools for data analysis.
332
Decrease levels of sodium (Na) can cause
Addison's disease, renal disorders, and gastrointestinal fluid loss from vomiting and diarrhea.
333
What did the Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) initiative successfully define for nurse practitioners?
The Technology Informatics Guiding Education Reform (TIGER) initiative developed a 10-year plan for nursing's path toward computer and information literacy. It involved more than 1,100 nursing content experts, and it took three years to complete. This initiative successfully defined the basic technology competencies and required curriculum for nurse practitioner education. The TIGER initiative declared that it is a nurse practitioner's responsibility to understand and shape the landscape of health care technology in order to improve access, quality, and the patient experience.
334
Which term describes the use of a software application for placing medical orders in both inpatient and outpatient settings?
Computerized provider order entry (CPOE) is the use of a software application for the ordering of medications, laboratory and radiology testing, consultation, and referral requests. The CPOE is a replacement for written orders in both inpatient and outpatient settings. It is cited as an important tool in avoiding medical errors and improving patient safety.
335
Nursing informatics is
the specialty that integrates nursing science with multiple information management and analytical sciences to identify, define, manage, and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice.
336
Systemic effects of hypernatremia include which of the following?
Restlessness
337
Negative symptom clusters of schizophrenia include
affective flattening, alogia or poverty of speech, avolition, apathy, abstract thinking problems, and anhedonia, Attention deficits
338
Positive symptom clusters of schizophrenia include
hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behaviors, hostility, grandiosity, mania, and paranoia.
339
Associated symptom clusters of schizophrenia include
inappropriate affect, dysphoric mood, depersonalization, derealization, and high anxiety.
340
******Piaget's cognitive behavioral theory states that
humans develop through learning, comprehending, and cognition. Piaget also believed that the course of a child's development is shaped through native endowment and biological and environmental factors.
341
*****Introduced the interpersonal theory.
Harry Stack Sullivan
342
*** developed the hierarchy of needs theory.
Abraham Maslow
343
****proposed the health belief model.
Marshall Becker
344
****Bipolar disorder is believed to be related to an increase in what neurotransmitter?
Glutamate. Glutamate is an excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter. While the exact connection between glutamate and bipolar disorder remains unclear, proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy studies have found increased glutamate in those with bipolar disorder compared with healthy controls. Glutamate is also implicated in seizure disorders and schizophrenia.
345
*****developed structured family therapy, which emphasizes how, when, and to whom family members relate in order to understand and change the family's structure.
Salvador Minuchin
346
The primary treatment goal of structured family therapy is to
produce structural change in the family organization and to alter transactional patterns.
347
developed experiential therapy
Virginia Satir
348
developed family systems therapy
Murray Bowen
349
developed strategic therapy
Jay Haley
350
EMDR, originated by, is a form of exposure therapy meant to help the patient address past trauma and work through it for long-term stabilization.
Francine Shapiro
351
ENDR is a form of
is a form of exposure therapy meant to help the patient address past trauma and work through it for long-term stabilization.
352
Cognitive therapy is used in
situations when clients have irrational beliefs, faulty conceptions, and negative cognitive distortions about themselves.
353
Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) is used.
with patients suffering from borderline personality disorder
354
Existential therapy is an approach
in which the client reflects on life, and self-confrontation is encouraged.
355
Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is used on patients suffering from
PTSD,
356
Activities or systems designed to recognize and intervene to reduce the risk of injury to clients are in the category of:
Risk management
357
Risk assessment is
continuous monitoring for high-risk situations and assessing persons for non-healthy behaviors.
358
Risk mitigation is
the act of process change in order to mitigate the risk finding.
359
Risk intervention a task performed
in real time in order to prevent an immediate risk.
360
Risk management interventions are implemented to reduce
non-healthy behaviors in clients and high-risk situations. Risk management is also the process of recognizing and intervening in order to reduce subsequent claims against healthcare providers.
361
Nurse practitioners have the legal authority to dispense controlled substances in ____ states
34
362
The 16 states where NP can't dispense controlled substances
Alabama, Arizona, Arkansas, Florida, Hawaii, Kansas, Kentucky, Massachusetts, Michigan, Nebraska, New Jersey, Ohio, Oklahoma, Pennsylvania, South Carolina, and Texas.
363
a movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotic medication like haloperidol (Haldol). It is characterized by abnormal motor movements including lip smacking, facial grimacing, and choreoathetosis-like movements of the limbs and trunk.
tardive dyskinesia
364
Anticholinergic toxicity would be accompanied by
delirium
365
an oral facial dystonia that involves blinking and chin thrusting.
