Exam Answers Flashcards by D M

Under emergency conditions, it is imperative the Captain and Dispatcher exercise teamwork, initiative, and good judgement. However, ultimate responsibility for the flight safety remains with the:

Captain

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When a situation may develop into an in-flight emergency and the Dispatcher does no agree with the Captain’s decision, the Dispatcher will:

Advise the Captain

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Crew members will follow the non-normal procedures located in the _____ to cope with or contain non-normal situations

QRH

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On the ground, who is considered the PM (Pilot Monitoring)

First Officer

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Inflight the following shall be confirmed by the PF before the PM takes action

Fuel Boost Pumps

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Whenever a Captain uses emergency authority he/she must submit a report to the VP of Flight Operations _______

within 10 days after the flight is completed

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If an unplanned emergency condition exists, the flight crew will signal the Flight Attendant(s) with_________

six chimes by cycling the PED/No Smoking Switch, AND, illuminate the emergency lights

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During a planned emergency the Captain will brief the Flight Attendant

with TEST items

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Once the Captain gives the evacuation command, who will read the Evacuation Checklist?

First Officer

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Minimum altitude for flight spoiler deployment

1,000 ft AGL

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If the automatic systems fails to deploy the oxygen masks, when directed by the QRH the flight crew can manually deploy the oxygen masks by pressing_______

PASS OXY

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If the Captain is incapacitated the First Officer should declare an emergency and operate the aircraft from the right seat

TRUE

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If project fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining, declare an emergency

TRUE

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PSA aircraft are limited to a maximum of dry ice per aircraft

50 pounds

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As a PSA crewmember, the only Hazard Classes you should ever encounter would be

Class 8 - Corrosives (wet cell batteries)
Class 9 - Miscellaneous (dry ice)
UN3373, Biological Substance, Category B

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Should hazardous material be discovered onboard the aircraft the Captain shall immediately contact

Operations Control

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PSA accepts dry ice for transportation in:

checked baggage
carry-on baggage
air cargo

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The AFT Flight Attendant is responsible for communicating with the flight crew

FALSE

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Critical phases of flight include

Taxi

Takeoff and Landing

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Under the influence is _____ or more by weight of alcohol in the blood

.02 percent

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Crew members are not permitted to consume alcohol within ____ of a duty assignment, reserve period, following an accident

12 hours

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All crew members must carry a valid passport on every flight

TRUE

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In event of a lost or stolen ID, the crew member must immediately notify

Crew Scheduling

Local Authorities

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Pilots may not substitute for Flight Attendants during boarding and deplaning

TRUE

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the PED sign shall remain extinguished for the duration of the flight with the exception of a Category II Approach

TRUE

The Fasten Seatbelt sign shall be ON during

Pushback and Taxi Takeoff and Landing Moderate or greater turbulence is anticipated

When the Captain elects not to accomplish an item on the checklist when it is called, he/she will state:

Hold the checklist at

A line Captain may occupy the right seat during FAR Part 121 operations

FALSE

For all aircraft, when operating below______, each pilot crew member will use the aircraft's headset or his/her personal headset/earphone

18,000 ft MSL

Do not exceed 250 knots below:

10,000 ft MSL

When conditions permit, landing lights should be turned on for takeoff and while operating below:

10,000 ft MSL

The PM will verbally state an altitude callout at ______ above/below the assigned altitude

1,000 ft

Use of cell phones and personal electronic devices on the flight deck is _______ anytime the aircraft is in motion

prohibited

On the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone may be used for operations critical communications only if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set

TRUE

A First Officer is consider "low time" if he/she has less than ______ in the aircraft type

100 hours (including IOE)

Crew members will report for duty at least ____ prior to the scheduled departure time

45 minutes

The Captain will conduct the takeoff when visibility is

1600 RVR

Normally, turns required for SID compliance, ATC requests or noise abatement cannot be initiated prior to:

400 ft AGL

Any turns planned between 50 feet and 400 feet AGL require:

crew briefing prior to departure

Separation from VFR and non-participating IFR aircraft when operating in Class G airspace:

is not provided by Air Traffic Control

Land and Hold Shot Operations (LAHSO) on wet runways is prohibited

TRUE

Derived alternate airport weather minimums for airports with at least two operational navigation facilities:

Add 200 feet to higher MDA or DH and and 1/2 statue mile to higher landing minimum

The operational control of the individual flights of PSA is accomplished jointly by:

The Captain of the flight and the Dispatcher in the Operations Control Center

The dispatch release may be in any form, but must contain the following:

Trip or flight number | Identification number of the aircraft

At the same time the release is sent, the route is sent to ATC to lie the flight plan

TRUE

A takeoff alternate is required if

reported prevailing visibility or th eRVR equivalent is below landing visibility

Performance data for PSA flights is provided from three sources

Speed Cards TLR ACARS

A normal takeoff path assumes the NO turns shall be commenced below

1,000 feet AFE

The entire Takeoff Report is based on the Planned QNH (altimeter setting) The Takeoff Report is valid if the actual QNH is

no less than 0.10 below planned QNH

If the reduced thrust N1 is less than 83.5%, select a higher temperature in the FMS

