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Recurrent Exam 2015-2016 > Exam Answers > Flashcards

Flashcards in Exam Answers Deck (100)
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1
Q

Under emergency conditions, it is imperative the Captain and Dispatcher exercise teamwork, initiative, and good judgement. However, ultimate responsibility for the flight safety remains with the:

A

Captain

2
Q

When a situation may develop into an in-flight emergency and the Dispatcher does no agree with the Captain’s decision, the Dispatcher will:

A

Advise the Captain

3
Q

Crew members will follow the non-normal procedures located in the _____ to cope with or contain non-normal situations

A

QRH

4
Q

On the ground, who is considered the PM (Pilot Monitoring)

A

First Officer

5
Q

Inflight the following shall be confirmed by the PF before the PM takes action

A

Fuel Boost Pumps

6
Q

Whenever a Captain uses emergency authority he/she must submit a report to the VP of Flight Operations _______

A

within 10 days after the flight is completed

7
Q

If an unplanned emergency condition exists, the flight crew will signal the Flight Attendant(s) with_________

A

six chimes by cycling the PED/No Smoking Switch, AND, illuminate the emergency lights

8
Q

During a planned emergency the Captain will brief the Flight Attendant

A

with TEST items

9
Q

Once the Captain gives the evacuation command, who will read the Evacuation Checklist?

A

First Officer

10
Q

Minimum altitude for flight spoiler deployment

A

1,000 ft AGL

11
Q

If the automatic systems fails to deploy the oxygen masks, when directed by the QRH the flight crew can manually deploy the oxygen masks by pressing_______

A

PASS OXY

12
Q

If the Captain is incapacitated the First Officer should declare an emergency and operate the aircraft from the right seat

A

TRUE

13
Q

If project fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining, declare an emergency

A

TRUE

14
Q

PSA aircraft are limited to a maximum of dry ice per aircraft

A

50 pounds

15
Q

As a PSA crewmember, the only Hazard Classes you should ever encounter would be

A

Class 8 - Corrosives (wet cell batteries)
Class 9 - Miscellaneous (dry ice)
UN3373, Biological Substance, Category B

16
Q

Should hazardous material be discovered onboard the aircraft the Captain shall immediately contact

A

Operations Control

17
Q

PSA accepts dry ice for transportation in:

A

checked baggage
carry-on baggage
air cargo

18
Q

The AFT Flight Attendant is responsible for communicating with the flight crew

A

FALSE

19
Q

Critical phases of flight include

A

Taxi

Takeoff and Landing

20
Q

Under the influence is _____ or more by weight of alcohol in the blood

A

.02 percent

21
Q

Crew members are not permitted to consume alcohol within ____ of a duty assignment, reserve period, following an accident

A

12 hours

22
Q

All crew members must carry a valid passport on every flight

A

TRUE

23
Q

In event of a lost or stolen ID, the crew member must immediately notify

A

Crew Scheduling

Local Authorities

24
Q

Pilots may not substitute for Flight Attendants during boarding and deplaning

A

TRUE

25
Q

the PED sign shall remain extinguished for the duration of the flight with the exception of a Category II Approach

A

TRUE

26
Q

The Fasten Seatbelt sign shall be ON during

A

Pushback and Taxi
Takeoff and Landing
Moderate or greater turbulence is anticipated

27
Q

When the Captain elects not to accomplish an item on the checklist when it is called, he/she will state:

A

Hold the checklist at

28
Q

A line Captain may occupy the right seat during FAR Part 121 operations

A

FALSE

29
Q

For all aircraft, when operating below______, each pilot crew member will use the aircraft’s headset or his/her personal headset/earphone

A

18,000 ft MSL

30
Q

Do not exceed 250 knots below:

A

10,000 ft MSL

31
Q

When conditions permit, landing lights should be turned on for takeoff and while operating below:

A

10,000 ft MSL

32
Q

The PM will verbally state an altitude callout at ______ above/below the assigned altitude