Meige syndrome
366
is associated with rheumatic fever and occurs in children.
Sydenham chorea
367
Herbal supplements such as St. John's Wort are contraindicated as adjunctive therapy when taking
an SSRI. Prozac is an SSRI.
368
Hyperparathyroidism is caused by i
ncreased levels of calcium.
369
Decreased levels of calcium can cause
alkalosis and pancreatitis.
370
If a patient is taking sertraline at the time of a drug screen, they may falsely test positive
for benzodiazepines.
371
If the patient is taking amoxicillin or NSAIDS, they may falsely test positive for
cocaine
372
If a patient is taking codeine, they may falsely test positive for
methadone or PCP.
373
In hyperthyroidism,
T4 is increased and TSH is decreased, which produces excitatory and labile/anxious-like symptomatology.
374
Other presentations of hyperthyroidism include the following:
``` Motor restlessness Emotional lability Tremors Insomnia Impotence Weight loss Increased appetite Abdominal pain Excessive sweating Flushing Elevated upper eyelid leading to decreased blinking, staring, and fine tremors of the eyelid Tachycardia Dysrhythmias ```
375
In hypothyroidism,
T4 is decreased and TSH is increased, which produces slowed processes and depressive-like symptomatology.
376
Patients with hypothyroidism may present with the following symptoms:
``` Confusion Decreased libido Impotence Decreased appetite Memory loss Lethargy Constipation Headaches Slow or clumsy movements Syncope Weight gain Fluid retention Muscle aching and stiffness Slowed reflexes Somatic discomfort including aching and joint stiffness Slowed speech and thinking Sensory disturbances, including hearing Cerebellar ataxia Loss of amplitude in ECG ```
377
Panic disorders mimic.
fight-or-flight episodes and potentiate a response from the central nervous system
378
Devaluation is a defense mechanism that
attributes excessive negative qualities to another.
379
Idealization is a defense mechanism that
attributes excessive positive qualities to another.
380
Repression is a defense mechanism that
expels disturbing wishes from conscious awareness.
381
A decrease in serotonin is related to .
major depressive disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizophrenia
382
Alzheimer's disease is related to a decreased in
acetylcholine,
383
Examples of mental health promotion and education:
Teaching patients about interventions and ways to cope with specific life-stressors Validating "normalcy" of feelings and ensuring patients that they are not "crazy" Helping patients recognize and identify their feelings and behaviors Helping patients identify resources in their community
384
Case management involves
coordinating care across treatment settings to ensure quality outcomes.
385
Inattentive traits of ADHD include all of the following:
``` Fails to give attention to details Has difficulty sustaining attention Does not listen when spoken to Does not follow through on instructions Is disorganized Avoids or dislikes tasks that require sustained mental effort Loses things Is distracted Is forgetful ```
386
Hyperactive and impulsive traits of ADHD are as follows:
``` Fidgets Leaves seat Runs or climbs Is unable to engage in quiet activities Is always on the go Talks excessively Blurts out information Has a difficult time waiting their turn Interrupts others ```
387
Evidence-based practice demands the use of the best knowledge. The evidence hierarchy ranks sources of knowledge according to the strength of information they provide. The best evidence comes from Level 1 of the evidence hierarchy, which includes meta-analyses. All levels are listed below.
Level 1 (strongest): Systematic review of randomized controlled trials or systematic review of nonrandomized trials Level 2: Single randomized controlled trial or single nonrandomized trial Level 3: Systematic review of correlational or observational studies Level 4: Single correlational or observational study Level 5: Systematic review of descriptive, qualitative, or physiologic studies Level 6: Single descriptive, qualitative, or physiologic study Level 7 (weakest): Opinions of authorities and expert committee
388
Positive symptom clusters of schizophrenia include
hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behaviors, hostility, grandiosity, mania, and paranoia Hostility and referential thinking
389
Negative symptom clusters of schizophrenia include
affective flattening, alogia or poverty of speech, avolition, apathy, abstract-thinking problems, anhedonia, and attention deficits.
390
The strongest and most consistent risk factor for developing bipolar disorder is
a family history of bipolar disorder. These individuals are 10 times more likely to develop the condition.
391
When monoamine oxidase is inhibited, tyramine
exerts a strong vasopressor effect, stimulating the release of catecholamines, epinephrine, and norepinephrine, which can increase blood pressure and heart rate.
392
Foods containing high levels of magnesium, calcium, and tryptophan do not puts.
the patient at risk for a hypertensive crisis when taken with MAOI