Exam Answers Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Under emergency conditions, it is imperative the Captain and Dispatcher exercise teamwork, initiative, and good judgement. However, ultimate responsibility for the flight safety remains with the:

A

Captain

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2
Q

When a situation may develop into an in-flight emergency and the Dispatcher does no agree with the Captain’s decision, the Dispatcher will:

A

Advise the Captain

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3
Q

Crew members will follow the non-normal procedures located in the _____ to cope with or contain non-normal situations

A

QRH

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4
Q

On the ground, who is considered the PM (Pilot Monitoring)

A

First Officer

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5
Q

Inflight the following shall be confirmed by the PF before the PM takes action

A

Fuel Boost Pumps

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6
Q

Whenever a Captain uses emergency authority he/she must submit a report to the VP of Flight Operations _______

A

within 10 days after the flight is completed

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7
Q

If an unplanned emergency condition exists, the flight crew will signal the Flight Attendant(s) with_________

A

six chimes by cycling the PED/No Smoking Switch, AND, illuminate the emergency lights

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8
Q

During a planned emergency the Captain will brief the Flight Attendant

A

with TEST items

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9
Q

Once the Captain gives the evacuation command, who will read the Evacuation Checklist?

A

First Officer

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10
Q

Minimum altitude for flight spoiler deployment

A

1,000 ft AGL

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11
Q

If the automatic systems fails to deploy the oxygen masks, when directed by the QRH the flight crew can manually deploy the oxygen masks by pressing_______

A

PASS OXY

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12
Q

If the Captain is incapacitated the First Officer should declare an emergency and operate the aircraft from the right seat

A

TRUE

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13
Q

If project fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining, declare an emergency

A

TRUE

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14
Q

PSA aircraft are limited to a maximum of dry ice per aircraft

A

50 pounds

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15
Q

As a PSA crewmember, the only Hazard Classes you should ever encounter would be

A

Class 8 - Corrosives (wet cell batteries)
Class 9 - Miscellaneous (dry ice)
UN3373, Biological Substance, Category B

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16
Q

Should hazardous material be discovered onboard the aircraft the Captain shall immediately contact

A

Operations Control

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17
Q

PSA accepts dry ice for transportation in:

A

checked baggage
carry-on baggage
air cargo

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18
Q

The AFT Flight Attendant is responsible for communicating with the flight crew

A

FALSE

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19
Q

Critical phases of flight include

A

Taxi

Takeoff and Landing

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20
Q

Under the influence is _____ or more by weight of alcohol in the blood

A

.02 percent

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21
Q

Crew members are not permitted to consume alcohol within ____ of a duty assignment, reserve period, following an accident

A

12 hours

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22
Q

All crew members must carry a valid passport on every flight

A

TRUE

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23
Q

In event of a lost or stolen ID, the crew member must immediately notify

A

Crew Scheduling

Local Authorities

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24
Q

Pilots may not substitute for Flight Attendants during boarding and deplaning

A

TRUE

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25
the PED sign shall remain extinguished for the duration of the flight with the exception of a Category II Approach
TRUE
26
The Fasten Seatbelt sign shall be ON during
Pushback and Taxi Takeoff and Landing Moderate or greater turbulence is anticipated
27
When the Captain elects not to accomplish an item on the checklist when it is called, he/she will state:
Hold the checklist at
28
A line Captain may occupy the right seat during FAR Part 121 operations
FALSE
29
For all aircraft, when operating below______, each pilot crew member will use the aircraft's headset or his/her personal headset/earphone
18,000 ft MSL
30
Do not exceed 250 knots below:
10,000 ft MSL
31
When conditions permit, landing lights should be turned on for takeoff and while operating below:
10,000 ft MSL
32
The PM will verbally state an altitude callout at ______ above/below the assigned altitude
1,000 ft
33
Use of cell phones and personal electronic devices on the flight deck is _______ anytime the aircraft is in motion
prohibited
34
On the ground after departing the gate, a cell phone may be used for operations critical communications only if the aircraft is stopped and the parking brake set
TRUE
35
A First Officer is consider "low time" if he/she has less than ______ in the aircraft type
100 hours (including IOE)
36
Crew members will report for duty at least ____ prior to the scheduled departure time
45 minutes
37
The Captain will conduct the takeoff when visibility is
1600 RVR
38
Normally, turns required for SID compliance, ATC requests or noise abatement cannot be initiated prior to:
400 ft AGL
39
Any turns planned between 50 feet and 400 feet AGL require:
crew briefing prior to departure
40
Separation from VFR and non-participating IFR aircraft when operating in Class G airspace:
is not provided by Air Traffic Control
41
Land and Hold Shot Operations (LAHSO) on wet runways is prohibited
TRUE
42
Derived alternate airport weather minimums for airports with at least two operational navigation facilities:
Add 200 feet to higher MDA or DH and and 1/2 statue mile to higher landing minimum
43
The operational control of the individual flights of PSA is accomplished jointly by:
The Captain of the flight and the Dispatcher in the Operations Control Center
44
The dispatch release may be in any form, but must contain the following:
Trip or flight number | Identification number of the aircraft
45
At the same time the release is sent, the route is sent to ATC to lie the flight plan
TRUE
46
A takeoff alternate is required if
reported prevailing visibility or th eRVR equivalent is below landing visibility
47
Performance data for PSA flights is provided from three sources
Speed Cards TLR ACARS
48
A normal takeoff path assumes the NO turns shall be commenced below
1,000 feet AFE
49
The entire Takeoff Report is based on the Planned QNH (altimeter setting) The Takeoff Report is valid if the actual QNH is
no less than 0.10 below planned QNH
50
If the reduced thrust N1 is less than 83.5%, select a higher temperature in the FMS
FALSE
51
If ice accumulation is suspected on the wings, after landing do not retract the flaps past
20 degrees
52
Maximum take off weight for CRJ900
84,500 lbs
53
Maximum operating altitude for CRJ 701, 900
41,000 ft
54
How does the PIC determine that an aircraft is safe to fly with a deferred maintenance item
refers to the MEL/CDL
55
Winter passenger weights on the CRJ900 are
195 lbs
56
When should you declare an emergency
Any tie the safety of the flight is in jeopardy An aircraft is endangered by fire/smoke In-flight medical emergency
57
If a crew member is unable to continue an assignment due to fatigue, they must submit a fatigue report within 10 days after the end of the trip in which fatigue occurred
FALSE
58
In the armed position, the emergency lights will
automatically come on in the event of a loss of DC Essential Bus power
59
The four levels of CAS message importance are
warning, caution, advisory, status
60
Maximum altitude for APU bleed air extraction for the CRJ700
25,000 ft
61
Permissable TRU DC electrical system loads inflight for the CRJ 701 and 900
120 amps
62
The bottles in the cargo bay are filled with halon and both discharge immediately at the same time to ensure the fire will be extinguished
FALSE
63
Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between left and right for takeoff for CRJ 701 and 900
300 pounds
64
When the wind is greater than 30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose and the wind is greater than 30 knots you must
apply maximum of idle/taxi thrust before brake release then TOGA thrust
65
The 14th Stage Bleed Valves do not automatically close when the ENG FIRE PUSH is selected
FALSE
66
Maximum altitude single pack operation for CRJ700
31,000 ft
67
Without any switches selected to the "on" position, which probes are heated on the ground
L/R Pitot tip and standby pitot probe
68
Hydraulic systems 1 & 2 are cooled by
single air/hydraulic oil heat exchanger | Cooling air from the Ram Air scoop
69
The normal landing gear extension is powered by
Hydraulic system 3
70
The stall protection computer monitors the rate of change of the AOA vane to determine when to disconnect the pusher
TRUE
71
A standby pitot static source, P3/S3, provides pressure for the standby instruments and the CPAM
TRUE
72
Who is responsible to ensure that their system is free from any medication that may negatively affect their job performance
Individual Crew member
73
Who has final authority in the flights operations matters
PIC
74
It is permissible for crew members to engage in nonessential conversation while taxiing
FALSE
75
The maximum airspeed when operating below the lateral limits of Class B airspace
200 KIAS
76
Standard take off minimums for the CRJ 200/700/900 is
1 mile visibility
77
PSA Airlines allows the carriage of a high risk prisoner provided that he/she is escorted by the appropriate Law Enforcement Officer (LEO)
FALSE
78
The dispatcher has the authority to cancel a flight
FALSE
79
The PIC and SIC sign the release affirming that that are fit for duty
TRUE
80
The PIC and SIC sign the release to confirm that they are compliant to FAR Part 117
TRUE
81
During nighttime operations, the giideman shall use two lit wands to signal the flight crew
TRUE
82
The flight crew shall report to the company any time
you are proceeding to your alternate airport as specified on the release
83
Prior to entering RVSM airspace, the flight crew shall verify which equipment is operating normally
One automatic altitude-control system One altitude-alerting system One transponder
84
If on an ILS that has set down altitudes, it is permissible to omit adhering to the step down altitudes provided that you remain on the glideslope
FALSE
85
The company cannot assign, nor can a pilot service as PIC to or from an airport that is determined to be a Special Qualification Airport unless within that preceding 12 months
the PIC has qualified by using pictorial means
86
If braking action is reported as 'nil' you should
contact the dispatcher
87
It is permissible for a pilot to penetrate a "shadow" on your weather radar as it depicts a rapid decrease in convective activity
FALSE
88
Indications that you may be encountering windshear on an approach are
+/- 15 KIAS +/- 1 dot glideslope displacment Unusual thrust setting for extended period of time
89
In addition to a visual check, when is tactile check required
OAT is 5°C or less wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less atmospheric conditions are conducive to frost
90
Summer weights shall be used (dates)
May 1 - Oct 31
91
In the event of an engine failure on take off in IMC, you shall
climb straight ahead to 1,000 AFE
92
What is the minimum visibility you must have to avoid having a takeoff alternate
Cat 1 landing minimum
93
A new hire first officer on IOE is permitted to fly Group 1 ferry flight
FLASE
94
In the 701 or 900, if the APU door is in an unknown position you must
restrict airspeed to 220 KIAS | keep theAPU running
95
When the IDG is disconnected, it can only be reconnected on the ground with the eying shut down
TRUE
96
If you are flying level at FL350 in the CRJ 700 and lose a pack, you must
descend to FL310
97
It is permissible to fly in RVSM with an autopilot deferred
FALSE
98
A fire bottle mounted on the side of the lavatory waste paper towel container discharges automatically into the waste bin when there is a fire in the bin
TRUE
99
The starting system requires 28 volts DC and 14th stage manifold air pressure to open the start valve and operate the air turbine starter
FALSE
100
Takeoff with fuel load in excess of 500 lbs in the center tank is not permitted unless
each wing tank is above 4,400 lbs