EXAM III Final Flashcards by Erin O

Weaver and reeler mutations are involved in the layering of the brain cortex (6 layers of gray matter). It has been shown that a weaver mutant causes behavioral defects related to abnormal cerebellum function. What is the morphological basis for the weaver mutant?

a. Absence of normal cortical layering
b. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
c. Abnormal migration of astrocytes that normally form granular layer or cerebellar cortex
d. Abnormal migration of radial glial cells that normally form cortical layer of cerebellar cortex

Abnormal migration of RADIAL GLIAL CELLS that normally make up the GRANULAR LAYER

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Weaver and reeler mutations are involved in the layering of the brain cortex (6 layers of gray matter). It has been shown that a reeler mutant causes behavioral defects related to abnormal cerebellum function. What is the morphological basis for the reeler mutant?

Absence of normal cortical layering

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What is the relation of reelin to reeler during the development of the brain cortex?

It has been shown that an extracellular protein Reelin is defective in the reeler mutant

Reelin = stop signal for radial neuronal migration or insertional signal for migrating neurons

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Define Rachischisis; what is it associated with?

Closure defect of the spinal cord

Chronic infection, motor and sensory defects and disturbances in bladder function

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What is the primary defect in spina bifida occulta, meningocele and myelomeningocele? Characteristics of each?

Defect in the formation of bony covering over the spinal cord

Bifida occulta = spinal cord and meninges in place, incomplete neural arch covering (tuft of hair)

Meningocele = missing dura mater, arachnoid space bulges out

Myelomeningocele = spinal cord bulges or entirely displaced into the protruding subarachnoid space

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Which of the following are the major derivatives of the diencephalon?

a. Epithalamus, Thalamus and pons
b. Epithalamus, Hypothalamus and pons
c. Epithalamus, Thalamus and Hypothalamus
d. Cerebellum, Thalamus and pons

C. Epithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus

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The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the rostral patterning center? (rostral, dorsal, ventral)

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

E. FGF-8

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The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the dorsal patterning center?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

D. BMPs and Wnts

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The forebrain contains three patterning centers, which signal is used for the ventral patterning center?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

A. Shh

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The topographical arrangement of the myelencephalon is almost identical to the spinal cord. What is the major topographical change?

Pronounced expansion of the roof plate to form the thin roof over the fourth ventricle

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Expression of which set of genes seems to be responsible for the differentiation of specific nuclei in the myelencephalon?

a. Shh
b. Hox
c. Shh
d. BMPs and Wnts
e. FGF-8

Hox genes

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Epithelial-mesenchymal transformations.
While in the neural tube, neural crest cells are epithelial. Which of the following factors are involved in breaking free of the neural tube?

a. BMPs and Wnts
b. Snail-1, Snail-2, and Foxd3
c. Gbx-2, Msx-1,2, and Pax-3,7
d. FGF-8 and Wnts
e. All of the above

Snail-1, Snail-2, Wnts

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Neural crest cells undergo 3 migratory pathways; ventral, ventralateral, and dorsolateral. The pathways result in formation of many components of the NS. Which of the following do neural crest cells NOT form?

a. Melanocytes
b. Spinal ganglia and Schwann cells
c. Motor neurons
d. Adrenal chromaffin cells
e. Sympathetic ganglion

Motor neurons

Sympathetic ganglion and adrenal chromaffin cells (ventral)
Spinal ganglia and Schwann cells (ventralateral)
Melanocytes (dorsolateral)

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Neural crest cells are not always irreversibly fixed along a single pathway. If neural crest cells from the trunk/thoracic are transplanted into the head, what normal derivatives are not formed?

a. Cartilage or skeletal elements
b. Adrenergic Sympathetic neurons
c. Cholinergic parasympathetic neurons
d. Melanocytes

Cartilage or skeletal elements

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Which rhombomeres do the neural crest cells arise from that make up the vagal crest?
Innervation for what organ?
Where does it arise from and exit?

