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Medicine > Exam Cram Pack > Flashcards

Exam Cram Pack Flashcards

0
Q

Type II error.

A

Missing the difference between two groups.

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1
Q

Type I error

A

Falsely finding difference between two groups.

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2
Q

Sensitivity formula

A

TP/(TP + FN)

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3
Q

Specificity formula

A

TN/(TN + FP)

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4
Q

Prevalence formula

A

(TP + FN)/(TP + FN + TN + FP)

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5
Q

Positive Predictive Value formula

A

TP/(TP + FP)

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6
Q

Negative Predictive Value

A

TN/(TN + FN)

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7
Q

Probability formula

A

Odds/ (1 + odds)

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8
Q

Odds formula

A

Probability/ (1 - probability)

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9
Q

Absolute Risk

A

Patients with event/ Total patients

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10
Q

Absolute Risk Reduction

A

Control event rate - experimental event rate

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11
Q

Absolute risk increase

A

Experimental event rate - control event rate

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12
Q

Relative Risk

A

Experimental event rate/ control event rate

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13
Q

Relative risk reduction or increase.

A

Absolute risk/ control event rate

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14
Q

Number needed to treat or harm

A

1/absolute risk

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15
Q

Mammogram age

A

50 - 74 years

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16
Q

AAA screen age

A

65 - 75

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17
Q

Bone density age

A

More than 65 years

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18
Q

Zoster vaccine age

A

60 years

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19
Q

Pneumococcus vaccine age

A

65 years

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20
Q

Do hip protectors prevent hip fractures?

A

No

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21
Q

Hyperbaric oxygen effective in treating pressure ulcers?

A

No

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22
Q

Pre-op before lung resection

A

Diagnostic spirometry.

OSA screen

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23
Q

Clopidogrel and surgery

A

Stop 5 - 7 days before surgery

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24
Q

Most important survival tool in cancer

A

Performance status

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25
Q

Duration of chronic cough and next step

A

> 8 weeks.

Chest radiograph.

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26
Q

Treatment of BPPV

A

Epley maneuver

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27
Q

Treatment of non self limiting vestibular neuritis

A

Steroid

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28
Q

Treatment of Meneire’s disease

A

Thiazide diuretics

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29
Q

HLD screening for males

A

> 35 years

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30
Q

HLD screening for females

A

> 45 years

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31
Q

Risk factors for heart disease

A
  1. Age: women over 55, men over 45
  2. HTN
  3. Smoking
  4. HDL < 40
  5. Family history: male less than 55, woman less than 65
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32
Q

Coronary disease or risk equivalent.

What LDL to treat?

A

100 mg/dl or more

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33
Q

0 - 1 risk factors.

LDL to treat

A

190 or more

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34
Q

Intermediate risk with 2 or more risk factors

LDL to treat

A

160 mg/dl or over

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35
Q

High risk; with 2 or more risk factors

LDL to treat

A

130 mg/dl or more

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36
Q

Defination of obesity

A

BMI over 30

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37
Q

Which obesity drug is contraindicated in hypertension?

A

Sibutramine

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38
Q

Name two obesity drugs

A

Orlistat

Sibutramine

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39
Q

What is pre-hypertension?

A

120-139/80-89

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40
Q

Stage 1 HTN

A

140-159/90-99

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41
Q

Stage 2 HTN

A

> 160/>100

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42
Q

GFR < 30

Which diuretic more effective as anti-HTN med?

A

Loop diuretic

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43
Q 
LDL goal
High risk (CHD or equivalent)
A

100 mg/dl or less

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44
Q

Intermediate (>2 risk factors)

LDL goal

A

130 mg/dl or less

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45
Q 
Low risk (0-1 risk factors)
LDL goal
A

160 mg/dl or less

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46
Q

How fast should you lose weight?

A

1-2 pounds per week

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47
Q

Absent cremasteric reflex.

Diagnosis likely?

A

Testicular torsion

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48
Q

Treatment of chronic prostatitis

A

Alpha blockers

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49
Q

Leading cause of infertility in males.

A

Varicocele

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50
Q

What’s the pro-drug for morphine?

A

Codeine

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51
Q

Weber test

A

Tuning fork on forehead

256 Hz

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52
Q

Rinne test

A

Tuning fork on mastoid process

512 Hz

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53
Q

Can presbycusis cause tinnitus

A

Yes

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54
Q

Rheumatic fever bacteria

A

Group A hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes

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55
Q

Lemierre’s disease

Infectious thrombophlebitis of jugular vein

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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56
Q

Pharyngitis with conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

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57
Q

Is post streptococcal glomerulonephritis preventable with antibiotics?

A

No

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58
Q

Treatment of strep throat

A

Penicillin G

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59
Q

Treatment of influenza

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

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60
Q

Osler-Webb-Rendu

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias

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61
Q

Nasal packing in case of nose bleed.

