Exam One Highlighted Questions Flashcards
(283 cards)
1
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
Osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone
2
Q
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
glycosaminoglycans
3
Q
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
A
collagen type I
4
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
hydroxyapatite
5
Q
Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium
6
Q
What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?
A
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
7
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
intramembranous ossification
8
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
from the second to third month in utero
9
Q
Which bones of the splanchnocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?
A
the nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla and part of the mandible
10
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
Endochondral ossification
11
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
from the second to fifth month in utero
12
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
chondrocranium
13
Q
What bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
the clavicle
14
Q
what are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
A
primary centers of ossification appear before birth
secondary centers of ossification appear after birth
15
Q
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
A
gender variation(sexual dimophism), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation(individual variation
16
Q
What are the six more commonly used classification of normal bone?
A
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
17
Q
what is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
A
hetertopic bone
18
Q
what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
A
accessory bone
19
Q
what are examples of long bones?
A
humerus, radius, ulna, femur, tibia, and fibula
20
Q
what is the primary characteristic of short bones?
A
they are essentially cuboidal
21
Q
what are examples of short bones?
A
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
22
Q
What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?
A
air spaces with the bone
23
Q
what are examples pneumatic bone?
A
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, temporal and sphenoid
24
Q
what is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
A
the bone develops within a tendon
25
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
26
what are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
27
what are the four basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets
28
When do the surface features of bone become prominent?
during and after puberty
29
what are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
30
what are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
31
what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus
32
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
33
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
34
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
35
what is the definition of an osseous osmium?
a round or oval opening on the surface of bone
36
what is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
37
what are the names given to osseous osia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
38
what is the name given to an osmium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a bling-ended passageway?
meatus
39
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
40
what are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
41
what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
42
How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?
80 bones
43
What bone form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
44
what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
45
what are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
46
what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?
the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid
47
how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
48
what bones form the facial skeleton?
mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, and zygomatic
49
how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
50
What bones comprise the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the cervical, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum and coccyx
51
What is the name given to the pre sacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
52
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
53
What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the true suture?
intramembraneous ossification; interlocking edges
54
What are the classifications of true sutures (suture vera) based on suture appearance?
serrate, denticulate and limbous
55
what type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the false suture?
endochondral osification; non-interlocking edges
56
what are the classifications of false suture (suture notha) based on suture appearance?
squamous and harmonia
57
overlapping, non-interlocking sutures would be examples of which classification?
Squamous suture
58
Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as...?
plane sutures(sutura harmonia)
59
What is the classic example of the plane suture (suture harmony)?
cruciate suture
60
What is the classification of a 'peg-in-socket' joint?
gomphosis
61
which joint classification would involve a "nail" appearance?
gomphosis
62
which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?
schindylesis
63
what is an example of the schindylesis?
osseous nasal septum; sphenoid-ethmoid articulation, sphenoid-vomer articulation, ethmoid-vomer articulation, vomer-palatin articulation or vomer-maxilla articulation
64
what are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
65
what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
66
what are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
67
what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?
located deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
68
What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?
present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
69
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
70
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
71
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
1) synovial villi 2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
72
what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
73
what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
74
what is the common function of type a and type b synovial cells?
formation and absorption of synovial fluid
75
what are examples of glycosaminoglycans important in articular cartilage?
hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates, and keratin sulfate
76
what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
77
what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
78
what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoeleastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
79
which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
80
which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining ynovial fluid?
boosted theory
81
which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
82
what are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
83
synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups?
fats, salts, albumins and hyaluronate
84
what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior
lubricin
85
what is the function of synovial fluid?
provides a nutritive source for articular cartilage and supply the lubricant for the cartilage surface
86
what is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis) ?
only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed
87
what is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
88
what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
89
what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?
plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
90
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diathrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
91
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
92
what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multi axial?
ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint
93
what are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints?
most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
intercarpal, carpometacarpal and inter metacarpal joints of the hand
inter cuneiform, tarsometatarsal and inter metatarsal joints of the foot
94
what are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?
humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes
95
diarthrosis ginglymus joints are commonly call ____ joints based on action
synovial hinge
96
what are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid joints
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
97
what is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?
an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
98
what are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
99
what are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpi-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
100
which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?
ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints
101
what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis seller) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
102
what are examples of diarthrosis enarthrosis joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
103
what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
26 segments
104
what is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?
24 segments
105
what constitutes the spine?
the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
106
which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
the ant bear and three toed sloth
107
which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
the manatee and two toed sloth
108
what is the length of a typical male spinal column?
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
109
what is the length of a typical female spinal column?
about 60 centimerters or 25 inches
110
what is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3 inches
111
what is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
112
what is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?`
about 28 centimeters or 11 inches
113
what is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?`
about 18 centimeters or 7 inches
114
what is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
115
how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
116
what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
117
distinguish between motion and locomotion
motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location
118
what organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
119
What are the ossification centers for atlas?
primary centers for the lateral masses, secondary center for the anterior arch
120
what is the time of closure of the posterior arch synchondrosis?
3-4 years old
121
what is the time of closure of the anterior arch synchondrosis?
6-8 years old
122
which primary center of ossification for axis appears first?
neural arch centers
123
which is the last primary center of ossification for axis to appear?
base of the dens center
124
what is the name given to cartilage joint between the base of the dens and centrum centers of ossification?
subdental synchondrosis
125
what is the time of closure of the sub dental synchondrosis?
between ages 4-7 years old
126
a persistence of the sub dental synchondrosis beyond age 7 is identified as an ______
os odontoideum
127
what are the locations for secondary centers of ossification in the axis?
inferior epiphyseal plate centers and tip of the dens center
128
at what age will the tip of the dens center of ossification arise?
between 2-6 years old
129
at what age will the tip of the dens synchondrosis be obliterated?
typically before 12 years old
130
a persistence of the tip of the dens synchondrosis beyond age 12 is identified as a _______
terminal ossicle
131
what additional primary centers of ossification are present in the typical cervical?
costal element centers
132
the costal element - centrum synchondrosis will ossify by what age?
6 years old
133
what is the location for cervical injuries in (a) children and (b) adults?
children at C2 or above; adults below C2
134
what additional primary centers of ossification are present in the lumbar spine?
costal element centers
135
what additional secondary centers of ossification are present in the lumbar spine?
mammillary process centers
136
what are the primary centers of ossification for sacrum?
centrum, neural arch and costal element centers of ossification
137
what are the secondary centers of ossification for sacrum?
tip of the transverse process, epiphyseal plate, tip of the spinous process and costal epiphyseal centers of ossification
138
when will centers of ossification be observed for coccyx?
newer research suggests they are present from birth, not observed in utero
139
identify all primer centers of ossification for the vertebral column
centrum, neural arch, costal element, lateral mass, base of the dens
140
identify all secondary centers of ossification for the vertebra column.
tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate, anterior arch, tip of the dens, mammillary process, coccygeal cornu
141
what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform
142
what are the names of the opening found around the margins of the vertebral body?
nutrient foramina or vascular foramina
143
what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
the basivertebral venous foramen
144
what is the generic orientation of the pedicure at each region of the spine?
cervical - posterolater
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar - posterior
145
What is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?
the vertebral arch
146
what is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?
the pedicle
147
what is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?
the lamina
148
what is the name given to the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicure?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisor; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
149
what ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
150
what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
para-articular process
151
what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
152
what is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray
shingling
153
what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis
154
what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
155
what is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?
the apophyseal regions
156
what names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?
the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process
157
what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral
158
all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?
the costal element
159
what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?
the transverse tubercle
160
what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the vertical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
161
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the boracic region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
162
what is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
163
what is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
the superior articular facet
164
what is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis
the inferior articular facet
165
what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis
the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre-zygapophysis
166
what names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?
the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post-zygapophysis
167
what will form the posterior boundary of a typical interbretbral foramen?
the inferior articular process/post zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis. the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
168
what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
169
what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
170
what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
171
what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane
172
what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?