R4-7

Make up vagal crest and form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract

Arise from the circumpharyngeal crest and exit S1-7

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Which somites does the circumpharyngeal neural crest arise from?
Which PA do they pass behind?
Which CN do they provide a pathway for?

S1-7

Pharyngeal arch 6

Cells migrate ventrally and then cranially to provide pathway for CN XII and related musculature

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Which factor maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?

a. Slit-2
b. Mash-1
c. Noggin
d. Chordin
e. Shh

Mash-1

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Which of the following is caused by Pax-3 mutations, involves various combinations of pigmentation defects (commonly a white stripe in the hair and other pigment anomalies in the skin), deafness, cleft palate, and ocular hypertelorism?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

Waardenburg’s syndrome - white forelock/stripe in hair

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Which of the following includes defects of the trunk and cranial neural crest which involves coloboma, heart disease, atresia of nasal choanae, retardation of development, genital hypoplasia in males, and anomalies of the ear?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

CHARGE - coloboma

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Which of the following is associated with a deletion on chromosome 22 that encompasses up to 15 genes, characterized by hypoplasia and reduced function of the thymus, thyroid, and parathyroid glands and cardiovascular defects, including persistent truncus arteriosus and abnormalities of the aortic arches?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

DiGeorge syndrome

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Which of the following is a common genetic disease manifested by multiple tumors of neural crest origin, with characteristics of cafe au lait spots (light brown pigmented lesions) on the skin, multiple peripheral nerve tumors, and occasional gigantism of a limb/digit?

a. Waardenburg’s syndrome
b. CHARGE
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease
e. Hirschsprung’s disease

Neurofibromas/Von Recklinghausen’s disease - peripheral nerve tumors

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The preplacodal region encircles the cranial plate and is often induced by cranial mesoderm and neural tube, which of the following pathways are activated during this induction?

a. FGF activation and Wnt and BMP inhbition
b. Wnt activation and FGF and BMP inhibition
c. BMP activation and FGF and Wnt inhibition
d. FGF and Wnt activation and BMP inhibition
e. FGF and BMP activation and Wnt inhibition

FGF activation and Wnt and BMP inhibition

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BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the greatest BMP concentration?

a. Placodes
b. Neural crest
c. Neural plate
d. Neural folds
e. Neural tube

Neural plate

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BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the least BMP concentration?

a. Placodes
b. Neural crest
c. Neural plate
d. Neural folds
e. Neural tube

Placodes

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BMP concentration is a major factor in the induction in placodes. What forms in the area with the middle BMP concentration? a. Placodes b. Neural crest c. Neural plate d. Neural folds e. Neural tube

Neural crest

Describe the formation of the optic stalk and what structures are continuous with what Optic stalk Optic vesicle Choroid fissure Hyaloid artery

Optic stalk = lateral evagination of diencephalon that enlarges distally to form optic vesicle Optic vesicle asymmetrically invaginates w/ groove alongside Groove = choroid fissure that's continuous with optic stalk groove Optic stalk groove is continuous with posterior chamber of eye Hyaloid artery uses choroid fissure and optic stalk to pass into posterior chamber of eye

What events occur in the development of the eye when Pax6 is not expressed?

Only early optic vesicle formation occurs, no eye formation Optic vesicle is not able to induce the formation of the lens placode from the lens ectoderm Prospective lens ectoderm doesn't respond to optic vesicle induction

Which of the following is important during the formation of the lens when the lens separate from the lens vesicle from surface ectoderm causing posterior cells to transform into lens fibers? a. FGF, BMP b. Pax6 c. Foxe3 d. Wnt

Foxe3

Which of the following induces the optic vesicle to induce the lens ectoderm to form the lens placode by way of FGF and BMP? a. Pax6 b. Foxe3 c. Wnt d. All of the above

Pax6 - downregulation by neural crest cells prevents formation of prospective lens in surrounding areas

Which of the following is necessary for corneal induction? a. Pax6 b. Foxe3 c. Wnt d. FGF e. BMP