What antibiotic coverage required to be in place?

A

Staphylococcus coverage.

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62
Q

Treatment of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

A

Penicillin plus metronidazole.
Or
Clindamycin.

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63
Q

Treatment of Ludwig’s Angina.

A

Ampicillin/Sulbactam, penicillin, and metronidazole.

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64
Q

Treatment of Lemierre’s disease.

A

Penicillin or clindamycin.
Abcess drainage.
Anticoagulation recommended.

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65
Q

Oral cancer treatment.

A

Resection and radiotherapy

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66
Q

Treatment of squamous cell carcinoma at tongue base.

A

Chemoradiotherapy.

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67
Q

Treatment of glossadynia.

A

Alpha-lipoic acid.

Clonazepam.

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68
Q

Treatment oral lichen planus.

A

Reduce inflammation with corticosteroids, cyclosporine s, and retinoids.

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69
Q

Treatment of hairy cell leukoplakia (usually in HIV)

A

Zidovudine or Acyclovir.

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70
Q

What kind of hearing loss do you have in acoustic neuroma?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss.

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71
Q

If a patient presents with similar symptoms 7 days after being treated with IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhea, what should you suspect?

A

Re-infection.

Needs treatment again.

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72
Q

What kind of anesthesia is needed for cataract surgery?

A

MAC usually.

General surgery is rare.

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73
Q

What do you do with the anti-coagulation in cataract surgery?

A

Can usually be continued.

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74
Q

What kind of diabetic eye disease is the most common cause of visual impairment?

A

Diabetic maculopathy

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75
Q

When do you start screening for diabetic retinopathy in type 1?

A

3 - 5 years after diagnosis.

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76
Q

When do you start screening for diabetic retinopathy in type 2?

A

Immediately after diagnosis.

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77
Q

Most common infectious cause of corneal blindness.

A

Herpes simplex keratitis

78
Q

Linear branching corneal ulcer on fluorescein stain.

A

Dendritic

Herpes simplex keratitis

79
Q

Treatment for herpes simplex keratitis.

A

Topical ganciclovir

80
Q

Most common opportunistic ocular infection in AiDS

A

CMV retinitis

81
Q

Bilateral ocular discomfort, irritation, crusting of lashes, worse in the morning with remissions and exacerbations.
Diagnosis?

A

Blepharitis

82
Q

Treatment of blepharitis

A

Oral tetracyclines
Topical antibiotics and steroids
Warm compresses and eyelid scrubs

83
Q

Foreign body sensation, burning, tearing. Typically worse at end of day.
Corneal fluorescein staining shows fine diffuse erosions.
Diagnosis?

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

84
Q

Treatment of keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

A

Artificial tears

Topical cyclosporine

85
Q

Precautions in viral conjunctivitis.

A

Avoid close contact with people 7 - 14 days.

86
Q

Mucopurulent discharge from eye. And eyelashes sticking together.

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis.
S. pneumoniae
S. aureus
H. influenza

87
Q

Papillae (red dots) on conjunctival lining of eyelid.

Diagnosis

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

88
Q

Treatment of allergic conjunctivitis.

A

Topical antihistamine/mast cell stabilizers

89
Q

Treatment of scleritis

A

Peri ocular steroid injections, systemic steroids or immunosuppressants.

90
Q

Treatment of episcleritis.

A

Topical NSAIDS or steroids.

91
Q

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.

Associated with?

A

Giant cell arteritis

92
Q

Treatment of chemical burns to the eye.

A

Immediate copious irrigation.

93
Q

Which oral medication can stop an attack of angle closure glaucoma?

A

Acetazolamide.

94
Q

Medications that decrease efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

A 
Griseofulvin 
Rifampin
Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital
Dilantin
Oxycarbazepine
Bosentan
95
Q

Treatment of trichomoniasis.

A

Metronidazole.

Also treat partner.

96
Q

Dyspareneuia + dysmenorrhea + infertility.

Diagnosis?

A

Endometriosis.

97
Q

Bloody nipple discharge.

Diagnosis?

A

Intraductal papilloma.

98
Q

Do most patients with atopic dermatitis have a food allergy?

A

No.

99
Q

Topical treatment of psoriasis.

A

Vitamin D3 analogues.
Tazarotene.
Topical steroids.

100
Q

What is the systemic treatment for psoriasis?

A

Methotrexate
Cyclosporine
Biologics: etanercept, infliximab

101
Q

Treatment of seborrheic dermatitis

A

Topical steroids
Ketoconazole
Topical tacrolimus/pimecrolimus

102
Q

Herald patch

A

Pityriasis Rosea

103
Q

Christmas tree distribution

A

Pityriasis Rosea

104
Q

Percentage of skin involvement in Steven Johnson’s syndrome.

A

10 - 30%

105
Q

Percentage of skin involvement in toxic epidermal necrolysis.

A

More than 30%

106
Q

Treatment of hidradenitis.

A 
Acute painful lesion inject intralesional triamcinolone.
Oral antibiotics (rifampin + clindamycin > tetracycline)
Oral retinoids.
107
Q

Which tetracycline can you use in renal failure?

A

Doxycycline

108
Q

Difference between acne and rosacea.

A

Acne has comedones; rosacea does not.

109
Q

What’s the number 1 cause of tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia globosa.

110
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs.

Diagnosis?

A

Tinea versicolor

111
Q

Treatment of tinea versicolor.

A

Topical antifungals

Selenium sulfide-containing shampoos.

112
Q

Hypo or hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and arms (spares face)
Wood’s lamp yellow.
Diagnosis?

A

Tinea versicolor.

113
Q

Treatment of tinea nigra

A

Topical -azole

114
Q

Treatment of severe tinea capitis with kerion (boggy, oozing inflammatory reaction).

A

Oral fluconazole and prednisone.

115
Q

Immunosuppressed patient with papules and pustules in hair-bearing areas. Indurated, pink plaque.
Diagnosis?

A

Majocchi granuloma.

T. rubrum and T. Tonsurans

116
Q

Treatment of majocchi granuloma.

A

Systemic antifungals.

117
Q

Treatment of anthrax.

A

Penicillin

Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline.

118
Q

Treatment of Borrelia/Lyme

A

Doxycycline

119
Q

Borrelia/Lyme in children and pregnant women.

Treatment.

A

Amoxicillin

120
Q

What immune problem predisposes to meningococcemia?

A

Complement deficiencies.

C3 - C5

121
Q

Treatment of meningococcemia.

A

IV penicillin or ceftriaxone.

122
Q

Plaques on external nares.
Mikulicz cells on pathology.
Diagnosis?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae rhinoscleromatis

123
Q

Treatment of rhinoscleromatis.

A

Ciprofloxacin

124
Q

Organism causing ecthyma gangrenosum.

A

P. aeruginosa.

125
Q

Green nails.

Organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

126
Q

Hot tub folliculitis.

Organism?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

127
Q

Q fever.

Organism?

A

Coxiella burnetii

128
Q

Treatment of rickettsial diseases.

A

Tetracyclines.

Doxycycline preferred.

129
Q

Treatment for leprosy.

A

Dapsone
Rifampin
Clofazimime

130
Q

Name rapid growing atypical mycobacterium.

A

M. abscessus.
M. chelonei.
M. fortuitum

131
Q

Treatment of Mycobacterium marinum.

A

Minocycline.

132
Q

Sharply erythematous marginated patches. Wood’s lamp shows coral red florescence.
Diagnosis.
Organism.
Treatment.

A

Erythrasma.
Corynebacterium minutissimum.
Topical benzoyl peroxide gel and macrolide/tetracycline.

133
Q

Honey colored crusts.
Diagnosis.
Organism.
Treatment.

A

Impetigo
Strep pyogenes / Staph aureus
Benzyl peroxide, dicloxacillin / vancomycin.

134
Q 
Very ill patient: necrotic ulcer with erythematous rim.
Associated with hot tub folliculitis.
Diagnosis.
Organism.
Treatment.
A

Ecthyma gangrenosum.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Ciprofloxacin, meropenem, imipenem, piperacillin.

135
Q

Explosive superinfection around central face with swelling and erythema.
Diagnosis
Organism
Treatment

A

Erysipelas.
Strep pyogenes
Erythromycin, clarithromycin, cephalosporin and clindamycin.

136
Q

What organism cause infectious mononucleosis.

A

EBV

137
Q

Treatment of primary syphilis.

A

Penicillin.

138
Q

Treatment of chancroid.

A

Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin

139
Q

“School of fish” on gram or giemsa stain.
Soft, painful, tender chancre.
Diagnosis?

A

Chancroid.

H. ducreyi.

140
Q

Donnovan bodies - safety pin shaped intracytoplasmic inclusions in macrophages.
Diagnosis and treatment.

A

Granuloma Inguinale

TMP-SMX, doxycycline, erythromycin, ciprofloxacin.

141
Q

Painless, soft lesion that heals spontaneously.
Secondary inguinal adenopathy, fluctuant, tender nodes.
Diagnosis and treatment.

A 
Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia trachomatis)
Doxycycline.
142
Q

Treatment of gonorrhea.

A

Ceftriaxone.

143
Q

Treatment of leishmaniasis.

A

Pentavalent antimony/sodium stibogluconate.

144
Q

What’s the number 1 cause of acquired blindness worldwide?

A

River blindness.

Onchocerciasis

145
Q

Treatment of scabies.

A

Permethrin cream 5%

Ivermectin oral

146
Q

Which antibody is associated with Annular SLE?

