Exam Block 2 Flashcards

(173 cards)

1
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of gram-negative bacteria.

A
  • thin peptidoglycan cell wall
  • lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on extracellular surface
  • inner & outer membranes
  • periplasmic space between membranes
  • stains pink after gram stain & safranin counterstain
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2
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of gram-positive bacteria.

A
  • thick peptidolglycan cell wall
  • teicohic & lipteichoic acid on extracellular surface
  • one membrane
  • stains purple after gram stain
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3
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of acid-fast bacteria.

A
  • waxy coating on cell wall
  • do not stain with gram stain
  • stain red with acid-fast stain
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4
Q

Identify some characteristics of bacterial DNA.

A
  • haploid (have a single set of unpaired chromosomes)
  • genetic material is located within a nucleoid (no formal nucleus)
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5
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name the big four classes of bacteria.

A
  1. Gram-positive cocci
  2. Gram-positive rods
  3. Gram-negative cocci
  4. Gram-negative rods
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6
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

What does staphylo mean?

A

clusters

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7
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

What does strepto mean?

A

chains

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8
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Describe the structure of peptidoglycan.

A
  • alternating N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) molecules
  • NAM molecules cross-link to give bacteria shape
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9
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Describe the structure of lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

A
  • lipid A (endotoxin) - contains fatty acid tails and anchors LPS to outer membrane, elicits fever in the host
  • core polysaccharide - contains short sugars
  • o-antigen - carbohydrate chains that exclude hydrophobic compounds
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10
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define bacterial growth.

A

an increase in the number of bacterial cells

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11
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define binary fission.

A

an asexual form of replication that separates the bacterial cell body into two new parts

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12
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define generation time.

A

the time it takes for a bacterial population to double

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13
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define quorum sensing.

A

a form of bacterial communication that arises when cell density is too high in a particular area
* serves to avoid overproliferation

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14
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define pathogenicity islands.

A

distinct regions of bacterial chromosome responsible for virulence factors

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15
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What feature of bacteria is missing in non-virulent strains?

A

pathogenicity islands

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16
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What are siderophores?

A

chelators produced by some bacteria to steal iron from the host

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17
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What things are required for bacterial growth?

A
  • carbon
  • nitrogen
  • energy
  • water
  • ions (vary, Fe is important)
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18
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do obligate anaerobes have for growth?

A

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

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19
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do obligate aerobes have for growth?

A

can only grow in the presence of oxygen

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20
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do facultative anaerobes have for growth?

A

can grow with or without oxygen

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21
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What growth requirement do obligate intracellular parasites have?

A

can only grow within living cells
* rely on ATP from the host to grow

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22
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

What features of binary fission make it unique?

A
  • asexual - one parental chromosome
  • semiconservative - each new chromosome comprises one strand of DNA from the parental chromosome and one complementary daughter strand
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23
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define origin of replication (OriC).

A

location on bacterial chromosome where replication initiator proteins bind

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24
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define terminus of replication.

A

location on bacterial chromosome where replication terminates
* typically directly across from OriC