A

1,000 ft

33
Q

Use of cell phones and personal electronic devices on the flight deck is _______ anytime the aircraft is in motion

A

prohibited

34
Q

On the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone may be used for operations critical communications only if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set

A

TRUE

35
Q

A First Officer is consider “low time” if he/she has less than ______ in the aircraft type

A

100 hours (including IOE)

36
Q

Crew members will report for duty at least ____ prior to the scheduled departure time

A

45 minutes

37
Q

The Captain will conduct the takeoff when visibility is

A

1600 RVR

38
Q

Normally, turns required for SID compliance, ATC requests or noise abatement cannot be initiated prior to:

A

400 ft AGL

39
Q

Any turns planned between 50 feet and 400 feet AGL require:

A

crew briefing prior to departure

40
Q

Separation from VFR and non-participating IFR aircraft when operating in Class G airspace:

A

is not provided by Air Traffic Control

41
Q

Land and Hold Shot Operations (LAHSO) on wet runways is prohibited

A

TRUE

42
Q

Derived alternate airport weather minimums for airports with at least two operational navigation facilities:

A

Add 200 feet to higher MDA or DH and and 1/2 statue mile to higher landing minimum

43
Q

The operational control of the individual flights of PSA is accomplished jointly by:

A

The Captain of the flight and the Dispatcher in the Operations Control Center

44
Q

The dispatch release may be in any form, but must contain the following:

A

Trip or flight number

Identification number of the aircraft

45
Q

At the same time the release is sent, the route is sent to ATC to lie the flight plan

A

TRUE

46
Q

A takeoff alternate is required if

A

reported prevailing visibility or th eRVR equivalent is below landing visibility

47
Q

Performance data for PSA flights is provided from three sources

A

Speed Cards
TLR
ACARS

48
Q

A normal takeoff path assumes the NO turns shall be commenced below

A

1,000 feet AFE

49
Q

The entire Takeoff Report is based on the Planned QNH (altimeter setting) The Takeoff Report is valid if the actual QNH is

A

no less than 0.10 below planned QNH

50
Q

If the reduced thrust N1 is less than 83.5%, select a higher temperature in the FMS

A

FALSE

51
Q

If ice accumulation is suspected on the wings, after landing do not retract the flaps past

A

20 degrees

52
Q

Maximum take off weight for CRJ900

A

84,500 lbs

53
Q

Maximum operating altitude for CRJ 701, 900

A

41,000 ft

54
Q

How does the PIC determine that an aircraft is safe to fly with a deferred maintenance item

A

refers to the MEL/CDL

55
Q

Winter passenger weights on the CRJ900 are

A

195 lbs

56
Q

When should you declare an emergency

A

Any tie the safety of the flight is in jeopardy
An aircraft is endangered by fire/smoke
In-flight medical emergency

57
Q

If a crew member is unable to continue an assignment due to fatigue, they must submit a fatigue report within 10 days after the end of the trip in which fatigue occurred

A

FALSE

58
Q

In the armed position, the emergency lights will

A

automatically come on in the event of a loss of DC Essential Bus power

59
Q

The four levels of CAS message importance are

A

warning, caution, advisory, status

60
Q

Maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction for the CRJ700

A

25,000 ft

61
Q

Permissable TRU DC electrical system loads inflight for the CRJ 701 and 900

A

120 amps

62
Q

The bottles in the cargo bay are filled with halon and both discharge immediately at the same time to ensure the fire will be extinguished

A

FALSE

63
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between left and right for takeoff for CRJ 701 and 900

A

300 pounds

64
Q

When the wind is greater than 30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose and the wind is greater than 30 knots you must

A

apply maximum of idle/taxi thrust before brake release then TOGA thrust

65
Q

The 14th Stage Bleed Valves do not automatically close when the ENG FIRE PUSH is selected

A

FALSE

66
Q

Maximum altitude single pack operation for CRJ700

A

31,000 ft

67
Q

Without any switches selected to the “on” position, which probes are heated on the ground

A

L/R Pitot tip and standby pitot probe

68
Q

Hydraulic systems 1 & 2 are cooled by

A

single air/hydraulic oil heat exchanger

Cooling air from the Ram Air scoop

69
Q

The normal landing gear extension is powered by

A

Hydraulic system 3

70
Q

The stall protection computer monitors the rate of change of the AOA vane to determine when to disconnect the pusher

A

TRUE

71
Q

A standby pitot static source, P3/S3, provides pressure for the standby instruments and the CPAM

A

TRUE

72
Q

Who is responsible to ensure that their system is free from any medication that may negatively affect their job performance

A

Individual Crew member

73
Q

Who has final authority in the flights operations matters

A

PIC

74
Q

It is permissible for crew members to engage in nonessential conversation while taxiing

A

FALSE

75
Q

The maximum airspeed when operating below the lateral limits of Class B airspace

A

200 KIAS

76
Q

Standard take off minimums for the CRJ 200/700/900 is

A

1 mile visibility

77
Q

PSA Airlines allows the carriage of a high risk prisoner provided that he/she is escorted by the appropriate Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)

A

FALSE

78
Q

The dispatcher has the authority to cancel a flight

A

FALSE

79
Q

The PIC and SIC sign the release affirming that that are fit for duty

A

TRUE

80
Q

The PIC and SIC sign the release to confirm that they are compliant to FAR Part 117

A

TRUE

81
Q

During nighttime operations, the giideman shall use two lit wands to signal the flight crew

A

TRUE

82
Q

The flight crew shall report to the company any time

A

you are proceeding to your alternate airport as specified on the release

83
Q

Prior to entering RVSM airspace, the flight crew shall verify which equipment is operating normally

A

One automatic altitude-control system
One altitude-alerting system
One transponder

84
Q

If on an ILS that has set down altitudes, it is permissible to omit adhering to the step down altitudes provided that you remain on the glideslope

A

FALSE

85
Q

The company cannot assign, nor can a pilot service as PIC to or from an airport that is determined to be a Special Qualification Airport unless within that preceding 12 months

A

the PIC has qualified by using pictorial means

86
Q

If braking action is reported as ‘nil’ you should

A

contact the dispatcher

87
Q

It is permissible for a pilot to penetrate a “shadow” on your weather radar as it depicts a rapid decrease in convective activity

A

FALSE

88
Q

Indications that you may be encountering windshear on an approach are

A

+/- 15 KIAS
+/- 1 dot glideslope displacment
Unusual thrust setting for extended period of time

89
Q

In addition to a visual check, when is tactile check required

A

OAT is 5°C or less
wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less
atmospheric conditions are conducive to frost

90
Q

Summer weights shall be used (dates)

A

May 1 - Oct 31

91
Q

In the event of an engine failure on take off in IMC, you shall

A

climb straight ahead to 1,000 AFE

92
Q

What is the minimum visibility you must have to avoid having a takeoff alternate

A

Cat 1 landing minimum

93
Q

A new hire first officer on IOE is permitted to fly Group 1 ferry flight

A

FLASE

94
Q

In the 701 or 900, if the APU door is in an unknown position you must

A

restrict airspeed to 220 KIAS

keep theAPU running

95
Q

When the IDG is disconnected, it can only be reconnected on the ground with the eying shut down

A

TRUE

96
Q

If you are flying level at FL350 in the CRJ 700 and lose a pack, you must

A

descend to FL310

97
Q

It is permissible to fly in RVSM with an autopilot deferred

A

FALSE

98
Q

A fire bottle mounted on the side of the lavatory waste paper towel container discharges automatically into the waste bin when there is a fire in the bin

A

TRUE

99
Q

The starting system requires 28 volts DC and 14th stage manifold air pressure to open the start valve and operate the air turbine starter

A

FALSE

100
Q

Takeoff with fuel load in excess of 500 lbs in the center tank is not permitted unless

A

each wing tank is above 4,400 lbs