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Microbiology Exam II > Exam II Microbiology: Chapter 11 > Flashcards

Exam II Microbiology: Chapter 11 Flashcards

1
Q

What is in a state of dynamic equilibrium with microorganisms

A

The human body

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2
Q

Listed below are:

  • Old age and extreme youth (infancy, prematurity)
  • Genetic defects in immunity and acquired defects in immunity (AIDS)
  • Surgery and organ transplants
  • Underlying disease: cancer, liver malfunction, diabetes
  • Chemotherapy/immunosuppressive drugs
  • Physical and mental stress
  • Pregnancy
  • Other infections
A

Factors that weaken host defenses and increase susceptibility

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3
Q

A microbe whose relationship with its host is parasitic and results in infection and disease is called?

A

Pathogen

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4
Q

Disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes and their products is called?

A

Infectious disease

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5
Q 
Portal of Entry – “Getting in”
Adherence or Attachment – “Staying in”
Defeating host defenses
Damaging the host
Exiting the host and transmission to the next host
A

Steps to causing infections

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6
Q

Any deviation from health is called?

A

Disease

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7
Q

The route that a microbe takes to enter the tissues of the body to initiate an infection

A

Portal of entry

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8
Q

Microbe originating from a source outside the body from the environment or another person or animal

A

Exogenous

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9
Q

Microbe already existing on or in the body – normal biota or a previously silent infection

A

Endogenous

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10
Q

What is capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses?

A

Primary pathogens

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11
Q

True / False

If certain pathogens enter the “wrong” portal, they will not be infectious

A

True

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12
Q

What can cause disease when the host’s defenses are compromised or when they become established in a part of the body that is not natural to them or when normal flora is destroyed?

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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13
Q

The degree of pathogenicity

-Is reflected by the relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microbe

A

Virulence

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14
Q

Virulence of a microbe is determined by its ability to:

A
  1. Establish itself in a host

2. Cause damage

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15
Q

Any characteristic or structure of the microbe contributes to its ability to establish itself in the host and cause damage is referred to as:

A

Virulence factor

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16
Q

The minimum number of microbes necessary to cause an infection to proceed is called?

A

Infectious Dose

ID or ID50

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17
Q

The number of microbes required to cause infection in 50% of test subjects is “technically” called:

A

Infectious Dose

ID or ID50

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18
Q

ID for rickettsia is a single cell

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

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19
Q

ID for tuberculosis and ________ about 10 cells.

A

giardiasisis

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20
Q

True / False

ID for E. coli is 100 cells

A

True

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21
Q

Microbes can use _________ to adhere (STAY IN) to the host

A

Fimbriae

Pili (since they help form biofilms)

Surface proteins

Adhesive slime layers or capsules

Viruses attach by specialized receptors

Parasitic worms fastened by suckers, hooks, and barbs

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22
Q
  1. Respiratory mucous membranes (most common since we have to breath continuously)
  2. Gastrointestinal mucous membranes (second most common since we have to eat or drink regularly)
  3. Genitourinary mucous membranes
  4. Parenteral portal of entry (broken skin)
  5. Intact skin (least common – very few microbes use this portal of entry)
A

The five portals of entry

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23
Q

Host cells that engulf and destroy pathogens by means of enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals are called?

A

Phagocytes

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24
Q

____________ makes it difficult to for phagocytes to engulf microbes

A

Extracellular capsule

Step Three: Surviving Host Defenses

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25
Q

____________ has a waxy wall (mycolic acid) can cannot be digested by the lysosome and can live inside a phagocyte

A

Mycobacterium

Step Three: Surviving Host Defenses

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26
Q

What kills phagocytes outright?

A

Leukocidins

Step Three: Surviving Host Defenses

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27
Q

Three ways that microorganisms cause damage to their host:

A
  1. Direct damage (example – viruses lysing host cells)
  2. Through the action of enzymes
  3. Through the action of toxins
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28
Q

Accumulated damage due to pathogens leading to cell and tissue death

A

Necrosis

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29
Q

Microbes eventually settle in a particular target organ and cause direct damage at the site is called?

A

Direct Damage

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30
Q

What are simply adaptations a microbe uses to establish itself in a host?

A

Virulence factors

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31
Q

What are enzymes secreted by microbes that break down and inflict damage on tissues?

A

Exoenzymes

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32
Q

What dissolves the host’s defense barriers to promote the spread of disease to other tissues?

A

Exoenzymes

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33
Q

What exoenzyme digests the protective coating on mucous membranes?

A

Mucinase

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34
Q

What exoenzyme digests the ground substance that cements animal cells together?

A

Hyaluronidase

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35
Q

What exoenzyme causes clotting of blood or plasma?

A

Coagulase

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36
Q

What exoenzyme dissolves fibrin clots?

A

Kinase

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37
Q

What exoenzyme disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of red blood cells?

A

Hemolysins

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38
Q

What are the three types of hemolysis that can result from the production (or no production) of hemolysins?

A
  1. Gamma hemolysis
  2. Alpha hemolysis
  3. Beta hemolysis
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39
Q

Which type of hemolysis causes incomplete lysis of red blood cells?

.

A

Alpha hemolysis

40
Q

Which type of hemolysis causes no lysing of red blood cells?

A

Gamma hemolysis

41
Q

Which type of hemolysis causes complete lysis of red blood cells?

A

Beta hemolysis

42
Q

The media is clear

A

Beta hemolysis

43
Q

The media has a greenish color

A

Alpha hemolysis

44
Q

The media appears the normal red color

A

Gamma hemolysis

45
Q

What is a specific chemical product of microbes, plants, and some animals that is poisonous to other organisms?

A

Toxin

46
Q

What are the two forms of toxins?

A

Endotoxins

Exotoxins

47
Q

Which type of toxins are produced and secreted by bacterial cells?

A

Exotoxins

48
Q

Which type of toxins are part of the Gram negative cell wall and will only be released when the cell dies?

A

Endotoxins

49
Q

Which type of toxin is very specific in it’s activity and is named according to it’s target?

A

Exotoxins

50
Q

Which type of exotoxin acts on the nervous system?

A

Neurotoxins

51
Q

Which type of exotoxin acts on the intestines?

A

Enterotoxins

52
Q

Most toxic thing known to man?

A

Botulism

53
Q

Which type of exotoxin damages the kidneys?

A

Nephrotoxins

54
Q

Which type of exotoxin damages the heart?

A

Cardiotoxins

55
Q

Which type of exotoxin kill cells?

A

Cytotoxins

56
Q

What can exotoxins can produce?

A

Antibodies

57
Q

Most exotoxins are ____ _____?

A

Gram positive

58
Q

Most endotoxins are _____ _____?

A

Gram negative

59
Q

Botulism and Tetanus are examples of diseases caused by bacterial exotoxins called:

A

Neurotoxins

60
Q

Cholera and Staphylococcal enteritis are examples of diseases caused by bacterial exotoxins called:

A

Enterotoxins

61
Q

Diptheria and Anthrax examples of disease caused by bacterial exotoxins called:

A

Cytotoxins

62
Q

What is the starting point for a systemic infection called?

All systemic infections have a starting point called:

A

Focal infection

63
Q

Which type of toxin is Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), part of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls (Lipid A)?

A

Endotoxin

64
Q

Which type of toxin is only released when the cell dies and breaks down?

For example, UTI Gram Negative infection:

Patient gets sick before getting better due to the release of:

A

Endotoxin

65
Q

Which type of toxin has:

  • generalized effects and a variety of systemic effects on tissues and organs?

This toxin also causes:

  • fever, inflammation, myalgia and can cause hemorrhaging and diarrhea?
A

Endotoxin

66
Q

What type of infection enters the body and remains confined to specific tissues?

A

Localized infection

67
Q

Boil, warts, fungal skin infections are examples of what type of infection?

