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MICROM 442 > Exam one: L1-L4 > Flashcards

Exam one: L1-L4 Flashcards

(78 cards)

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1
Q

L1:Who developed single lensed microscopes?

A

Robert Hooke and Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

L1: What did Edward Jenner do?

A

reports cowpox vax against smallpox

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3
Q

L1: Florence Nightingale found:

A

hygiene is a great way to avoid infection

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4
Q

L1: Pasteur and Koch found:

A

microbes are causative agents of disease

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5
Q

L1: Hans Christian Gram did:

A

Gram Stain

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6
Q

L1: Alexander Flemming

A

Penicillin

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7
Q

L1: Chain and Florey

A

purification/production

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8
Q

L1: Avery, Macleod, McCarty

A

DNA is a transforming principle

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9
Q

L1: Watson, crick and Franklin

A

DNA structure

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10
Q

L1: Roberts

A

restriction enzymes

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11
Q

L1: Boyer and Cohen

A

recombinant DNA

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12
Q

L1: Kary Mullis

A

PCR

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13
Q

L1: morphology: how big are spheres and rods, and what microscope can you use to see them?

A

spheres are 0.2-2 µm diameter, rods are 0.2-2 µm wide. Can be seen with a light microscope

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14
Q

L1: What is the composition of a bacterial cell?

A

90% similarity to euks.
55% protein, 20% RNA, 3% DNA, 5% carb, 6% phospholipid

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15
Q

L1: What is the only envelope type found in mycoplasma?

A

cytoplasmic membrane

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16
Q

L1: What is present in the GP envelope?

A

capsule, pilli/flagella, PG, Techoic acids, cytoplasmic membrane

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17
Q

L1: What is present in the GN envelope?

A

capsule, pilli/flagella, LPS, PG, Periplasm, cytoplasmic membrane

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18
Q

L1: What part of the LPS is recognized by the immune system? What recognizes it and what does it activate?

A

lipid A tail is recognized by TLR 4 and induces immune response via Il2, Il3 and TNF-a.

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19
Q

L2: What is the origin of the normal microbiota? What is it dependent on?

A

Birth canal, is dependent on the route of delivery, who is present during birth, environment

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20
Q

L2: What factors determine the nature of the microbiota?

A

Local physiology and ecology, diet, microbial attributes, competition

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21
Q

L2: What is the microbiome of the skin?

A

Staph. epidermidis, cutibacterium

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22
Q

L2: What is the normal microbiota of the conjunctiva?

A

S. epidermidis and non-pathogenic corynebacteria

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23
Q

L2: What is the normal microbiota of the mouth?

A

s. mutans on teeth, neisseria and moraxella in throat, anaerobes and microaerophillic organisms in gingival crevice

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24
Q

L2: What is the normal microbiota of the stomach and small intestine?