Pax6

Which of the following during cornea development induces overlying ectoderm to transform from bilayered epithelium (simple cuboidal basal layer plus flattened periderm) to transparent multi-layered cornea? a. Lens placode b. Lens ectoderm c. Neural crest d. Lens vesicle e. Neural plate

Lens vesicle

During the development of the retina, Shh stimulates which of the following to differentiate into the pigmented retina, which is the outer layer of the optic cup? a. Otx2 b. BMP-4 c. Tbx-5 d. Vax-2 e. Eph

Otx2 Inner layer of the optic cup is the sensory layer

Retinal polarity is fixed into a nasotemporal (anterior-posterior) and dorsoventral axis. Which of the following is associated with the establishment of the nasotemporal axis? a. Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin b. Shh and Otx2 c. Foxe3 d. Ephrins and receptors

Ephrins and receptors - nasotemporal axis is fixed first while dorsoventral is fixed second

Retinal polarity is fixed into a nasotemporal (anterior-posterior) and dorsoventral axis. Which of the following is associated with the establishment of the dorsoventral axis? a. Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin b. Shh and Otx2 c. Foxe3 d. Ephrins and receptors

Shh, BMP, and Ventroptin - nasotemporal axis is fixed first while dorsoventral is fixed second

Which of the following is known as an absence of an eye resulting from a mutation in RAX, is very rare and can normally be attributed to lack of formation of the optic vesicle? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Coloboma d. Congenital cataract e. Cyclopia

Anophthalmos

Which of the following congenital malformation of the eye can range from an eyeball that is slightly smaller than normal to one that is almost vestigial. a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Coloboma d. Congenital cataract e. Cyclopia

Microphthalamos

Which of the following congenital malformations of the eye is due to nonclosure of the choroid fissure of the iris during the 6-7th week? Individuals are sometimes sensitive to bright light. a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Coloboma d. Congenital cataract e. Cyclopia

Coloboma

Which of the following is an evagination from the roof of the stomodeal ectoderm and is the primordium for the anterior pituitary/adenohypophysis? a. Thyroid b. Trachea c. Rathke's pouch d. Reichert's cartilage e. Meckel's cartilage

Rathke's pouch

A lack of which signaling molecule causes the first pharyngeal arch to develop into jaws? a. BMP b. Shh c. Hox d. Wnt

Hox

Which of the following is necessary to keep pharyngeal arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming the jaws? a. BMP b. Shh c. Hoxa-2 d. Wnt

Hoxa-2

During craniofacial development, which of the following signaling molecules allows for the segmentation of cranial neural tube, which becomes carried over onto neural crest cells that give rise to neural crest tissue? a. Wnt b. BMP c. Shh d. Hox

Hox

Which of the following molecules induces the formation of the frontonasal ectodermal zone? a. Shh b. Hox c. Wnt d. BMP

Shh from the forebrain = dorsoventral gradient ``` Dorso = FGF-8 Ventral = Shh ```

For jaw primordia, neural crest are derived from which centers of the brain for the maxillary and mandibular processes?

Maxillary = forebrain and midbrain Mandibular = hindbrain and midbrain

What are the two process of the primordia of the palate?

Median palatine process = unpaired = premaxilla Lateral palatine processes = paired = secondary plate

Which of the following is a condensation of mesenchymal cells around the developing tooth which will form the cementum and periodontal ligament = jaw attachment? a. Tooth bud b. Enamel organ c. Dental lamina d. Dental sac

Dental sac

Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? a. BMP-4 b. Shh c. FGF-8 d. Pax-9 e. Msx-1, Msx-2

Pax-9

Which of the following causes the formation of the future cusps of the molar? a. Primary enamel knot b. Secondary enamel knot c. Pax-9 d. Hox

Secondary enamel knot

Which of the following molecules is branching pattern of salivary glands highly dependent upon? a. Shh b. Hox c. FGF d. Wnt

Shh

For salivary gland development, where does the signaling between Shh and FGF occur? One major difference compared to other types of glandular development. a. Between the epithelium and mesenchyme b. Within the epithelium c. Outside of the epithelium d. Within the endoderm