A

Anti-Ro antibody

147
Q

What are the two top causes of mortality in scleroderma?

A
  1. Lung disease.

2. Scleroderma renal crisis.

148
Q

Which antibody is positive in mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti U1-RNP

149
Q

First disease - Rubeola/measles.

Virus?

A

Paramyxovirus.

150
Q

Second disease - Scarlet fever

Organism?

A

Streptococcus.

151
Q

Third disease - Rubella/German measles

Virus?

A

Togavirus

152
Q

Fourth disease - Duke’s disease.

Virus?

A

Not specific

153
Q

Fifth disease - Erythema infectiosum

Virus?

A

Parvovirus B19

154
Q

Sixth disease - Roseola/Exanthem subitum.

Virus?

A

HHV - 6/7

155
Q

What medications cause psoriasis flares?

A

Withdrawal of systemic steroids.
Interferon.
ACE inhibitors.
Antimalarial drugs

156
Q

What is eruptive seborrheic keratosis (Lesar Trelat) associated with?

A

Gastric carcinoma.

157
Q

What kind of MRI image do multiple sclerosis flares show up on?

A

T2 FLAIR

158
Q

What kind of MRI image does a stroke show up well on?

A

Diffusion weighted imaging.

159
Q

Parkinson’s disease + autonomic features.

A

Multiple system atrophy.

160
Q

Parkinson’s disease + difficulty with upward gaze.

A

Progressive supra nuclear palsy.

161
Q

Parkinson’s disease + alien hand syndrome (they think their limb is not theirs)

A

Corticobasal degeneration.

162
Q

Wacky, wobbly, wet.

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus.

163
Q

Anti-Ri antibody

A

Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome

164
Q

Anti-Yo antibody

A

Subacute cerebellar cortical degeneration syndrome

165
Q

Treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

A

Riluzole

166
Q

Concussion - Loss of consciousness.

Return to play in?

A

1 - 2 weeks

167
Q

Concussion - no loss of consciousness.

Return to play in?

A

1 week

168
Q

Concussion - symptoms resolve in less than 15 seconds.

Return to play in?

A

Immediately.

169
Q

Is photosensitivity a feature of chlorpromazine?

A

Yes.

170
Q

How long after cessation of alcohol does delirium tremens usually begin?

A

72 hours after cessation of drinking.

171
Q

How much does sodium fall with every 100 mg/dl rise in blood glucose?

A

1.6 meq/l

172
Q

What should you suspect if the urine pH is above 5.5 in the setting of metabolic acidosis?

A

Renal tubular acidosis.

173
Q

What medication can be used to treat SIADH?

A

Conivaptan

174
Q

Contraindications for conivaptan.

A

Heart failure.

Cirrhosis.

175
Q

Formula for free water deficit.

A

TBW x ((plasma sodium/140) - 1)

176
Q

Easy formula for metabolic acidosis compensation.

A

PCO2 = HCO3 + 15.
Or
Last digits of pH

177
Q

Easy formula for metabolic alkalosis compensation.

A

PCO2 = HCO3 + 15.

pCO2 increases 7 mmHg for each 10 meq/l bicarb increase

178
Q

Respiratory acidosis compensation

A

Acute: HCO3 increases by 1 meq/l for each 10 mmHg in pCO2
Chronic: HCO3 increases by 4 meq/l for each 10 mmHg in pCO2

179
Q

Respiratory alkalosis compensation.

A

Acute: HCO3 decreases by 2 meq/l for each 10 mmHg increase in pCO2.
Chronic: HCO3 decreases by 4 meq/l for each 10 mmHg increase in pCO2.

180
Q

Calculated osmolality formula.

A

2 x Na + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8

181
Q

Negative urine anion gap.

Etiology?

A

Extra-renal cause.

182
Q

Positive urine anion gap.

Etiology?

A

Renal tubular disorders.

183
Q

Kidney stones in acidic urine?

A

Uris acid

Cystine

184
Q

Kidney stones in alkaline urine?

A

Struvite

Calcium phosphate

185
Q

Hemoglobin goal in CKD.

A

10 - 11 g/dl

186
Q

Treatment of steroid resistant focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.

A

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus.

187
Q

Treatment of IgA nephropathy.

A

ACE inhibitors.
ARBs
Fish oil

If severe then corticosteroids

188
Q

Treatment of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

A

Supportive; fluid, salt restriction.

Diuretics

189
Q

Treatment of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody disease.

A

Plasmapheresis.

Cyclophosphamide and prednisone.

190
Q

How much proteinuria for nephrotic syndrome?

A

More than 3.5g/24h

191
Q

Philadelphia chromosome

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

192
Q

What factors protect against ovarian cancer?

A

Pregnancy
OCPs
Oophorectomy
Lactation

Medicine (11 decks)

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