A

sparsely inhabited bc too acidic

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25
L2: Normal microbiota of the colon?
90% anaerobes: bactericides and fusobacterium 10% facultative anaerobes: E.coli, other enterobacteria
26
L2: What was found in the microbiota of breast-fed infants?
Increased bifidobacterium
27
L2: Normal microbiota of the nose?
mostly staph aureus and s. epidermidis
28
L2: Normal bacteria of the nasopharynx?
Similar to mouth but with strep pneumonia, neisseria meningitidis, haemophilus
29
L2: Normal microbiota of larynx, below mid ear and sinuses?
none, protected by mucociliary escalator
30
L2: Normal microbiota of the urinary tract?
scanty microbiota but contamination from perineum in first bit of urethra
31
L2: Normal Microbiota of the vagina through time?
Before puberty/after menopause: mixed, non-specific from skin, colon and perineum during child bearing Yeats: lactobacillus, anaerobic GNRs, GPCs, mycoplasma, ureaplasma
32
L2: What is the role of microbiota in disease?
opportunists can cause disease and genetic attributes
33
L2: What are the four main beneficial effects of the microbiota?
1. Priming the immune system 2. exclusionary effect as demonstrated by antibiotic treatment 3. nutritionally via digestion, malabsorption, vitamin k 4. normal function of organs/systems
34
L3: What are the steps of patient diagnosis?
history, physical exam, imaging
35
L3: What are the steps of specimen identification?
description, microscopy, culture, molecular, immune response
36
L3: What do we look for in immune response of specimens?
cells present- WBC and where? Immunoglobulin- Igm, igG
37
L3: How do we identify etiological agents?
determine nature of disease, predict course and potential outcomes, tailor therapy, exclude non infectious cause of symptoms
38
L3: What are sterile specimens?
urine and blood
39
L3: What are some non-sterile specimens?
indirect: specimen collected through a site containing a normal microbiota OR a site with a normal microbiota
40
L3: What are the different ways we study specimens with microscopy? Type of microscopy and what to see
Bright field: gram stain and acid fast dark field: thin organisms and spirochetes fluorescence microscopy: very sensitive but artifacts can cause problems
41
L3: How do we culture organisms?
with nutrient, selective or indicator media?
42
L3: What are different incubation conditions?
temperatures, aerobic, microaerophillic, anaerobic, candle jar
43
L3: What two important tools are required for conventional identification?
- 9 log amplification - ability to isolate single cells on a plate
44
L3: What do we look at when identify microbes?
gross phenotype, biochemical characteristics, antigenic structures, toxin production, nucleic acid sequences, flow on information
45
L3: What is the serological detection of an infection?
identification of host immunoglobulins specifically recognizing antigens from pathogenic organisms
46
L3: How is humoral immune response in an immunocompromised person identified?
IgM, clonal switching, IgG.
47
L3: What happens over the Course of a primary response to an infection?
10 day latent period, increase in IgM before later increase in IgG, plateau phase around 15 days before decline phase.
48
L3: What happens over the course of a secondary infection?
after second exposure, IgM increases around day 5 then decreases while IgG increases steeply and stays high past 10 day mark
49
L3: When would you use a pathogen specific nucleic acid sequence?
When organisms are difficult or impossible to cultivate
50
L3: Can a dead pathogen cause an infectious disease or pathology?
No, infectious agent must propagate to infect people, and dead pathogen can cause pathology bc of DNA remnants
51
L3: What are some drawbacks of molecular detection?
- false positive results due to contamination -contamination obscuring diagnosis -limited ability to asses pathogen properties
52
L3: What are the methods of molecular detection?
1- PCR 2- PCR and sanger sequencing 3- next gen sequencing
53
L3: What are the sequencing platform requirements?
- accuracy for identification -informative about phylogeny - accurate evolutionary clock
54
L3: PCR steps?
- extract template - amplify target sequence - determine DNA sequence of amplicon - align DNA sequence with sequences obtained from phenotypically validated isolates - establish identification
55
L3: What are some problematic situations for conventional approaches?
- presence of contaminating DNA - polymicrobial infection - infection at sites with microbiota
56
L3: What are the seps of next gen sequencing?
1. Capture single molecule templates 2. cluster formation - immobilization, 3' extension, bridge amplification, linearization, 3' protection, hybridization of sequencing primers 3. simultaneous sequencing
57
L4: what is a primary pathogen?
an organism that infects a competent host
58
L4: What is an opportunistic pathogen?
an organism that infects a compromised host via loss of specific defense mechanisms or loss of non-specific defense
59
L4: What in infection and when does it occur?
occurs after colonization when multiplication is sufficient to induce damage to the host
60
L4: What are the 5 signs of inflammation?
rubor (redness), tumor(swelling), calor(warmth), dalor(pain), LOF
61
L4: what is an infectious dose?
quantity of pathogen required to establish infection
62
L4: what are key parameters of exposure?
proximity, time, presence/absence of barriers
63
L4: what is net replication?
bacterial rep-bacterial death
64
L4: what is a virulence determinant?
unique attributes that permit a microbe to successfully establish infection and cause subsequent disease
65
L4: what is virulence?
quantitive measure of pathogenicity or likelihood of causing disease
66
L4: What is infectivity?
quantitive mausre of pathogens ability to infect another susceptible host, aka attack rate
67
L4: what is the equation for attack rate?
#infected/#susceptible*100
68
L4: what are the three keys to colonization?
1. adherence via pilli 2. motility via flagella and chemotaxis 3. survival or fitness in an environment outside host
69
L4: How do bacteria sequester iron?
siderophores from enteric pathogens lactoferrin/transferrin receptors on mucosal surfaces(gonorrheaoe)
70
L4: How do bacteria avoid host surveillance intracellularly?
-live in vacuole and modify or block phagolysosome - break out of phagolysosome or live in cytoplasm
71
L4: How do T3 secretion systems work?
Penetrate three barriers to release effector molecules that lead to intracellular replication
72
L4: How do bacteria avoid host surveillance extracellularly?
-Inhibit phagocytosis via capsules, IPA proteases and binding host proteins(M-proteins) - block complement mediated lysis - antigenic variation
73
L4: How do bacteria avoid host surveillance by altering host immune response?
- exotoxin: pertussis toxin - endotoxin: can overstimulate host=DIC - antigenic variation - superantigens: polyclonal T-cell proliferation
74
L4: What are the two types of toxins bacteria make?
Endotoxin and exotoxin
75
L4: What are the two types of exotoxins and what does each target?
A catalytic subunit toxin: targets ADP ribosylates G-proteins B membrane binding subunit: translocates A subunit into host cytoplasm RTX: homylsins
76
L4: What are the different endotoxins and what are they present in?
endotoxin/LPS: GN lipoteichoic acid: GP PG: Both GN and GP
77
L4: What are the three mobile genetic elements?
- carried by bacteriophages: diphtheria - plasmids: yersinia adhesions, invasions and effectors - transposons: drug resistance
78
L4: How do bacteria regulate virulence determinants?
1. Alter expression of determinants in response to temp, ionic conditions, oxygen concentration, pH 2. Two component regulatory systems: R S--> S senses environmental stimuli and R is the response regulator

MICROM 442 (4 decks)

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