Within the epithelium

Which of the following results from the lack of fusion of the maxillary and nasomedial process? a. Cleft lip b. Cleft palate c. Holoprosencephaly d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta e. Amelogenesis imperfecta

Cleft lip

Which of the following defects is based on the defective formation of the forebrain and include external facial malformations, with an extreme case of nose reduction defects, cyclopia (near absence of upper facial & midfacial tissue) a. Cleft lip b. Cleft palate c. Holoprosencephaly d. Dentinogenesis imperfecta e. Amelogenesis imperfecta

Holoprosencephaly

Which of the following is the main organizer for pharyngeal arch development? a. Foregut endoderm b. Midgut endoderm c. Hindgut endoderm d. Hindgut mesoderm

Foregut endoderm

What two molecules are important in the formation of pharyngeal arches? a. Hox and Shh b. Pax and Wnt c. Tbx1 and FGF8 d. FGF8 and Wnt e. Shh and Tbx1

Tbx1 and FGF8

What molecules cause the formation of the inferior parathyroids and the thymus?

Inferior parathyroid = Shh (pouch 3) Thymus = BMP-4 (pouch 3)

Which of the following becomes incorporated into thyroid as parafollicular (C) cells which secrete calcitonin? a. Inferior parathyroid b. Superior parathyroid c. Postbranchial/ultimobranchial body d. Thymus

Postbranchial/ultimobranchial body = 4th pouch

What is the location of the thyroid in relation to the pharyngeal arches?

Between 1st and 2nd arches Grows down into underlying mesenchyme as thyroid diverticulum and remains connected temporarily to the floor of the pharynx via thyroglossal duct Opening of duct = foramen cecum (small pit at base of tongue)

What are some characteristics of the pronephros?

Among the first kidneys to develop | Non-functional solid cords required for the remainder of the excretory system to develop

The induction of the pronephric ducts requires many molecules, what is the primary inducer and what molecules determine the craniocaudal limits of early urinary system? a. RA, Hox 4-11 b. RA, Pax 3 and 7 c. Shh, Hox 4-11 d. Shh, Pax 3 and 7

RA and Hox 4-11

During the induction of the pronephric ducts, which molecule causes the aggregation of mesenchymal cells in the intermediate mesoderm into pronephric ducts by way of Pax-2 and Pax-8? a. RA b. Hox 4-11 c. Lim-1 d. Foxe3 e. Wt-1

Lim-1; formed by TFs Pax-2,8 via Hox 4-11

Which of the following is the functional kidney in most vertebrate embryos? a. Pronephros b. Mesonephros c. Metanephros d. Renal tubules

Mesonephros; caudal to the pronephros containing mesonephric tubules

During which week of gestation does each mesonephric duct form a ureteric bud/metanephric diverticulum? a. Week 1 b. Week 2 c. Week 3 d. Week 4 e. Week 5

Week 5; ureteric buds grow into the surrounding mesenchyme of the mesonephric ridge

The adult ureter, renal pelvis, and collecting tubules are derived from which of the following? a. Pronephros b. Mesonephros c. Metanephros d. Renal pelvis

Metanephros

What does the blastemata of the metanephric diverticula give rise to? a. Ureter b. Renal pelvis c. Renal tubules d. Cloaca

Renal tubules

During ureteric bud outgrowth via the metanephrogenic blastema, which of the following causes GDNF to be repressed in anterior regions? a. Slit-2/Robo-2 b. WT-1 c. Sprouty d. BMP e. Gremlin

Slit-2/Robo-2

What is the function of gremlin during the formation of the ureteric bud outgrowth from the metanephrogenic blastema? a. Make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water b. Reduces sensitivity of anterior mesonephric duct to GDNF c. Represses GDNF in anterior regions d. Inhibits BMP in the region of the metanephrogenic blastema

d. Inhibits BMP in the region of the metanephrogenic blastema

Which of the following can be caused from infants born with bilateral renal agenesis that have a flattened nose, wide interpupillary space, a receding chin, tapering fingers, low-set ears, hip dislocation, and pulmonary hypoplasia? a. Potter sequence b. Horseshoe kidney c. Polycystic kidney disease d. Exstrophy of the bladder e. Renal Hypoplasia