imbrication
173
what is the orientation of the spinous process/ spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle
174
what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/ vertebral column?
cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - triangular
sacrum - triangular
175
At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
176
at what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
177
what are the segmental arteries of the vertical spine?
the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
178
What ae the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery
179
what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
180
what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery
181
what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
lateral sacral artery and median ( middle ) sacral artery
182
Which branch of the dorsopinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?
spinal artery
183
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
184
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentaum flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
185
which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
186
which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
187
the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the vertebral artery
188
the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
189
what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
190
what forms the arterial vasa coranoa below C6
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
191
what is the generic name given to arteries which penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
192
what are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries
193
what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/cnetral/sulcul perforating arteries
194
what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
195
what will pail veins drain into?
venous vasa corona
196
which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
197
what segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
198
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
199
What are the segmental arteries for L5?
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery
200
what are the branches of the spinal artery?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery
201
what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
202
What veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?
pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins
203
what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
204
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
205
what venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
206
name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinals)
epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
207
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
208
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral bein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligaments
209
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
210
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
211
what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?
serous fluid
212
what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
213
what is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?
dentate (denticulate) ligament
214
what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?
they lack the bicuspid valve of the typical veins
215
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
216
what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral enlargement
217
where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
218
in which plane (or direction)) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T1?
midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane
219
what spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1-S3 spinal nerves
220
what is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
221
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
conus medullaris
222
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullar is?
typically S4, S5, and Co1
223
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullar is typically be observed?
L1
224
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
225
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullar is called?
filum terminale internum
226
what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cup de sac
227
neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminal?
proximal part of the film terminal internum
228
the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
229
what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
230
what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
231
what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the film terminal is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
232
what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord
233
what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
ie. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
234
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
ant bear, three-toed sloth
235
which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
two-toed sloth, manatee
236
which vertebrae are typical cervicals?
C3-C6
237
Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?
C1, C2, and C7
238
what is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?
rectangular
239
what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
240
What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous feature?
posterior or kyphotic
241
what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
the intervertebral disc height
242
what is the direction of the typical cervical curve?
anterior or lordotic
243
at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
244
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
245
what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncut or lateral lip
246
what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
247
what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?
lateral groove or enchancrure
248
what is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
249
what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis seller)
250
what is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?
cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
251
What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
252
what does the recent literature suggest as to the nature of the joint of Luschka?
the joint is representative of the intervertebral disc aging which results in loss of lamellar integrity near the joint
253
what is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?
it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine
254
what muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
the longs collie muscle
255
what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?
posterolateral, 45 degrees
256
at what location on vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?
to the side and in the center of the vertebral body
257
what soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?
the transverse diameter of the vertical enlargement of the spinal cord
258
the greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at _____?
C6
259
the greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?
C5/C6
260
what osseous parts form the typical cervical vertebra transverse process?
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
261
What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalen, rotators and posterior intertransversarii
262
what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?
middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii
263
what is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?
sulcus for the ventral primary rams of a cervical spinal nerve
264
what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?
60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)
265
how many joint surfaces are present on the uppers surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
five
266
How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
five
267
how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
ten
268
how many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
four
269
what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
the carotid tubercle
270
what will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?
the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers
271
what is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?
the articular pillar
272
what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?
the groove/sulcus for the dorsal rams of a cervical spinal nerve
273
what nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae
the medial branch of the dorsal rams of a cervical spinal nerve
274
what is the classic angulation of typical cervical articular facets?
40 to 45 degrees from the coronal plane
275
what is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?
backward, upward, medial
276
what is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet?
forward, lateral, downward (FoLD)
277
what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?
the longissimus capitis, longissismus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators
278
what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?
the semispinalis capitis, multifidis, and rotator longus
279
what modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?
meniscoidal folds
280
the greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?
typically C5/C6
281
what motions are coupled in the cervical spine?
lateral bending and axial rotation
282
ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couple?
the C5/6 vertebral couple
283
what muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?
the spinals cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis