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25
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. Define **replication "bubble"**.
the space located between bacterial chromosome strands as they replicate
26
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. How does **DNA helicase** function in bacterial replication?
separates the DNA into individual strands
27
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. What is the function of the **replisome** in bacterial replication?
contains several enzymes that create a replication fork to duplicate the leading & lagging strands at the same time (increases efficiency)
28
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. What are the five steps of binary fission?
1. Replication initiator proteins bind OriC. 2. DNA helicase opens OriC & creates two replication forks. 3. DNA is replicated & daughter strands are created by the replisome. 4. Elongation 5. Cleavage furrow develops & cytokinesis Result: daughter cells
29
# L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase. What are the four phases of bacterial growth?
1. Lag phase 2. Logarithmic phase 3. Stationary phase 4. Death phase
30
# L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase. What type of growth occurs during the **lag phase**?
* bacterial cells are engaging in metabolic activity but are NOT replicating * bacteria are acclimating to the growth conditions present in the host
31
# L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase. What type of growth occurs during the **logarithmic phase**?
* rapid (exponential) cell division
32
# L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase. What type of growth occurs during the **stationary phase**?
* cell proliferation & death are in balance, overall growth plateaus * starts to occur when nutrients are running low and/or toxin levels are elevated
33
# L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase. What type of growth occurs during the **death phase**?
* overall number of bacteria is declining * as a result of host's immune system or antibiotic effects
34
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. Define **horizontal gene transfer**.
transfer of genetic material from one organism to another (not offspring)
35
# L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer. Why is horizontal gene transfer important?
allows bacteria to respond & adapt to their environment to increase their chances of survival
36
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What are the three types of horizontal gene transfer?
1. Conjugation 2. Transduction 3. Transformation
37
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. Define bacterial **conjugation**.
unidirectional transfer of plasmid DNA
38
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What two types of bacteria are involved in **conjugation**?
1. Donor cell - has fertility factor (F) plasmid 2. Recipient cell - does not have fertility factor (F) plasmid
39
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What are the four steps of bacterial **conjugation**?
1. F+ bacteria extends **sex pilus** and attaches to F- bacteria. 2. One strand of plasmid DNA unwraps & enters F- bacteria. 3. Each bacteria contains one strand of original plasmid DNA. 4. Each bacteria synthesizes a complementary strand of DNA, both bacteria are now F+.
40
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What are the two specialized types of conjugation discussed?
1. **high frequency recombination (Hfr)** - when plasmid is integrated into bacterial DNA, it also takes some of the donor DNA 2. **resistance plasmids** - genes that confer antibiotic resistance are inserted into F plasmid and transfered into F- bacteria
41
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. Define bacterial **transduction**.
transfer of bacterial DNA between cells by bacteriophages
42
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What is a bacteriophage?
a virus specifically designed to infect bacteria
43
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What are the five steps of bacterial **transduction**?
1. A bacteriophage injects its DNA into bacterial cell. 2. The phage replicates and bacterial DNA is fragmented. 3. Phage replicates & assembles, phages incorporate some bacterial DNA fragments. 4. Bacterial cells lyse and release phages. 5. Phages (now containing bacterial DNA) can inject this DNA into a new recipient.
44
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. Define **recombinant DNA**.
DNA formed when donor DNA combines with recipient DNA
45
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. Define bacterial **transformation**.
process of bacteria taking up foreign DNA and incorporating it into its genome
46
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What are the three steps of bacterial **transformation**.
1. Donor cell lyses, releasing its DNA fragments. 2. Fragments can enters recipients (through receptors or through endocytosis). 3. Fragments become integrated into recipient DNA.
47
# L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer. What is **transfection**?
artificial injection of foreign DNA into a eukaryotic cell nucleus * useful for studying gene expression or inhibition
48
# Also A Scientist Which scientist: * works in Dr. Garry's lab at Tulane SOM * was a PhD candidate in Biomedical Sciences (now PhD) * is a member of Zeta Phi Beta Sorority
Dr. Antoinette Bell-Kareem
49
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action for **penicillins**?
* β-lactam antibiotics * Bind penicillin-binding proteins via β-lactam ring * Blocks cross-linking of NAM molecules of peptidoglycan in cell walls * Causes osmotic imbalance and bacterial death
50
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What makes a drug bacteriocidal?
cause bacterial death
51
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What makes a drug bacteriostatic?
slows bacterial growth
52
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are adverse effects associated with **penicillins**?
* hypersensitivity / allergic reaction
53
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action for **cephalosporins**?
* β-lactam antibiotics * Bind penicillin-binding proteins via β-lactam ring * Blocks cross-linking of NAM molecules of peptidoglycan in cell walls * Causes osmotic imbalance and bacterial death
54
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are adverse effects associated with **cephalosporins**?
* hypersensitivity / allergic reaction - can be a cross-over penicillin allergy
55
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are examples of **1st generation cephalosporins**?
* cefazolin * cephalexin
56
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are **1st & 2nd generation cephalosporins** used to treat?
gram-positive bacterial infections
57
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are examples of **2nd generation cehphalosporins**?
* cefaclor * cefotetan * cefoxitin * cefuroxime
58
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are **3rd & 4th generation cephalosporins** used to treat?
gram-negative bacterial infections
59
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are examples of **3rd generation cephalosporins**?
* cefiximine * cefotaxime * ceftazidime * ceftriaxone ## Footnote **IN CLASS CLINICAL CASE --> MENINGITIS (*N. MENINGITIDIS*)**
60
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are examples of **4th generation cephalosporins**?
* cefepime
61
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of **aminoglycosides**?
* binds the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome * inhibits protein synthesis * bacteriocidal * requires O2 for uptake
62
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What adverse effects are associated with **aminoglycosides**?
* nephrotoxic - damages kidneys * ototoxic - damages ears * teratogenic - damages unborn fetuses
63
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are examples of **aminoglycosides**?
* gentamycin * neomycin * amikacin * tobramycin * streptomycin
64
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action for **tetracyclines**?
* bind the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes * inhibit protein synthesis * bacteriostatic * cannot take with divalent cations because they inhibit absorption in the gut
65
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are adverse effects are associated with **tetracyclines**?
* discoloration of teeth * inhibition of bone growth in children * photosensitivity * teratogenic
66
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What are the three characteristic stages of Lyme Disease?
1. early localized Lyme disease (erythema chronicum migrans) 2. early disseminated Lyme disease (migratory arthralgia, Bell's palsy, myocarditis) 3. late Lyme disease (chronic arthritis, progressive encephalomyelitis)
67
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of **macrolides**?
* binds 50s subunit of baceterial ribosome * bacteriostatic
68
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What adverse effects are associated with **macrolides**?
* Arrythmia - prolonged QT interval * Rash * GI upset
69
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What complication arises with prolonged QT intervals?
* Torsade de Pointes - arrythmia not compatible with life
70
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of **fluoroquinolones**?
* inhibit prokaryotic topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV * impairs DNA synthesis * bacteriocidal
71
# L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics. What adverse effects are associated with **fluoroquinolones**?
* tendonitis or tendon rupture (especially in pregnant women, children, and the elderly) * Arrythmia - prolonged QT interval
72
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **penicillins**?
* β-lactamases cleave β-lactam rings * mutations occur in penicillin-binding proteins
73
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. How have researchers attempted to combat penicillin resistance?
* β-lactamase inhibitors exist to "counter the counter" | i.e. Clavulanic acid (Augmentin)
74
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **cephalosporins**?
* β-lactamases cleave β-lactam rings
75
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. How have researchers attempted to combat resistance to **cephalosporins**?
* β-lactamase inhibitors exist to "counter the counter" | i.e Clavulanic acid (Augmentin)
76
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **aminoglycosides**?
* bacterial transferases inactivate the drugs
77
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **tetracyclines**?
* transport pumps decrease uptake and/or increase efflux of drug out of cells
78
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **macrolides**?
* 50s subunit of bacterial ribosome can be altered to prevent drug binding
79
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What mechanisms of resistance exist for **fluoroquinolones**?
* topoisomerase genes can be mutated to alter the drug-protein interaction * pumps can efflux drug out of cells
80
# L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics. What general mechanisms of resistance do bacteria adopt?
* gene resistance encoding plasmids * conjugation * transformation
81
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function **biofilm**?
* adheres bacterial colonies to the host * protects from immune cells & antibiotics
82
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of a **capsule**?
to inhibit phagocytosis
83
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **liptoteichoic acid** and **peptidoglycan**?
* has endotoxin-like effects * triggers macrophages to release pro-inflammatory cytokines * helps with adhesion by binding fibronectin
84
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cell wall protein A**?
* binds antibodies to block complement activation * inhibits phagocytosis
85
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cytotoxins**?
to lyse red & white blood cells
86
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What 5 **cytotoxins** are found in staphylococus?
* alpha * beta * delta * gamma * Panton-Valentine leukocidin
87
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **coagulase**?
* converts fibrinogen to fibrin * promotes clot formation
88
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **fibrinolysin/staphylokinase**?
* dissolves fibrin clots * potentially allowing spread to new niches in host
89
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **hyaluronidase**?
degrades hyaluronic acids
90
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **lipase**?
* inhibits host immune cells * inactivate bactericidal lipids * promote biofilm formation
91
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **nuclease**?
* hydrolyze DNA * aid in bacterial evasion of NETs
92
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What are **superantigens**?
type of antigen that results in excessive activation of immune system that causes significant damage to host
93
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **exfoliative toxins (A&B)**?
proteases that destroy the granular layer of the epidermis
94
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **enterotoxins**?
* stimulate T-cell & macrophage release of cytokines * trigger mast cell degranualtion * causes peristalsis & vomiting
95
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **toxic shock syndrome toxin I (TSST)**?
* stimulates T-cell proliferation & release of cytokines * causes blood vessel leakage
96
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **F proteins**?
* bind fibronectin - increases adhesion to host ECM * facilitates epithelial cell invasion - migration to deeper tissues
97
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **M protein**?
* blocks complement activation and phagocytosis * facilitate epithelial cell invasion - migration to deeper tissues
98
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **M-like surface proteins**?
* binds fibronectin in the ECM * binds antibodies * blocks phagocytosis
99
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **surface C5a peptidase**?
inactivates C5a part of complement system
100
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins**?
stimulates T-cell & macrophage release of cytokines
101
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **streptolysins S & O**?
lyse blood cells
102
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **streptokinases A & B**?
enzymes that break up blood clots to promote bacterial spread
103
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **DNases**?
* decrease pus viscosity to promote bacterial spread * aids in evasion of NETs
104
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **IgA protease**?
degrades IgA to allow bacteria to reach mucous membranes of respiratory & GI tract
105
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **pneumonlysin**?
lyses phagocytic cells & respiratory epithelium
106
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. How does **hydrogen peroxide** function as a virulence factor?
damages host tissues
107
# L11 LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **phosphorylcholine**? | *S. pneumoniae* virulence factor
facilitates entry into host cells to evade detection
108
# ALSO A SCIENTIST Which scientist: * created groupings for beta-hemolytic streptococci that was based on carbohydrate composition of cell walls * first female president of the American Association of Immunologists * "the Scotland Yard or streptococcal mysteries"
Dr. Rebecca Lancefield
109
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is **lipooligosaccharide (LOS)**?
endotoxin with toxic lipid A region
110
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What are **pili**?
* assist with attachment to host cells * faciliate a twitching motility to escape
111
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is **IgA protease**?
degrades IgA to allow bacteria to reach mucous membranes of respiratory & GI tract
112
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **opacity proteins (Opa)**?
bind epithelial & phagocytic cells | **CELLS WILL APPEAR OPAQUE IF THEY HAVE OPA**
113
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **porin proteins (Por)**?
* creates pore to allow nutrient & waste movement * allows bacteria to live intracellularly
114
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **Factor H binding protein (FHBP)**? | *Neisseria* virulence factor
to inhibit the complement pathway
115
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **β-lactamase**?
to confer penicillin resistance
116
# Also A Scientist Which scientist: * one of the first two African-American women to earn a DVM * granddaughter of slaves * father opened medical laboratory techniques courses to women * co-developed Mueller-Hinton again used to isolate Neisseria bacteria
Jane Hinton
117
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **B subunit exotoxins**?
protective antigen that binds to host cells
118
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **A subunit exotoxins**?
combine with B subunit to form active toxin
119
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **edema factor (EF)**?
increases intracellular cAMP and causes swelling
120
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **lethal factor (LF)**?
protease that activates MAPK and causes cell death
121
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **heat-stable enterotoxin**?
ensures that reheating does not kill bacteria
122
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **heat-labile enterotoxin**?
increases epithelial cAMP but is vulnerable to heating
123
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the functoin of **diptheria toxin**?
kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis
124
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of the **A subunit of diptheria toxin**?
inactivates host cell protein synthesis
125
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of the **binding region of the B subunit of diptheria toxin**?
binds to receptors on membranes of host cells
126
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of the **translocation region of the B subunit of diptheria toxin**?
faciliatates movement of toxin into cell
127
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **internalin A**?
finds receptors on host enterocytes
128
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **internalin B**?
finds receptors on host endothelial cells, fibroblasts and enterocytes
129
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **listeriolysin O**?
helps pathogen escape from vacuoles and supports microbial evasion of the phagolyosome
130
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **actin assembly-inducing protein (ActA)**?
facilitates intra- and intercellular movement via "comet tails"
131
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **toxin A**?
* attracts neutrophils which release cytokines * increases intestinal wall permeability
132
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **toxin B**?
destroys cytoskeletal integrity
133
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **tetanospasmin**?
heat-labile neurotoxin that blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
134
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **tetanolysin**?
oxygen-labile hemolysin that promotes tissue necrosis
135
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **botulinum exotoxins A-G**?
"miracle poison" that blocks acetylcholine release at peripheral motor junctions
136
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **alpha toxins**?
causes hemolysis, vascular leakage, liver toxicity and cardiac dysfunction
137
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **food poisoning enterotoxins**?
alter intestinal membrane permeability and cause fluid loss
138
# Also A Scientist Which scientist: * isolated a strain of diptheria bacillus that was used to create an antitoxin * published "Pathogenic Micro-organism Including Bacteria and Protozoa: A Practical Manual for Students" and "Physcians and Health Officers Who's Who Among the Microbes"
Anna Wessels Williams, MD
139
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of ***E. coli* endotoxin**?
heat-stable LPS
140
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **T3SS inject effectors**?
inject virulence effector proteins into host cells
141
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **hemolysin A**?
destroys red blood cells
142
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **Dr fimbriae**?
fimbriae that attach to urothelium
143
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **OmpA**?
to attach to brain microvascular endothelial cells
144
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **invasion of brain endothelial cells (Ibe)**?
facilitate invasion of the blood-brain barrier
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# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cytotoxic necrotizing factor I (CNFI)**?
facilitate invasion of the blood-brain barrier
146
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **salmonella-secreted invasion proteins**?
facilitate entry into hosts
147
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **actin tails**?
facilitate migration into adjacent cells
148
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **shiga exotoxin**?
impairs protein synthesis of host
149
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **urease**?
converts urea to ammonia & bicarbonate to neutralize gastric acids
150
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **mucinase**?
allows bacteria to migrate through vicous fluid of GI tract
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# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **superoxide dismutase**?
detoxify reactive oxygen species
152
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **vacuolating cytotoxin A**?
* promotes pore formation * disrupts cell signaling * induces apoptosis and necrosis of host cells
153
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cytotoxin-associated gene A product**?
* promotes proliferation and morphological changes in host tissues * induces T-cell apoptosis
154
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **type 4 secretion systems (T4SS)**?
inject the cagA effector protein into host cells
155
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cytolethal distending toxin**?
induces cell death and IL-8 secretion
156
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **cholera toxin**?
* causes damage to small intestine epithelial cells * increases cAMP leading to fluid loss
157
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **accessory cholera enterotoxin (ACE)**?
water & ion secretion
158
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **zonula occludens toxin (ZOT)**?
* disassembles epithelial tight junctions * increases intestinal permeability
159
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **neuraminadase**?
increases availability of binding sites for cholera toxin
160
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **thermostable direct hemolysin (tdh)**?
increases intestinal fluid secretion
161
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **TDH-related hemolysis (trh)**?
increase intestinal fluid secretion
162
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **carbapenemase**?
inhibit carbapenam function
163
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **pyoverdine**?
* regulates secretion of exotoxin A * acts as a siderophore * turns green when grown in culture
164
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **pyocyanin**?
* increases cellular levels of cytotoxic superoxide & hydrogen peroxide * damages mucosal cells * turns blue when grown in culture
165
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **exoenzymes S & T**?
* disrupt host cell actin cytoskeletons * promote cell death
166
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **exoenzyme U**?
cytotoxic to epithelial cells & macrophages
167
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **exoenzyme Y**?
causes edema
168
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **elastases**?
degrade elastin
169
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **dermonecrotic toxin**?
forms necrotic lesions
170
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **tracheal cytotoxin**?
destroy ciliated cells of respiratory tract
171
# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is the function of **pertussis toxin**?
suppresses immune response
172
# Also A Scientist Which scientists: * researched pertussis and tested their vaccine on themselves * created first vaccine against disease in America * discovered sheep's blood as the key process to culture incubation
* Pearl Kendrick, PhD * Grace Elderling, PhD * Loney Gordon
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# LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do. What is. thefunction of **variable membrane proteins**?
* adaptation to new environments * antigenic variation