Potter sequence - renal agenesis causes oligohydramnios = pulmonary hypoplasia, flattened face and ears, hip dislocation

Which of the following is a major defect in which the urinary bladder opens broadly onto the abdominal wall? Most commonly attributed to an insufficiency of mesodermal tissue of the ventral abdominal wall. a. Potter sequence b. Horseshoe kidney c. Polycystic kidney disease d. Exstrophy of the bladder e. Renal Hypoplasia

Exstrophy of the bladder

Where are sex cords located and what do they have the potential to give rise to if the bipotential system turns into a male?

Within the medulla of the indifferent gonad Seminiferous tubules (Sertoli cells) and interstitial cells

Which of the following anastomoses with the sex cords in the genetic male? What does this become if a genetic female is determined? a. Tunica albuginea b. Seminiferous tubules c. Rete cords d. Sertoli cells

Rete cords In female = medulla regresses and cortex forms ovary

Where is the location of the tunica albuginea? a. Within the medulla of the indifferent gonad b. Within the cortex of the indifferent gonad c. Between the medulla and cortex of the indifferent gonad d. Degenerates before the indifferent gonad develops

Between the medulla and cortex; lies on external surface of testis and internalized in the ovary

What is the fate of the mesonephric tubules in the male and female?

Female = nothing forms Male = efferent ductules coveying sperm to the exterior

What does the genital tubercle give rise to in male and female?

Male - Glans penis Female - clit

What does the genital folds give rise to in male and female?

Male - shaft Female - labia minora

What does the genital swellings give rise to in male and female?

Male - Scrotum Female - Labia majora

What molecule allows primordial germ cells to become meiosis-competent germ cells? a. Nanos-2 b. Stra-8 c. RA d. Dazl e. BMP

Dazl

What is the function of Dazl in the fate of primordial germ cells in male and females?

Allows for the primordial germ cell to become meiosis-competent germ cells

What does the primary heart field (heart crescent) form? a. Right ventricle and atria b. Left ventricle and atria c. Both ventricles and atria d. Right ventricle and left atria e. Left ventricle and left atria

Left ventricle and atria

Which molecule exposes the more posterior cells of the heart that are assumed to cause the atrial identity? a. Shh b. Hox c. RA d. Wnt e. BMP

RA More anterior cells are not exposed to RA = ventricle

Hand-1 is expressed in the primary heart field (heart crescent), what occurs if there is a defect in Hand-1? a. Defective left atrium b. Defective right atrium c. Defective left ventricle d. Defective right ventricle e. Defective heart overall

Defective left ventricle

What does the secondary heart field form? a. Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract b. Left ventricle and proximal outflow tract c. Right atrium and proximal outflow tract d. Left atrium and proximal outflow tract

Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract; express Hand-2

Hand-2 is expressed in the secondary heart field (heart crescent), what occurs if there is a defect in Hand-2? a. Defective left atrium b. Defective right atrium c. Defective left ventricle d. Defective right ventricle e. Defective heart overall

Absence of right ventricle

What 3 structures does the proepicardium form?

1. Epicardium 2. Interstitial cells and vasculature smooth muscle 3. Coronary vasculature

Which of the following is known as the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear? a. Cardiac crest b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Cardiac tube

Cardiac tube; asymmetry est. by Hand-1 and Hand-2

What two molecules are used to establish the asymmetry of the cardiac tube? a. Hand-1 and Hand-2 b. Pax-3 and Pax-7 c. Shh and Hox d. Wnt and BMP

Hand-1 and Hand-2

Primary myocardium forms during the 3rd week of gestation while the formation of the chamber myocardium forms afterwards as atrial and ventricular chamber bulges. What two molecules guide these processes?