A

Localized

68
Q

What type of infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids (usually through the bloodstream), but may travel by other means such as nerves (rabies), and cerebrospinal fluid (meningitis)?

A

Systemic infection

69
Q

What is objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer?

A

Sign

70
Q

What is subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient?

A

Symptom

71
Q

A disease identified by a certain complex of signs and symptoms is known as?

A

Syndrome

72
Q

Nausea

Pain

Soreness

Muscle aches

are examples of:

A

Symptoms

73
Q

Fever

Edema

Granulomas and absesses

Lymphadentitis

are examples of:

A

Signs

74
Q

An increase in white blood cell levels is called? What is this an example of?

A

Leukocytosis

Signs

75
Q

A decrease in white blood cell levels is called? What is this an example of?

A

Leukopenia

Signs

76
Q

What is a general state in which microorganisms are multiplying in the blood and are present in large numbers?

What is this an example of?

A

Septicemia

77
Q

What are bacteria or viruses that are present in the blood but not multiplying?

What is this an example of?

A

Bacteremia or viremia

78
Q

In ___________, ____________, or ____________, infections the patient experiences:

No noticeable symptoms because the microbe is present in host tissues; therefore, the host does not seek medical attention.

A

asymptomatic, subclinical, or inapparent

79
Q

What is known as a dormant state of microbes in certain chronic infectious diseases?

A

Latency

80
Q

What is known as long-term or permanent damage to tissues or organs caused by infectious disease?

A

Sequelae

81
Q

Examples of long-term or permanent damage to tissues or organs caused by infections, known as ________, are:

Meningitis: deafness

Strep throat: rheumatic heart disease

Lyme disease: arthritis

Polio: paralysis

A

Sequelae

82
Q

The time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of symptoms

A

Incubation period

83
Q

What period causes the agent to multiply at the portal of entry, but has not caused enough damage to elicit symptoms?

A

Incubation period

84
Q

What period:

Varies according to host resistance, degree of virulence, and distance between the target organ and the portal of entry.

A

Incubation period

85
Q

What period:

Ranges from several hours to several years.

Majority of infections range from 2 and 30 days

A

Incubation period

86
Q

What period lasts 1 – 2 days when the earliest notable symptoms of infection appear and also causes vague feeling of discomfort: head and muscle aches, fatigue, upset stomach, general malaise

A

Prodromal stage

87
Q

What period causes the infectious agent to multiply at high levels, exhibits greatest toxicity, and becomes well established in host tissue?

This period is also marked by fever and other prominent and specific signs and symptoms.

Extremely variable in length of period

A

Period of Invasion (disease or infection)

88
Q

Name the period where:

Patient begins to respond to the infection and symptoms decline.

Patient’s strength and health gradually return due to the healing nature of the immune response.

Many patients stop taking antibiotics during this period, even though pathogens are still in their system leading to antibiotic resistance

A

Convalescent Period

89
Q

______________ of _____________ can occur during these periods:

Examples:

Incubation period: measles

Invasive period: Shigella

All periods: hepatitis B

A

Transmissibility of Microbes

90
Q

Shed through secretion, excretion, discharge, or sloughed tissue may be the same as the portal of entry, but some pathogens use a different route.

A

Portal of Exit

91
Q

What two things does transmission from one host to another require?

A

Reservoir of infection and transmission

92
Q

The movement of the microbe from the reservoir to a new host is called?

A

Transmission

93
Q

The place where the organism grows or is stored that may not be human or living called?

A

Reservoir of infection

94
Q

What disease is the reservoir and transmitter the same?

A

Syphilis

95
Q

What disease is the reservoir a human, and the transmitter is food?

A

Hepatitis A

96
Q

Persons with symptomatic infection are obvious sources are considered:

A

Actively infected humans

97
Q

An individual who inconspicuously shelters a pathogen, spreads it to others without any notice, and who may not have experienced disease due to the microbe is considered:

A

A carrier

Microbiology Exam II (4 decks)

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