FALSE

If ice accumulation is suspected on the wings, after landing do not retract the flaps past

20 degrees

Maximum take off weight for CRJ900

84,500 lbs

Maximum operating altitude for CRJ 701, 900

41,000 ft

How does the PIC determine that an aircraft is safe to fly with a deferred maintenance item

refers to the MEL/CDL

Winter passenger weights on the CRJ900 are

195 lbs

When should you declare an emergency

Any tie the safety of the flight is in jeopardy An aircraft is endangered by fire/smoke In-flight medical emergency

If a crew member is unable to continue an assignment due to fatigue, they must submit a fatigue report within 10 days after the end of the trip in which fatigue occurred

FALSE

In the armed position, the emergency lights will

automatically come on in the event of a loss of DC Essential Bus power

The four levels of CAS message importance are

warning, caution, advisory, status

Maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction for the CRJ700

25,000 ft

Permissable TRU DC electrical system loads inflight for the CRJ 701 and 900

120 amps

The bottles in the cargo bay are filled with halon and both discharge immediately at the same time to ensure the fire will be extinguished

FALSE

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between left and right for takeoff for CRJ 701 and 900

300 pounds

When the wind is greater than 30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose and the wind is greater than 30 knots you must

apply maximum of idle/taxi thrust before brake release then TOGA thrust

The 14th Stage Bleed Valves do not automatically close when the ENG FIRE PUSH is selected

FALSE

Maximum altitude single pack operation for CRJ700

31,000 ft

Without any switches selected to the "on" position, which probes are heated on the ground

L/R Pitot tip and standby pitot probe

Hydraulic systems 1 & 2 are cooled by

single air/hydraulic oil heat exchanger | Cooling air from the Ram Air scoop

The normal landing gear extension is powered by

Hydraulic system 3

The stall protection computer monitors the rate of change of the AOA vane to determine when to disconnect the pusher

TRUE

A standby pitot static source, P3/S3, provides pressure for the standby instruments and the CPAM

TRUE

Who is responsible to ensure that their system is free from any medication that may negatively affect their job performance

Individual Crew member

Who has final authority in the flights operations matters

PIC

It is permissible for crew members to engage in nonessential conversation while taxiing

FALSE

The maximum airspeed when operating below the lateral limits of Class B airspace

200 KIAS

Standard take off minimums for the CRJ 200/700/900 is

1 mile visibility

PSA Airlines allows the carriage of a high risk prisoner provided that he/she is escorted by the appropriate Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)

FALSE

The dispatcher has the authority to cancel a flight

FALSE

The PIC and SIC sign the release affirming that that are fit for duty

TRUE

The PIC and SIC sign the release to confirm that they are compliant to FAR Part 117

TRUE

During nighttime operations, the giideman shall use two lit wands to signal the flight crew

TRUE

The flight crew shall report to the company any time

you are proceeding to your alternate airport as specified on the release

Prior to entering RVSM airspace, the flight crew shall verify which equipment is operating normally

One automatic altitude-control system One altitude-alerting system One transponder

If on an ILS that has set down altitudes, it is permissible to omit adhering to the step down altitudes provided that you remain on the glideslope

FALSE

The company cannot assign, nor can a pilot service as PIC to or from an airport that is determined to be a Special Qualification Airport unless within that preceding 12 months

the PIC has qualified by using pictorial means

If braking action is reported as 'nil' you should

contact the dispatcher

It is permissible for a pilot to penetrate a "shadow" on your weather radar as it depicts a rapid decrease in convective activity

FALSE

Indications that you may be encountering windshear on an approach are

+/- 15 KIAS +/- 1 dot glideslope displacment Unusual thrust setting for extended period of time

In addition to a visual check, when is tactile check required

OAT is 5°C or less wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less atmospheric conditions are conducive to frost

Summer weights shall be used (dates)

May 1 - Oct 31

In the event of an engine failure on take off in IMC, you shall

climb straight ahead to 1,000 AFE

What is the minimum visibility you must have to avoid having a takeoff alternate

Cat 1 landing minimum

A new hire first officer on IOE is permitted to fly Group 1 ferry flight

FLASE

In the 701 or 900, if the APU door is in an unknown position you must

restrict airspeed to 220 KIAS | keep theAPU running

When the IDG is disconnected, it can only be reconnected on the ground with the eying shut down

TRUE

If you are flying level at FL350 in the CRJ 700 and lose a pack, you must

descend to FL310

It is permissible to fly in RVSM with an autopilot deferred

FALSE

A fire bottle mounted on the side of the lavatory waste paper towel container discharges automatically into the waste bin when there is a fire in the bin

TRUE

The starting system requires 28 volts DC and 14th stage manifold air pressure to open the start valve and operate the air turbine starter

FALSE

Takeoff with fuel load in excess of 500 lbs in the center tank is not permitted unless

each wing tank is above 4,400 lbs

Exam Answers Flashcards

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