Primary myocardium = Tbx-2 Myocardium chamber = Tbx-5

Is it the primary heart field or secondary heart field that contributes most to the primary myocardium?

Secondary heart field

What term is used for the outflow part of the heart during cardiac looping that leads to the aortic sac and aortic arch system? a. conus arteriosus b. bulbus cordis c. truncus arteriosus d. internal septum

Bulbis cordis

Define conus arteriosus and truncus arteriosus

Conus = Broader proximal part of the bulbus cordis Truncus = Narrower distal part of bulbus cordis

What are the characteristics of the results of cardiac looping?

S-shaped heart Original caudal inflow part (atrium) is now dorsal to outflow part of the heart Outflow part of heart = bulbus cordis Internal septum begins to divide ventricle then atrium

List the two components of atrial partitioning

1. Interatrial septum primum (sp) - downward growth to endocardial cushion; separates atrium into left and right chambers 2. Interatrial septum secundum (ss) - to the right of sp grows dorsal to ventral part of atrium

What is the function of the interatrial septum primum? Where does it grow towards and what does it separate?

Grows downward from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion Separates atrium into left and right chambers

List the 3 openings in the partition of the atrial partitioning

1. Interatrial foramen primum - right to left atrial shunt; space b/w leading edge of septum primum and endocardial cushion 2. Interatrial foramen secundum - forms at cephalic end of septum primum thru apoptosis; continues the right to left atrial shunt after the foramen primum closes with the fusion of the septum primum w/ the endocardial cushion 3. Foramen ovale - space within septum secundum; right to left atrial shunt

Which opening in the partition of the atria is the space formed within the septum secundum and is a right to left atrial shunt? a. Interatrial foramen primum b. Interatrial foramen secundum c. Foramen ovale d. Endocardial cushion

Foramen ovale

Which opening in the partition of the atria is the space between the leading edge of the septum primum and the endocardial cushion and is a right to left atrial shunt? a. Interatrial foramen primum b. Interatrial foramen secundum c. Foramen ovale d. Endocardial cushion

Interatrial foramen primum

Which opening in the partition of the atria forms at the cephalic end of the septum primum through apoptosis and continues the right to left atrial shunt after the foramen primum closes with the fusion of the septum primum with the endocardial cushion? a. Interatrial foramen primum b. Interatrial foramen secundum c. Foramen ovale d. Endocardial cushion

Interatrial foramen secundum

What is the fate of the left umbilical vein?

Hepatic portal vein

Which structure permits oxygenated blood to bypass the capillary network of the liver in the fetus? a. Ductus venosus b. Umbilical vein c. Hepatic portal vein d. Ductus arteriosus

Ductus venosus

The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

Aortic arch 3

The common carotids are derived from the ventral aortae between which two aortic arches? a. first and second b. second and third c. third and fourth d. fourth and fifth

Third and fourth

External carotids are cranial extensions of the paired ventral aortae cranial to the third arches

The right subclavian artery is formed from which aortic arch a. right first b. right second c. right third d. right fourth e. left first f. left second

Right fourth aortic arch

Which pair of aortic arches degenerate? Which pair of aortic arches becomes associated with the pulmonary system?

Degenerate = 5th Pulmonary system = 6th - dorsal part = ligamentum arteriosus

The aortic arch is formed from which aortic arch a. right first b. right second c. right third d. left second e. left third f. left fourth

Left 4th

Neural crest contributes to the structure of which of the following? a. Truncus arteriosus b. Ascending aorta c. Pulmonary trunk d. All of the above e. None of the above

All of the above

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a patent ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual? a. Atrial septal defect b. Ventricular septal defect c. Double aortic arch d. Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta e. None of the above

None of the above

Five days after birth, an infant become cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. The cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the: a. Interatrial septum b. Ductus arteriosus c. Ductus venosus d. Umbilical vein e. Interventricular septum

Interatrial septum

EXAM III Final Flashcards

(106 cards)